Bacte, USMLE Flashcards
1
Q
What does Candida albicans do that distinguishes it from other fungi?
A
It forms a germinal tube at 37°C.
2
Q
What protozoal parasite results in dysentery with blood and pus in the stool, is transmitted via fecal-oral route, is diagnosed by cysts or trophozoites in the stool, and forms liver abscesses and inverted flask-shaped lesions in the large intestine?
A
Entamoeba histolytica (treat with metronidazole)
3
Q
What is the most likely causative organism for a patient with folliculitis after spending time in a Hot Tub?
A
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
4
Q
What two viruses get their envelope not from budding but from coding?
A
HIV and poxvirus
5
Q
Which type of hepatitis can cause hepatocellular carcinoma?
A
Hepatitis B
6
Q
Gas gangrene is associated with which Clostridium species?
A
Clostridium perfringens
7
Q
Which dimorphic fungus is found as hyphae with nondescript conidia in rotting wood in the Upper Great Lakes, Ohio, MIssissippi, eastern seaboard of the United States, and southern Canada?
A
Blastomyces dermatitidis
8
Q
Which parasitic organism, when it crosses the placenta, results in intracerebral calcifications, chorioretinitis, microcephaly, hydrocephaly, and convulsions?
A
Toxoplasma gondii
9
Q
What staphylococcal species is positive for b-hemolysis and coagulase?
A
Staphylococcus aureus
10
Q
What vector is associated with malaria?
A
Anopheles mosquito
11
Q
What is the term for hyphae with constrictions at each septum that are commonly seen in Candida albicans?
A
Pseudohyphae
12
Q
Which cestode infection results in alveolar hydatid cyst disease?
A
Echinococcus multilocularis
13
Q
Which hepatitis virus is in the Flaviviridae family?
A
Hepatitis C
14
Q
What nonmotile gram-netative, non-lactose-fermenting facultative anaerobic rod uses the human colon as its only reservior and is transmitted by fecal-oral spread?
A
Shigella
15
Q
What is the only Rickettsia that is stable in the environment?
A
Coxiella burnetii
16
Q
Regarding the viral growth curve, is the internal virus present before or after the eclipse period?
A
After the eclipse period
17
Q
What Ab is an indication of recurrent disease for hepatitis?
A
HBcAb
18
Q
What small gram-positive, non-spore-forming rod is a facultative intracellular parasite that grows in the cold and is associated with unpasteurized milk products?
A
Listeria monocytogenes
19
Q
What is the only DNA virus that is not icosahedral?
A
Poxvirus
20
Q
Which organism causes trench mouth?
A
Fusobacterium
21
Q
True or false? All of the following are inactivated vaccines available in the United States: influenza, Vibrio cholera, hepatitis A, rabies, and adenovirus.
A
False, Adnovirus vaccine is a live pathogenic virus in an enteric coated capsule. All of the others are inactivated vaccines.
22
Q
No persistent liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows multiple ring forms and crescent-shaped gametes; irregular febrile pattern; associated with cerebral malaria
A
Plasmodium falciparum
23
Q
No persistent liver stage or replapse; blood smear shows rosette schizonts; 72-hour fever spike pattern
A
Plasmodium malariae
24
Q
Persistent hypnozoite liver stage with relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites with oval, jagged infected RBCs; 48-hour fever spike pattern
A
Plasmodium ovale
25
Persistent hypnozoite liver stage with relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites; 48-hour fever spike pattern; the most prevalent form worldwide
Plasmodium vivax
26
True or false? A positive PPD skin test indicates the patient has active pulmonary disease.
False. The PPD tests exposure to TB.
27
What Viral infection is known to cause intracerebral calcifications?
CMV; Toxoplasma also causes intracerebral calcifications but it is a parasite.
28
What viruses are associated with cervical carcinoma?
HPVs 16 and 18
29
What motile, gram-negative spiral bacillus with flagella is oxidase positive, urease positive, and associated with gastritis, peptic ulcer disease, and stomach cancer?
Helicobacter pylori
30
What glycoprotein in the HIV virus is used for fusion?
GP41
31
What Ag is needed to diagnose an infectious patient with hepatitis B?
HBeAg
32
Which organism causes multiple infections by antigen switching?
Borrelia recurrentis
33
What is the first Ag seen in an individual with hepatitis?
HBsAg (incubation period)
34
With which DNA virus are guanieri bodies associated?
Variola (smallpox)
35
What nematode is known as Pinworms? What is the treatment?
Enterobius vernicularis; the treatment is albendazole.
36
What protein allows Mycoplasma to attach to the respiratory epithelium?
P1 protein
37
Day care-associated diarrhea in infants
Rotavirus
38
Watery diarrhea from beef, poultry, or gravies
Clostridium perfringens
39
Rice water stools
Vibrio cholera
40
Diarrhea associated with raw or undercooked shellfish
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
41
Bloody diarrhea associated with hamburger ingestion
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
42
Which fungus is found worldwide on plants, is a cigar-shaped yeast in tissue form, and results in rose gardner's disease?
Sporothrix schenckii
43
Which type of hepatitis is a picornavirus?
Hepatitis A (infectious)
44
What gram-positive rod is distinguished by its tumbling motility?
Listeria
45
What is the vector for Leishmania infections?
Sandfly
46
What organism causes Q fever?
Coxiella burnetii
47
What are the three naked RNA viruses
1) Picornavirus
2) Calicivirus
3) Reovirus
48
HIV's capsid, core nucleocapsid, and matrix proteins are products of what structual gene?
gag gene
49
What facultative intracellular fungus is associated with hepatosplenomegaly?
Histoplasma capsulatum infects the cells of the RES and can result in hepatosplenomegaly.
50
What type of hepatitis has the highest mortality rate among pregnant women?
Hepatitis E
51
Which gram-netative diplococcus ferments maltose?
Meningoccus (Gonococcus does not)
52
Are antibiotics helpful in treating a disease caused by a prion?
No. Prions are infectious proteins, so antibiotics are useless.
53
What bacterium is associated with hand-foot-and-mouth disease?
Coxsackie A
54
What is the only trematode that is not hermaphroditic?
Schistosoma have separate males and females.
55
What water-associated organism is a weakly stained gram-negative rod that requires cysteine and iron for growth?
Legionella (think air conditioners)
56
With what virus are Downey type II cells associated?
EBV
57
True or false? Interferons are eukaryotic proteins that inhibit viral replication by being virus specific.
False. Interferons are produced by virally infected cells to Inhibit viral replication via RNA endonucleases. They Do Not act directly on the virus, nor are they virus specific.
58
What is the vector for yellow fever?
Aedes mosquito
59
What small, facultative gram-negative intracellular rod's transmission is associated with unpasteurized dairy products and undulant fever?
Brucella
60
True or false? All Proteus species are urease positive.
TRUE
61
Nails and skin only
Epidermophyton
62
Hair and skin only
Microsporum
63
Skin, hair, and nails
Trichophyton
64
What protein of the HIV virus does ELISA detect to determine whether a patient is HIV positive?
P24
65
What genus of bacteria is described by catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci in clusters?
Staphylococcus
66
True or false? Vibrio parahaemolyticus require NaCl in its growth medium.
True. Staphylococcus aureus and group D enterococci also grow in high-salt media.
67
What virus causes small pink benign wartlike tumors and is associated with HIV-positive patients?
Molluscum contagiosum
68
What two bacteria are associated with drinking unpasteurized milk?
Brucella and Listeria (has tumbling motility)
69
What cestode causes Cysticercosis?
Taenia solium
70
What DNA virus is associated with exanthem subitum (roseola)?
HHV 6
71
Which acid-fast rod is an obligate intracellular parasite?
Mycobacterium leprae
72
What form of the Plasmodium species is ingested by mosquitoes?
Gametocytes
73
What small gram-negative aerobic rod requires Regan-Lowe or Bordet-Gengou medium for growth?
Bordetella pertussis
74
True or false? Streptococci have catalase.
False. Staphylococci have catalase; Streptococci do not.
75
What 3 bacteria are positive to Quellung reactive test
1) Neisseria meningitidis
2) Hemophilus influenzae
3) Streptococcus pneumoniae
76
A patient goes to the ER with abdominal cramps, vomiting, diarrhea, and sweating less than 24 hours after eating potato salad at a picnic; what is the most likely responsible organism?
Staphylococcus aureus
77
True or false? All spore formers are gram positive.
TRUE
78
What is the only DNA virus that has the reverse transcriptase enzyme?
Hepadnavirus
79
What enzyme does HIV use to integrate the proviral dsDNA into the host?
Integrase
80
What are the two hepatitis viruses that can be chronic and can lead eventually to hepatocellular carcinoma?
Hepatitis B and hepatitis C
81
What gram-positive spore-forming anaerobic rod blocks the release of Ach at the NMJ, resulting in reversible flaccid paralysis?
Clostridium botulinum
82
Name at least two products of HIV's pol gene.
Protease, integrase, and reverse transcriptase
83
What form of Plasmodium species affects the liver?
Hypnozoite
84
What small coagulase-positive, gram-negative rod with bipolar staining is a facultative intracellular parasite resulting in buboes?
Yersinia pestis
85
What hemoflagellate species is the cause of Chagas disease?
Trypanosoma cruzi
86
To what host cell receptor does the rabies virus attach?
ACh receptor
87
Which hepatitis virus is in the Picornaviridae family?
Hepatitis A
88
Abs to what hepatitis B Ag provide immunity?
Abs to HBsAg
89
What type of spore is defined as an asexual budding daughter yeast cell?
Blastoconidia
90
Eukaryotic cell, 15 to 25 microns, 80S ribosomes, no cell walls, replicates via cytokinesis with mitosis and meiosis
Parasites
91
Small prokaryotic cells; no histones; 70S ribosomes; no sterols in cell membrane; peptidoglycans in cell wall; replicate by binary fission
Bacteria
92
Eukaryotic cell; 3 to 10 microns; 80S ribosomes; chitinous cell wall; ergosterol in cell membrane; replicate via cytokinesis with mitosis and meiosis
Fungi
93
Acellular; some are enveloped; replicate within the host cell; no cell walls
Viruses
94
What mosquito is the vector for dengue fever?
Aedes (the same for yellow fever)
95
True or false? Gonococcus is encapsulated.
False. Meningococcus is encapsulated; Gonococcus is not.
96
What virus is associated with Guarnieri bodies?
Variola virus
97
Regarding the viral growth curve, is the external virus present before or after the latent period?
After the Latent period
98
What aerobic branching rod that is gram positive and partially acid-fast is associated with cavitary bronchopulmonary disease in immunosuppressed patients?
Nocardia asteroides
99
What obligate extracellular fungus is silver stain-positive and is associated with pneumonia in patients with AIDS?
Pneumocystis carinii
100
What Vi-encapsulated gram-negative motile anaerobic rod that produces H2S is associated with enteric fever, gastroenteritis, and septicemia?
Salmonella typhi
101
What is the most likely organism causing cellulitis in a patient who was cut by an Oyster Shell?
Vibrio vulnificus
102
What virus is associated with the Norwalk agent?
Calicivirus
103
b-Hemolytic Streptococcus; positive cAMP test; hydrolyzes hippurate
Streptococcus agalactiae
104
a-Hemolytis Streptococcus; lysed by bile; sensitive to Optochin
Pneumococcus (Streptococcus pneumoniae)
105
a-Hemolytic Streptococcus; not lysed by bile; not sensitive to Optochin
Streptococcus viridans
106
b-Hemolytic Streptococcus sensitive to bacitracin
Streptococcus pyogenes
107
What is the only nonmotile pathogenic Clostridium species?
Clostridium perfringens
108
If a virus has positive sense RNA, can it be used as mRNA or is a template needed?
Positive sense RNA Can be used as mRNA. Negative sense RNA CanNot be used as mRNA; it requires special RNA-dependent RNA polymerases.
109
Where do adult tapeworms develop, in the intermediate or definitive host?
Adult tapeworms develop in the Definitive host, whereas Cysticerci or Larvae develop in the Intermediate host.
110
Which streptococcal species is characterized by being catalase negative, turning bile esculin agar black, producing a positive PYR test, and resulting in biliary and urinary tract infections?
Enterococcus (Streptococcus faecalis)
111
What 3 carcinomas are associated with EBV
1) Burkitt lymphoma
2) NPCA
3) Thymic carcinoma
112
Which organism causes trench fever?
Rochalinaea quintana
113
Based on the onset of the symptoms, how are bacterial conjunctivitis from Neisseria and Chlamydia differentiated?
The onset of symptoms for Neisseria gonorrhea conjunctivitis is 2 to 5 days, whereas onset of symptoms for Chlamydia trachomatis is 5 to 10 days.
114
What toxin, produced by Clostridium tetani, binds to ganglioside receptor and blocks the release of glycine and GABA at the spinal synapse?
Tetanospasmin (also called tetanus toxin)
115
True or false? All of the following are Live Attenuated Vaccines available in the United States: measles, mumps, varicella zoster, and Francisella tularensis.
True. So are rubeola, smallpox, yellow fever, and the Sabin polio vaccine.
116
Ebola
Filovirus
117
California encephalitis
Bunyavirus
118
Hantavirus
Bunyavirus
119
Rabies
Rhabdovirus
120
RSV
Paramyxovirus
121
Measles
Paramyxovirus
122
What microaerophile is a motile gram-negative curved rod with polar flagella that causes infectious diarrhea at low doses (less than 500)
Campylobacter jejuni
123
What bacterium is diagnosed using the Dieterle silver stain?
Legionella
124
How many strains of Pneumococcus capsular polysaccharides are present in the vaccine?
The vaccine contains 23 capsular polysaccharides.
125
What nematode is known as whipworms? What is the treatment?
Trichuris trichiura is treated with albendazole.
126
Which Streptococcus pyogenes toxin is immunogenic?
Streptolysin O
127
A urethral swab of a patient shows gram-negative diplococci in PMNs; what organism do you diagnose?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
128
A suspected dermatophyte infection is stained with KOH. What spore type do you expect to see?
Arthroconidia with hyphae
129
What negative sense RNA virus is associated with cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis with photophobia?
Measles (rubeola)
130
Which M-protein strain of Streptococcus pyogenes is associated with acute glomerulonephritis?
M12 strains
131
What are the 3 C's of measles
1) Cough
2) Coryza
3) Conjunctivitis
132
What is the term given to Arthropod-borne viruses?
Arboviruses (bunyavirus, flavivirus, and togavirus)
133
Which organism causes Weil's disease?
Leptospira
134
What form of the Plasmodium species are injected into humans by mosquitoes?
Sporozoites
135
What ssDNA virus must make dsDNA before it makes mRNA?
Parvovirus (it is the only ssDNA virus)
136
What is the vector of African sleeping sickness?
The tsetse fly
137
What HIV enzyme produces a dsDNA provirus?
Reverse transcriptase
138
What non-spore-forming gram-positive aerobic rod produces bull neck, sore throat with pseudomembranes, myocarditis, and sometimes respiratory obstructions?
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
139
What organism is associated with megloblastic anemia?
Diphyllobothrium latum
140
What is the most serious form of tinea capitis, which results in permanent hair loss and is highly contagious?
Tinea favosa (favus)
141
What are the first intermediate hosts for trematodes?
Snails
142
What are the four capsular polysaccharides wuses in the Neisseria meningitides vaccine?
Y, W-135, and C and A capsular polysaccharides
143
What is the only encapsulated fungal pathogen?
Cryptococcus
144
What type of spore is asexual and formed of hyphae?
Conidia
145
What is the only Plasmodium that is quartan?
Plasmodium malariae; the others are tertian.
146
Red pigmentation
Serratia
147
Black-gray pigmentation
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
148
Pyocyanin (blue-green)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
149
Yellow pigmentation
Staphylococcus aureus
150
Which carcinoma - Burkitt's lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, or thymic carcinoma - is NOT associated with EBV?
Hepatocellular carcinoma is associated with hepatitis B and C infections, not with EBV.
151
What capsular serotype is associated with Escherichia coli-induced meningitis?
K1 capsule
152
What two Ags must be positive for a patient to have chronic active hepatitis?
HBsAg and HBeAg
153
In the window phase of a hepatitis B infection, which Abs do you see?
HBcAb and HBeAb. You SEE the antibodies C and E.
154
True or false? All streptococci are catalase-negative.
TRUE
155
In what trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to congenital rubella syndrome?
The first trimester
156
What virus causes hoof-and-mouth disease?
Vescular stomatitis virus
157
Which gram-negative diplococcus grows on chocolate grows on chocolate agar? Thayer-Martin medium?
Meningococcus grows on chocolate agar, and Gonococcus grows on Thayer-Martin medium.
158
Which protozoal parasitic vaginal infection produces a positive whiff test with KOH staining?
Trichomonas vaginalis (treat with metronidazole)
159
Linear dsDNA; enveloped; virion-associated polymerases; replicates in the cytoplasm
Poxvirus
160
Linear dsDNA; nuclear envelope; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
Herpes virus
161
Linear dsDNA; naked; replicates in the nucleus
Adenovirus
162
ssDNA; naked; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
Parvovirus
163
Partially dsDNA circular; enveloped; virion-associated polymerases; has RNA intermediate; replicates in the nucelus
Hepadnarivus
164
Circular dsDNA; naked; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
Papovavirus
165
What fungus is urease positive?
Cryptococcus
166
What bacterium is characterized by large boxcar-shaped gram-positive rods and is spore-forming, aerobic, and associated with cutaneous infections and woolsorter's disease?
Bacillus anthracis
167
Is the Salk polio vaccine inactivated?
Yes
168
True or false? All negative sense RNA viruses are enveloped.
True. They all have helical nucleocapsids and virion-associated polymerases too.
169
What urease-positive non-lactose-fermenting gram-negative rod with swarming-type motility is associated with staghorn renal calculi?
Proteus
170
With what two viruses are Reye's syndrome associated?
Varicella virus and influenza virus
171
Which organism releases endotoxins prior to cell death?
Neisseria meningitidis
172
Cluce cells are associated with which organism that causes vaginal discharge?
Gardnerella vaginalis
173
What is the name of the bullet-shaped virus?
Rhabdovirus
174
What fungus is characterized by India ink staining of the CSF that produces colorless cells with a halo on a black background?
Cryptococcus neoformans
175
What does hepatitis D virus need from hepatitis B virus to be infective?
HBsAg as its envelope
176
Which type of hepatitis is a calicivirus?
Hepatitis E (enteric)
177
What genus is known as the smallest free living bacteria? (hint: has no cell wall and has sterols in the membrane)
Mycoplasma
178
What three organs can be affected by Trypanosoma cruzi?
Heart, esophagus, and colon. Remember, you get Megas: cardioMegaly, Megaesophagus, and Megacolon.
179
Which serotypes of HPV are associated with plantar warts?
HPV serotypes 1 and 4
180
What facultative gram-negative anaerobic rod is motile, ferments lactose, and is the MCC of UTIs?
Escherichia coli
181
What is the only dsRNA virus?
Reovirus
182
What are the 4 segmented RNA viruses
1) Bunyavirus
2) Orthomyxovirus
3) Reovirus
4) Arenavirus
183
What is the term given to Arthropod-borne viruses?
Arboviruses (bunyavirus, flavivirus, and togavirus)
184
Which organism causes Weil's disease?
Leptospira
185
What form of the Plasmodium species are injected into humans by mosquitoes?
Sporozoites
186
What ssDNA virus must make dsDNA before it makes mRNA?
Parvovirus (it is the only ssDNA virus)
187
What is the vector of African sleeping sickness?
The tsetse fly
188
What HIV enzyme produces a dsDNA provirus?
Reverse transcriptase
189
What non-spore-forming gram-positive aerobic rod produces bull neck, sore throat with pseudomembranes, myocarditis, and sometimes respiratory obstructions?
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
190
What organism is associated with megloblastic anemia?
Diphyllobothrium latum
191
What is the most serious form of tinea capitis, which results in permanent hair loss and is highly contagious?
Tinea favosa (favus)
192
What are the first intermediate hosts for trematodes?
Snails
193
What are the four capsular polysaccharides wuses in the Neisseria meningitides vaccine?
Y, W-135, and C and A capsular polysaccharides
194
What is the only encapsulated fungal pathogen?
Cryptococcus
195
What type of spore is asexual and formed of hyphae?
Conidia
196
What is the only Plasmodium that is quartan?
Plasmodium malariae; the others are tertian.
197
Red pigmentation
Serratia
198
Black-gray pigmentation
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
199
Pyocyanin (blue-green)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
200
Yellow pigmentation
Staphylococcus aureus
201
Which carcinoma - Burkitt's lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, or thymic carcinoma - is NOT associated with EBV?
Hepatocellular carcinoma is associated with hepatitis B and C infections, not with EBV.
202
What capsular serotype is associated with Escherichia coli-induced meningitis?
K1 capsule
203
What two Ags must be positive for a patient to have chronic active hepatitis?
HBsAg and HBeAg
204
In the window phase of a hepatitis B infection, which Abs do you see?
HBcAb and HBeAb. You SEE the antibodies C and E.
205
True or false? All streptococci are catalase-negative.
TRUE
206
In what trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to congenital rubella syndrome?
The first trimester
207
What virus causes hoof-and-mouth disease?
Vescular stomatitis virus
208
Which gram-negative diplococcus grows on chocolate grows on chocolate agar? Thayer-Martin medium?
Meningococcus grows on chocolate agar, and Gonococcus grows on Thayer-Martin medium.
209
Which protozoal parasitic vaginal infection produces a positive whiff test with KOH staining?
Trichomonas vaginalis (treat with metronidazole)
210
Only mature RBCs?
Plasmodium malariae
211
Only reticulocytes?
Plasmodium vivax
212
RBCs of all ages?
Plasmodium falciparum
213
What is the major cell membrane sterol found in fungi?
Ergosterol
214
What Ab is an indication of low transmissibility for hepatitis?
HBeAb
215
What is the term for RNA-dependent DNA polymerase?
Reverse transcriptase
216
Which gram-positive bacteria infection of infancy is associated with ingestion of honey?
Clostridium botulinum
217
Which trematode is associated with bladder carcinoma in Egypt and Africa?
Schistosoma heamatobium
218
Which encapsulated fungus is found in soil enriched with pigeon droppings?
Cryptococcus neoformans
219
Trigeminal ganglia?
Herpes I
220
Dorsal root ganglia?
Varicella
221
Sensory ganglia of S2 and S3?
Herpes II
222
What is the name of exotoxin Shigella dysenteriae produces, which interferes with the 60S ribosomal subunit and results in eukaryotic protein synthesis inhibition?
Shiga toxin (enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli produces Vero toxin, which is quite similar to shiga toxin)
223
What protozonal parasite forms flasked-shaped lesions in the duodenum, is transmitted via fecal-oral route, and is commonly seen in campers who drank stream water?
Giardia lamblia (treat with metronidazole)
224
What color do fungi stain with PAS? Silver stain?
Hot pink with PAS and grey to black with silver stain
225
A tropical fish enthusiast has granulomatous lesions and cellulitis; what is the most likely offending organism?
Mycobacterium marinum
226
Which dimorphic fungus is found as Arthroconidia in desert sand of the southwestern United States (e.g., San Joaquin Valley)?
Coccidioides immitis
227
Which mycoplasma sepecies is associated with urethritis, prostatis, and renal calculi?
Ureaplasma urealyticum
228
What tick is the vector for bagesiosis?
Ixodes (also the vector for Lyme disease)
229
What is the only DNA virus that does not replicate its DNA in the nucleus of the host cell?
Poxvirus replicates its DNA in the cytoplasm.
230
What organism would you suspect in a patient with diarrhea after eating rice?
Bacillus cereus
231
What small gram-negative facultative intracellular rod is transmitted to human host by Dermacentor tick bite?
Francisella tularensis
232
True or false? Cestodes have no GI tract.
True. They absorb nutrients from the host's GI tract.
233
What negative sense RNA virus is associated with parotitis, pancreatitis, and orchitis?
Mumps
234
IV drug abuser
> 10 mm
235
Patient with AIDS
> 5mm
236
Recent immigrant from India
> 10 mm
237
Healthy suburban male without any medical illnesses
> 15 mm
238
Posttransplantation patient taking immunosuppressive agents
> 5 mm
239
What are the only two picornaviruses that do NOT lead to aseptic meningitis?
Rhinovirus and hepatitis A virus
240
Which cestode is raw or rare beef containing cysticerci results in intestinal tapeworms?
Taenia saginata
241
What DNA viral disease is associated with aplastic crisis in patients with sickle cell anemia?
Parvovirus B-19
242
What glycoprotein in the HIV virus attaches to CD4?
GP120
243
What Enterobacteriaceae are prone to produce osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients?
Salmonella
244
What organism is commonly associated with a cellulitis from an animal bite?
Pasteurella multocida
245
What fungus is seen as colored cauliflower lesions?
Chromomycosis
246
What is the reservoir for the togavirus?
Birds
247
What are the two exceptions to the rule "all cocci are gram positive"?
Both Nesseria and Moraxella are gram-netative cocci.
248
What nematode is known as hookworms? What is the treatment?
Necator americanus is treated with mebendazole and iron therapy.
249
What HIV structural gene produces GP120 and GP41?
env structural protein
250
Which hemoflagellate species causes Kala Azar?
Leishmania donovani (kala azar is also known as visceral leishmaniasis)
251
What DNA virus is associated with heterophile-negative mononucleosis?
CMV; remember, EBV is associated with heterophile-positive mononucleosis.
252
What negative sense RNA virus is associated with intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies called Negri bodies?
Rabies
253
What large, spore-forming, gram-positive anaerobic rod is associated with infections due to puncture wounds and trauma?
Clostridium tetani
254
What is the vector for Chagas disease?
The reduviid bug
255
What is the polarity (i.e, 5'-3' or 3'-5') of a positive sense RNA?
Positive sense RNA means it can serve as mRNA and therefore has 5'-3' Polarity.
256
What viral infection is associated with black vomit?
Yellow fever (flavivirus)
257
What encapsulated gram-negative, lactose-fermenting rod is associated with pneumonia in patients with alcoholism, diabetes, and chronic lung disease?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
258
What is the essential reservoir host for Toxoplasma gondii?
The cat
259
What gram-positive anaerobic rod with branching filaments is a component of the normal flora of the mouth and female genital tract and is responsible for draining abscesses with sulfur granules in the exudates?
Actinomyces israelii
260
What is the term for Candida infection of the oral mucosa?
Thrush
261
What is the term for fungi that can convert from hyphal to yeast forms?
Dimorphic
262
To what viral family does the polio virus belong?
Picornaviridae
263
Name at least three bacteria that use capsules to prevent immediate destruction from the host's defense system.
Streptococcus penumoniae, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Neisseria meningitidis; also Cryptococcus neoformans, a fungus
264
True or false? There are no persistent infections with naked viruses?
True. They lyse the host cell
265
What virus is associated with progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?
JC virus
266
What bacterium is a gram-negative, oxidase-positive aerobic rod that produces a grapelike odor and pyocyanin pigmentation?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
267
Which three organisms cause heterophilic negative mononucleosis?
CMV, Toxoplasma gondii, and Listeria
268
What bacterium found in poorly preserved canned food causes flaccid paralysis?
Clostridium botulinum
269
Which two negative sense RNA viruses have neuraminidase enzymes?
Mumps and influenza virus
270
What Staphylococcus aureus protein inhibits phagocytosis?
Protein A
271
Which four bacteria require cysteine for growth?
Pasteurella, Brucella, Legionella, and Francisella (all of the -ellas)
272
What fungus causes endocarditis in IV drug users?
Candida albicans
273
What viruses are associated with Cowdry type A intranuclear inclusions?
Herpes virus I and II
274
Which streptococcal species is associated with dental caries and infective endocarditis in patients with poor oral hygiene?
Streptococcus viridans
275
What is the term for cestode-encysted larvae found in intermediate hosts?
Cysicerci
276
What fungus is characterized by hypopigmented spots on the thorax, spaghetti-and-meatball KOH staining, and pityriasis or tinea versicolor?
Malassezia furfur (treat with selenium sulfide)
277
What nematode is known as threadworms? What is the treatment?
Strongyloides stercoralis is treated with thiabendazole.
278
What are known as jumping genes?
Transposons
279
What virus produces koilocytic cells on a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear?
HPV
280
Which dimorphic fungus is endemic in the Ohio, Mississippi, MIssouri, and Eastern Great Lakes, is found in soil with bird and bat feces, and is associated with infections in spelunkers and chicken coop cleaners?
Histoplasma capsulatum
281
Which of the following Enterobacteriaceae family members - Yersinia, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Escherichia, Proteus, and Citrobacter - do not ferment lactose?
All are lactose fermenters except Yersinia and Proteus.
282
What two HIV regulatory genes down-regulate MHC class I expression in the host?
nef and tat genes
283
What size ribosomes do fungi have?
80S ribosomes (because they are eukaryotic)
