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microbiologyss_20200626142001 Flashcards

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1
Q

Nomal cell mediated; Low levels of all immunoglobulins; tyrosine kinase deficiency

A

x-Linked agammaglobulinemia/Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia

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2
Q

6 mos male infant; recurrent pyogenic and enteroviral infections; recurrent giardiasis

A

x-Linked agammaglobulinemia/Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia

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3
Q

Failure of isotype switching; do not give gamma globulin

A

Selective IgA deficiency

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4
Q

Defect in B-cell maturation to plasma cells; Most common form of severe antibody deficiency affecting both children and adults

A

Common Variable Immunodeficiency

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5
Q

CATCH 22 = DiGeorge Syndrome

A

Cardiac Anomalies (TOF); Abnormal Fascies; Thymic aplasia; Cleft Palate; Hypocalcemia; 22q11.2 Chromosomal Deletion

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6
Q

specific T-cell defeciency for Candida Albicans

A

Chronic Mucocutaneous Candidiasis

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7
Q

X-linked defect in IL-2 receptors in T-cells

A

SCID

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8
Q

autosomal Adenosine deaminase deficiency

A

SCID

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9
Q

Inability to mount IgM response

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

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10
Q

WASP Gene Mutation (how do you TIE a WASP?)

A

Thrombocytopenia, Infections, Eczema, WASP Mutation)

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11
Q

ATI of Ataxia-Telangiectasia

A

Ataxia, Telangectasia, IgA deficiency

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12
Q

Lack of NADPH Oxidase activity; Failure of oxidative burst

A

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

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13
Q

Diagnostic Test for Chronic Granulomatous Disease

A

Nitroblue Tetrazolium

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14
Q

Autosomal recessive; failure of phaglysosomal fusion presenting as recurrent pyogenic infections caused by staph and strep

A

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

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15
Q

Mutation in integrins; defective adhesion (LFA-1) proteins on the surface phagocytes

A

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency

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16
Q

Most common complement defect

A

C2 deficiency

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17
Q

c5-c9 deficiency

A

Terminal complement deficiency

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18
Q

Egg Yolk Agar

A

Clostridium perfringens

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19
Q

Tellurite

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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20
Q

Bile Esculin

A

Group D Streptococci

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21
Q

Mannitol Salts

A

Staphylococci

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22
Q

Chocolate Agar

A

Neisseria from Sterile Sites (N. meningitidis & N, gonorrhoeae)

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23
Q

Thayer Martin

A

Neisseria from nonsterile sites

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24
Q

Chocolate agar + Factors 5 and 10

A

Haemophilus influenzae

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25
Q

Lowenstein Jenses/Middlebrook

A

Mycobacterium tberculosis

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26
Q

Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Salts (TBCS)

A

Vibrio cholerae

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27
Q

Bordet-Gengou/Regan-Lowe

A

Bordetella pertussis

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28
Q

Charcoal-yeast extract ( iron+cysteine)

A

Legionella pneumophila

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29
Q

Skirrows

A

Campylobacter, Helicobacter

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30
Q

Barbour-Stoenner-Kelly (BSK)

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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31
Q

Eaton

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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32
Q

Cetrimide

A

Pseudomonas aeuroginosa

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33
Q

Xylose-Lysine-Deoxycholate(XLD)/SSA

A

Salmonella, Shigella

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34
Q

Fletcher’s/Ellinghausen-McCullough-Johnson-Harris (EMJH)

A

Leptospira interrogans

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35
Q

Chocolate Agar + Factor 10 only

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

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36
Q

DOC for meningococcemia (N meningitidis)

A

Pen G

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37
Q

DOC for typhoid fever in the Phils

A

Amoxicillin, Cotrimoxazole; Chloramphenicol

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38
Q

DOC for shortening duration of cholera

A

azithromycin or tetracycline

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39
Q

DOC for shigella

A

ciprofloxacin

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40
Q

DOC for SEVERE campylobacter infection (otherwise, supportive measures only)

A

erythromycin

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41
Q

DOC for proteus

A

TMP-SMX or ampicillin

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42
Q

DOC for pertussis

A

erythromycin

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43
Q

DOC for legionella

A

azithromycin or erythromycin

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44
Q

DOC for kleb pneumonia

A

cephalosporin +/- aminoglycoside

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45
Q

DOC for haemophilus

A

ceftriaxone

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46
Q

DOC for gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone + doxycycline (due to frequent co-infection with chlamydia)

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47
Q

DOC for bacteroides fragilis

A

metronidazole, clindamycin, cefoxitin

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48
Q

DOC for listeria

A

ampicillin with or without gentamicin

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49
Q

DOC for inhalational/gastrointestinal anthrax

A

cipro/doxycycline plus one/two addtnl antibx (rifampin, vanco, pen, imipenem, clinda, clarith)

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50
Q

DOC for diphtheria

A

pen g and antitoxin

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51
Q

DOC for cutaneous anthrax

A

ciprofloxacin

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52
Q

DOC for clostridium tetani

A

metronidazole

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53
Q

DOC for Vancomycin RSA

A

Linezolid

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54
Q

DOC for PSGN

A

Pen G

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55
Q

DOC for MRSA

A

Vancomycin

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56
Q

DOC for brucellosis (undulating fever)

A

Doxycycline + rifampin

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57
Q

DOC for tularemia

A

streptomycin or gentamicin

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58
Q

DOC for pasteurella

A

Pen G

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59
Q

DOC for yersinina

A

Streptomycin and tetracycline

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60
Q

DOC for MAI, MAC

A

Azithromycin

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61
Q

DOC for tuberculoid leprosy

A

Dapsone and rifampin

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62
Q

DOC for lepromatous leprosy

A

Dapsone, Rifampin, and clofazimine

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63
Q

DOC for erythema nodosum leprosum

A

Thalidomide

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64
Q

DOC for actinomyces

A

Pen G + Drainage

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65
Q

DOC for nocardia

A

TMP SMX + drainage

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66
Q

DOC for mycoplasma

A

eryhthromycin or azithromycin

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67
Q

DOC for syphillis

A

Pen G

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68
Q

DOC for Lyme Disease (Borrelia)

A

Doxycycline (alternative: amox or cefuroxime)

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69
Q

DOC for relapsing fever (B. Recurentis)

A

Tetracycline or eryhromycin

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70
Q

DOC for leptospirosis

A

Pen G

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71
Q

DOC for chlamydia

A

Azithromycin

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72
Q

DOC for chlamydia conjuctivitis

A

erythromycin

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73
Q

DOC for LG venereum

A

doxycycline

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74
Q

DOC for psittacosis

A

Azithromycin

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75
Q

DOC for cat scratch disease

A

doxycycline

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76
Q

DOC for ehrlichosis

A

doxycycline

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77
Q

DOC for bacterial vaginosis

A

metronidazole

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78
Q

DOC for chancroid

A

azithromycin or ceftriaxone

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79
Q

DOC for klebsiella granulomatis

A

azithromycin

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80
Q

non-motile, box-car shaped

A

bacillus anthracis

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81
Q

motile, heated fried rice

A

bacillus cereus

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82
Q

tennis racket like (terminal spore)

A

clostridium tetani

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83
Q

bulging cans

A

clostridium botilinum

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84
Q

lechitinase, gas forming

A

clostridium perfringens

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85
Q

anaerobic, pseudomembranes

A

clostridium difficile

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86
Q

aerobic, motile, chinese character

A

corynebacterium diphtheriae

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87
Q

aerobic, tumbling motility

A

listeria monocytogenes

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88
Q

Medussa head morphology

A

bacillus anthracis

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89
Q

woolsorter’s disease

A

bacillus anthracis

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90
Q

protective antigen + edema factor =

A

edema toxin of b. anthracis

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91
Q

protective antigen + lethal factor =

A

lethal toxin

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92
Q

DOC for cutaneous anthrax

A

ciprofloxacin

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93
Q

DOC for inhalational/gastrointestinal anthrax

A

cipro/doxycycline plus one/two addtnl antibx (rifampin, vanco, pen, imipenem, clinda, clarith)

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94
Q

DOC for clostridium tetani

A

metronidazole

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95
Q

Triad of Botulism

A
  1. Symmetric descending flaccid paralysis; 2. No fever; 3. intact sensorium
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96
Q

double hemolysis on blood agar

A

clostridium perfringens

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97
Q

Toxin for gas gangrene of c. perfringens

A

alpha toxin

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98
Q

pseudomembranous colitis

A

clostridium difficile

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99
Q

pseudomembranous pharyngitis

A

corynebacterium diphtheriae

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100
Q

pseudomembranous esophagitis

A

candida albicans

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101
Q

Elongation Factor 2

A

corynebacterium diphtheriae

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102
Q

ABCDE of prophage encoded toxins

A

shigA toxin; Botulinum; Cholera; Diptheria; Erythrogenic toxin (s. pyogenes)

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103
Q

DOC for diphtheria

A

pen g and antitoxin

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104
Q

DOC for listeria

A

ampicillin with or without gentamicin

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105
Q

Tularemia (Francisella tularensis)

A

Dog Ticks (Dermacentor - like erlichosis)

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106
Q

Plague (Yersinia)

A

Flea

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107
Q

Pasteurella

A

Dog and Cat Bites

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108
Q

Lyme Disease (Borrelia burgdorferi)

A

Deer ticks (Ixodes scapularis)

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109
Q

Relapsing Fever (Borrelia recurentis)

A

Human body louse (Pediculus humanus)

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110
Q

Rocky Mountain Spotted fever (Rickettsia rickettsii)

A

Ticks (deer ticks - same with lyme disease)

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111
Q

Rickettsial pox (Rickettsia akari)

A

Mites (chiggers) - like scrub typhus

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112
Q

Epidemic typhus (Rickettsia prowazekii)

A

Body Louse (like relapsing fever)

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113
Q

Endemic typhus (Rickettsia typhi)

A

Rat flea

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114
Q

Scrub typhus (Orientia tsutsumagushi)

A

Mites (chiggers) - like rickettsial pox

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115
Q

Q fever (Coxiella burnetti)

A

NONE

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116
Q

Ehrlichosis (Ehrlichia chaffeensis)

A

Dog Ticks (Dermacentor - like tularemia)

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117
Q

Ferments Maltose and Glucose

A

N. meningitidis

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118
Q

Ferments Glucose only

A

N. gonorrhoeae

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119
Q

MCC of meningitis among 2-18yo

A

N. meningitidis (recall: BEL for neonates; NHS for infants)

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120
Q

fever, shock, purpura, DIC, thrombocytopenia, ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY

A

Waterhouse Frriderichsen Syndrome (most severe form of meningococcemia)

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121
Q

DOC for meningococcemia (N meningitidis)

A

Pen G

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122
Q

Strains included in capsular polysaccharide vaccine for meningococcemia

A

A, C, Y, W-135

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123
Q

Chemoprophylaxis for close contacts of meningococcemia

A

Rifampin

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124
Q

MCC of urethritis

A

N. gonorrhoeae

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125
Q

MCC of PID

A

N. gonorrhoeae

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126
Q

Violin string adhesions (perihepatitis)

A

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome

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127
Q

MCC of septic arthritis in sexually active adults

A

N. gonorrhoeae

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128
Q

DOC for gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone + doxycycline (due to frequent co-infection with chlamydia)

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129
Q

HACEK organisms causinf culture negative subacute bacterial endocarditis

A

Haemophilus aphrophilus; Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans; Cardiobacterium hominis; Eikenella corrodens; Kingella kingae

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130
Q

Satellite phenomenon around s. aureus colonies

A

haemophilus influenzae

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131
Q

Factors added to chocolate agar for H influenzae cultures

A

Factors 5(NAD) and 10 (hemin)

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132
Q

Cherry red epiglottis, Thumb sign

A

Epiglottitis

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133
Q

MCC of epiglotittis

A

haemophilus influenzae

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134
Q

DOC for haemophilus

A

ceftriaxone

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135
Q

Cause of laryngotracheobronchitis

A

parainfluenza 1 and 2

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136
Q

Steeple Sign

A

laryngotracheobronchitis

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137
Q

Tx for laryngotracheobronchitis

A

racemic epinephrine

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138
Q

DOC for pertussis

A

erythromycin

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139
Q

Silver stain, charcoal yeast extract agar (iron and cysteine)

A

Legionella

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140
Q

Phases of pertussis

A

Incubation; Catarrhal (Mucuos membrane - highest bacterial load); Paroxysmal (whooping); Convalescent

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141
Q

Cause of Pontiac fever (mild, flulike illness)

A

Legionella

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142
Q

DOC for legionella

A

azithromycin or erythromycin

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143
Q

lactose fermenter, characteristic “green sheen” on EMB Agar

A

escherichia coli

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144
Q

urease positive, ESBL

A

klebsiella pneumoniae

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145
Q

comma shaped, motile, oxidase positive

A

Vibrio (other comma - helicobacter, campylobacter and corynebacterium)

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146
Q

Non-lactose fermenters gram negative rods (4)

A

Salmonella, Shigella, Proteus, Pseudomonas

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147
Q

H2S producer, Nonlactose fermenter

A

Salmonella (shigella = no H2s)

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148
Q

Swarming motiity

A

Proteus mirabilis

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149
Q

Lactose fermenter (SEEK laCtose)

A

Serratia, Escherichia, Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Citrobacter)

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150
Q

MCC of community acquired UTI

A

E. coli

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151
Q

E coli: Watery diarrhea

A

ETEC

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152
Q

E coli: Pedia, Philippines (developing), Prolonged

A

EPEC

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153
Q

E coli: Bloody diarrhea, Hemorrhagic colitis, HUS

A

EHEC

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154
Q

E coli: Bloody diarrhea

A

EIEC

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155
Q

E coli: HIV, persistent diarrhea

A

EAEC

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156
Q

Typhoid fever is due to _____ antigen

A

Vi capsular antigen

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157
Q

Culture source for salmonella for all 5 weeks

A

Bone marrow!

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158
Q

Preferred culture sources for first 3 weeks

A

B-U-S: 1-Blood; 2-Urine; 3-Stool

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159
Q

DOC for typhoid fever in the Phils

A

Amoxicillin, Cotrimoxazole; Chloramphenicol

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160
Q

Preferred site invasion of shigella

A

distal ileum and colon

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161
Q

MCC of bacillary dysentery

A

Shigella sonnei/Dural’s bacillus

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162
Q

MCC of epidemic dysentery

A

Shigella dysenteriae 1/Shiga bacillus

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163
Q

Most severe form of bacillary dysentery

A

Shigella dysenteriae 1/Shiga bacillus

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164
Q

DOC for shigella

A

ciprofloxacin

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165
Q

shooting star motility

A

vibrio cholerae

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166
Q

strain of cholera causing pandemics

A

Cholera El Tor (Vibrio cholerae O1 biotype El Tor)

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167
Q

DOC for shortening duration of cholera

A

azithromycin or tetracycline

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168
Q

MCC of bacterial gastroenteritis

A

campylobacter jejuni

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169
Q

uncooked chicken = (no, it’s not salmonella)

A

campylobacter jejuni

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170
Q

Antigenic cross reactivity between oligosaccharide in campylobacter capsule and glycosphingolipids of neural tissues

A

Guillan-Barre Syndrome

171
Q

Urethritis, Uveitis, and Arthritis

A

Reiter’s Syndrome (reactive with campylobacter jejuni)

172
Q

DOC for SEVERE campylobacter infection (otherwise, supportive measures only)

A

erythromycin

173
Q

Test used to document cure of H. pylori

A

Urease breath test

174
Q

Triple therapy

A

Bismuth+Metro+Tetracycline; Omep+Metro/amox+clarithromycin; Ranitidine+Tetracycline+clarith/metronidazole

175
Q

Quadruple therapy

A

Omep+bismuth+tertacycline+Metronidazole

176
Q

MCC of pneumonia in alcoholics

A

klebsiella pneumoniae

177
Q

Currant jelly sputum

A

klebsiella pneumoniae

178
Q

DOC for kleb pneumonia

A

cephalosporin +/- aminoglycoside

179
Q

Struvite stones =

A

Proteus mirabilis (alkalinizes urine)

180
Q

composition of struvite stones

A

Magnesium–Ammonium–Phosphate

181
Q

DOC for proteus

A

TMP-SMX or ampicillin

182
Q

Sweet grape like odor

A

Pseudomonas

183
Q

hot tub folliculitis

A

Pseudomonas

184
Q

MCC of otitis externa

A

Pseudomonas

185
Q

MCC of malignant otitis externa in diabetics

A

Pseudomonas

186
Q

MCC of CSOM

A

Pseudomonas

187
Q

Pneumonia in patients with bronchiectasis and cystic fibrosis, think of…

A

Pseudomonas

188
Q

Third most common cause of NOSOCOMIAL UTIs

A

Pseudomonas

189
Q

Hemorrhagic lesions (oval)

A

Pseudomonas - Eccthyma h=gangrenosum

190
Q

Antipseudomonal penicillins (2)

A

Ticarcillin and piperacillin

191
Q

Cephalosporin with antipseudomonal activity

A

Ceftazidime (3rd) and Cefepime (4th)

192
Q

Monobactam with antipseudomonal activity

A

Aztreonam

193
Q

Carbapenems with antipseudomonal activity

A

Imipenem, meropenem, doripenem, ertapenem

194
Q

Fluoroquinolone with antipseudomonal activity

A

ciprofloxacin

195
Q

Predominant anaerobe of human colon

A

bacteroides fragilis

196
Q

DOC for bacteroides

A

metronidazole, clindamycin, or cefoxitin

197
Q

All bacteria have a cell wall composed of peptidoglycan EXCEPT

A

Mycoplasma

198
Q

Endotoxin/LPS is consisted of (2)

A

Lipid A and Antigen O

199
Q

all gram positive bacteria have NO endotoxin EXCEPT

A

Listeria monocytogenes

200
Q

bacteria not seen in gram stain (These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color)

A

Treponema, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma, Mycobacterium, Legionella, Chlamydia

201
Q

Obligate Aerobes (NOsy and Nagging Pests Must Breathe Lots of oxygen)

A

Nocardia, Neisseria, Pseudomonas, Mycobacteria, Bordetella/Brucella/Bacillus cereus, Legionella

202
Q

Obligate Anaerobes (ABC of Anaerobes)

A

Actinomyces, Bacteroides, Clostridium

203
Q

Bacteria with IgA protease (SHiNe My Gong)

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria Meningitidis; Neisseria gonorrhea

204
Q

all exotoxins are heat-labile EXCEPT

A

Staphylococcal enterotoxin

205
Q

all bacterial capsules are composed of polsaccharide EXCEPT

A

Bacillus anthracis

206
Q

Facultative Intracellular Bacteria

A

(Some Bugs May Live FacultativeLY) - Salmonella, Brucella, Myobacterium, Listeria, Franciscella, Legionella, Yersinia

207
Q

Urease positive Bacteria

A

(Particular Kinds Have Urease) - Proteus mirabilis, Klebsiela, Helicobacter, Ureaplasma

208
Q

Obligate intracellular Bacteria

A

Ricketssia and Chlamydia (Go inside, it’s “R”eally “C”old!)

209
Q

Virulence Factors of Staph aureus

A

Exfoliatin, Heat Stable Enterotoxin; TSST-1; Alpha Toxin

210
Q

Test for susceptibility for scarlet fever

A

Dick Test

211
Q

TEN aka

A

lyell disease

212
Q

Tampon… Nasal packing..

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome of Staph aureus

213
Q

Scaled Skin Syndrome aka

A

Ritter Syndrome

214
Q

Rust colored sputum, lobar distribution

A

Strep pneumoniae

215
Q

Produces scarlet fever

A

Erythrogenic toxin

216
Q

Potato Salad, Mayonaisse

A

Staph aureus

217
Q

OVERPaSs

A

Optochin: Viridans Resistant; Pneumoniae Sensitive

218
Q

Novobiocin sensitive staph

A

Staph Epidermidis

219
Q

NO StRES

A

Novobiocin: Saprophyticus Resistant; Epidermidis Sensitive

220
Q

Most common cause of acure endocarditis

A

Staph aureus

221
Q

MCC of Ventriculoperitoneal shunt infections

A

Staph Epidermidis

222
Q

MCC of subacute bacterial endocarditis and native valve endocarditis

A

Strep sanguis

223
Q

MCC of septic arthritis in prosthetic joints

A

Staph Epidermidis

224
Q

MCC of prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

Staph Epidermidis

225
Q

MCC of otitis media

A

Strep pneumoniae

226
Q

MCC of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis

A

Group B strep (agalactiae) - ***recall BEL -group B, Escherichia, Listeria

227
Q

MCC of CAP

A

Strep pneumoniae

228
Q

MCC of bacterial sore throat

A

Strep pyogenes

229
Q

Lancet shaped gram positive diplococci

A

Strep pneumoniae

230
Q

Honey-colored crust, may cause post strep GN

A

Impetigo contagiosa

231
Q

For TEN, separation of skin layers occurs at the

A

Dermo-epidermal junction

232
Q

For SSS, separation of the epidermis occurs at the

A

granulosa layer

233
Q

focus of osteomyelities arising in the metaphyseal area of a long bone caused by staph aureus

A

Brodie’s abscess

234
Q

fever, strawberry tongue, centrigual sand-paper like rash, pastia’s lines of desquamation

A

scarlet fever

235
Q

fever, hypotension, strawberry tongue, desquamating rash

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome of Staph aureus

236
Q

Encapsulated Bacteria (Some Killers Have Pretty Nice and Shiny Bodies)

A

Strep pneumoniae, Klebsiella, Haemophilus, Pseudomonas, Neisseria meningitidis, Salmonella typhi, B group streptococci

237
Q

DOC for Vancomycin RSA

A

Linezolid

238
Q

DOC for PSGN

A

Pen G

239
Q

DOC for MRSA

A

Vancomycin

240
Q

Causes MARANTIC endocarditis in patients with abdominal malignancy

A

Streptococcus bovis

241
Q

Causes endocarditis in patients who underwent GIT surgery

A

Enterococcus faecalis (group D)

242
Q

BRAS

A

Bacitracin: group B resistant (agalactiae); group A sensitive (A=pyogenes)

243
Q

Bile Optochin

A

Sensitive: strep pneumoniae; Resistant; strep viridans

244
Q

2nd most common cause of UTIs in sexually active women

A

Staph saprophyticus

245
Q

(+) test: red compound that can differentiate pyogenes and group D from other strep

A

PYR Test

246
Q

Zoonoses (4) - Bugs From Your Pets

A

Brucella abortus, Francisella tularensis, Yersinia pestis, Pasteurella multocida

247
Q

Undulating fever is caused by

A

Brucella abortus

248
Q

Source of Brucella

A

Unpasteurized dairy products (Unpas=Undulating fever)

249
Q

DOC for brucellosis (undulating fever)

A

Doxycycline + rifampin

250
Q

Tularemia is caused by

A

Franciscella tularensis

251
Q

DOC for tularemia

A

streptomycin or gentamicin

252
Q

Transmission of tularemia

A

TICKS (Dermacentor - same with erlichosis), Aerosols, Contact, Ingestions

253
Q

Most virulent bacteria

A

Yersinia pestis

254
Q

small, gram negative rods with bipolar staining (safety pin) - 2 answers

A

Yersinia pestis and Pasteurella multocida

255
Q

Yersinia pestis causes

A

plague - bubonic, pneumonic, and septicemic

256
Q

Transmission of yersinia

A

Flea bite/inhalation

257
Q

Buttery colonies with musty odor due to indole production

A

pasteurella multocida

258
Q

Reservoir of yersinia

A

wild rodents

259
Q

resorvoir of pasteurella

A

cats and dogs

260
Q

transmission of pasteurella

A

animal bites

261
Q

DOC for pasteurella

A

Pen G

262
Q

reservoir of francisella

A

rabbits, deers, rodents

263
Q

DOC for yersinina

A

Streptomycin and tetracycline

264
Q

TB: Prevents leukocycte migration

A

Cord Factor (most impt virulence factor of TB)

265
Q

TB: subpleural granuloma

A

Ghon’s focus

266
Q

TB: Ghon’s + LN

A

Ghon’s complex

267
Q

TB: Radiologically detectable calcification

A

Ranke’s complex

268
Q

TB: Reactivation focus

A

Simon’s Focus

269
Q

(+) PPD for HIV, AIDS, old TB, immunocompromised

A

> 5mm

270
Q

(+) PPD for HR population

A

> 10mm

271
Q

(+) PPD for LR population

A

> 15mm

272
Q

TB: Completed DOTS -> Declared NEG -> Positive again

A

Relapse

273
Q

TB: Remained smear positive at the end or after tx

A

Failure

274
Q

TB: tx was interrupted for 2 consecutive months

A

Defaulter

275
Q

TB: Cat I - New smear positive

A

2HRZE + 4HR

276
Q

TB: Cat II - Relapse, Failure, Defaulter

A

2HRZES & 1 HRZE; 5 HRE

277
Q

TB: Cat III - New smear neg other than cat I, Less severe extrapulmonary TB

A

2HRZE + 4HR

278
Q

Other use of BCG other than for dTB

A

Prevention of urinary bladder CA

279
Q

TB: causes pulmonary disease in AIDS patient with CD4

A

Mycobacterium avium-Intracellulare Complex

280
Q

DOC for MAI, MAC

A

Azithromycin

281
Q

Fite Ferraco Staining is for…

A

Mycobacterium leprae (Nocardia - weakly staining also)

282
Q

hypopigmented plaques, thickened superficial nerves, significant anesthesia

A

Tuberculoid leprosy

283
Q

DOC for tuberculoid leprosy

A

Dapsone and rifampin

284
Q

DOC for lepromatous leprosy

A

Dapsone, Rifampin, and clofazimine

285
Q

DOC for erythema nodosum leprosum

A

Thalidomide

286
Q

hard, nontender swelling with sinus tracts draining SULFUR GRANULES

A

Actinomyces israelli

287
Q

DOC for actinomyces

A

Pen G + Drainage

288
Q

Orange colonies

A

Nocardia asteroides

289
Q

gram positive rods with aerial hyphae

A

Nocardia asteroides

290
Q

Mycetomas

A

Nocardia asteroides

291
Q

DOC for nocardia

A

TMP SMX + drainage

292
Q

Smallest free living organism

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

293
Q

Autoantibodies against RED CELLS and BRAIN, LUNG, and LIVER cells

A

Cold Agglutinins of mycoplasma

294
Q

Walking pneumonia (MCC of atypical pneumonia)

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

295
Q

MCC of infectious cause of SJS

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

296
Q

DOC for mycoplasma

A

eryhthromycin or azithromycin

297
Q

Causes Chancre

A

Treponema pallidum

298
Q

Causes chancroid

A

Haemophilus ducreyi (painful)

299
Q

Condyloma lata, macupapular rash, fever, headache, malaise, anorexia, lymphadenopathy

A

secondary syphilis

300
Q

Clinical spectrum of tertiary syphillis

A

Gummas, neurosyphillis, aortitis

301
Q

Most important diagnostic test for primary syphilis

A

Dark field microscopy

302
Q

Screening test for syphillis

A

RPR/VDRL

303
Q

Confirmatory test for syphillis

A

FTA-ABS (Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody-Absorption)

304
Q

Snuffles, Mulberry molars, Hutchinson triad, saber shins, rhagades, Higoumenakis sign, clutton’s joints

A

Congenital syphilis

305
Q

Hutchinson triad

A

Hutchinson teeth; deafness; keratitis

306
Q

unilateral enlargement of sternoclavicular portion of the clavicle

A

Higoumenakis Sign

307
Q

False positive VDRL results

A

V-D-R-L: Viruses, Drugs (marijuana), RF/Rheumatoid arthritis, Lupus/Leprosy

308
Q

DOC for syphillis

A

Pen G

309
Q

influenza like symptoms few hours after receiving pen g for tx of syphilis

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

310
Q

largest medically important bacteria

A

borrelia burgdorferi

311
Q

Stain for Borrelia

A

Aniline dyes (Giemsa/Wright)

312
Q

Cause of Lyme Disease

A

borrelia burgdorferi

313
Q

Transmission of Lyme Disease

A

bite from deer ticks (Ixodes)

314
Q

Spectrum of Lyme Disease

A

BAKE a LYME pie - Bell’s palsy, Arthritis, Kardiac (Myocarditis - AV Block), Erythema chronicum migrans

315
Q

DOC for Lyme Disease (Borrelia)

A

Doxycycline (alternative: amox or cefuroxime)

316
Q

Programmed Rearrangements =

A

Relapsing fever

317
Q

Cause of relapsing fever

A

Borrelia recurrenttis

318
Q

Diagnostic test for relapsing fever

A

microscopy

319
Q

DOC for relapsing fever (B. Recurentis)

A

Tetracycline or eryhromycin

320
Q

Transmission of relapsing fever

A

Human body louse (pediculus humanus)

321
Q

Shepherd’s crook

A

leptospira interrogans

322
Q

Gold standard for detection of leptospirosis

A

LeptoMAT (blood and CSF –> urine)

323
Q

Most severe form of leptospirosis

A

Weil Syndrome

324
Q

Triad of Weil Syndrome

A

Jaundice + Bleeding + Uremia

325
Q

DOC for leptospirosis

A

Pen G

326
Q

MCC cause of STI overall

A

Chlamydia trachomatis (Types D-K)

327
Q

Chronic Keratoconjuctivitis progressing to scarring and blindness

A

Trachoma (C. trachomatis type A-C)

328
Q

Stacato cough =

A

C. trachomatis neonatal pneumonia

329
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum

A

C. trachomats L1-L3

330
Q

suppurative inguinal lymphadenitis

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

331
Q

Positive Frei test

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum (intradermal injection of antigen)

332
Q

Associated with atherosclerosis, atypical pneumonia

A

Chlamydia pneumoniae

333
Q

Psittacosis =

A

Chlamydia psittaci

334
Q

bird fancier’s disease =

A

Psittacosis caused by C. psittaci

335
Q

DOC for chlamydia

A

Azithromycin

336
Q

DOC for chlamydia conjuctivitis

A

erythromycin

337
Q

DOC for LG venereum

A

doxycycline

338
Q

DOC for psittacosis

A

Azithromycin

339
Q

Detects anti-rickettsial antibodies in a patient’s serum by agglutination of proteus organisms

A

Weil-Felix Test

340
Q

Cause of rocky mountain spotted fever

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

341
Q

Cause of Rickettsial pox

A

Rickettsia akari

342
Q

Cause of epidemic typhus

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

343
Q

Cause of endemic typhus

A

Rickettsia typhi

344
Q

Cause of Scrub typhus

A

Orienttia tsutsumagushi

345
Q

Cause of Q fever

A

Coxiella burnetti

346
Q

Cause of ehrlichiosis

A

Ehrlichia chaffeensis

347
Q

Transmission of Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

A

Ticks (deer ticks - same with lyme disease)

348
Q

Transmission of rickettsial pox

A

Mites (chiggers) - like scrub typhus

349
Q

Transmission of epidemic typhus

A

Body Louse (like relapsing fever)

350
Q

Transmission of Endemic typhus

A

Rat flea

351
Q

Transmission of Scrub typhus

A

Mites (chiggers) - like rickettsial pox

352
Q

Transmission of Q fever

A

NONE

353
Q

Transmission of Ehrlichosis

A

Ticks (Dermacentor - like tularemia)

354
Q

Manifestation of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

rash starts in the wRist, spreads centriPetally (“Rocky mountain sPotter fever”)

355
Q

Manifestation of Typhus

A

rash starts in Trunk, spreads centriPHUgally (“TyPHUs”)

356
Q

Diseases with Palm and Sole Rash

A

“C”oxsackievirus Type “A”, “R”ocky mountain spotted fever, “S”yphillis - you drive CARS using your palms and soles

357
Q

Cat Scratch Disease

A

Bartonella henselae

358
Q

DOC for cat scratch disease

A

doxycycline

359
Q

DOC for ehrlichosis

A

doxycycline

360
Q

Clue cells =

A

Bacterial Vaginosis

361
Q

Bacterial vaginosis =

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

362
Q

Test for bacterial vaginosis

A

whiff test

363
Q

DOC for bacterial vaginosis

A

metronidazole

364
Q

DOC for chancroid

A

azithromycin or ceftriaxone

365
Q

Pseudeoappendicitis (mesenteric adenitis)

A

Yersinia enterocolitica, self-limiting

366
Q

Donovanosis =

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

367
Q

Closed safety pins=

A

Donovan bodies (like yersinia)

368
Q

Beefy red ulcer with velvety surface

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

369
Q

DOC for klebsiella granulomatis

A

azithromycin

370
Q

MOA of azole antifungals

A

inhibit ergosterol synthesis

371
Q

allergiv bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

372
Q

Aflatoxin causing liver cancer

A

Aspergillus flavus

373
Q

Liver necrosis due to amanitin and phlloidin

A

Amanita mushrooms

374
Q

Nonspecific agar for fungi

A

Saboraud’s agar (low pH inhibits bacteria)

375
Q

Ringworms =

A

Dermatophytes

376
Q

3 important dermatophytes

A

derMETophytes - Microsporum canis, Epidermophyton floccosum, Trichophyton tonsurans)

377
Q

Green fluorescence on wood’s lamp

A

Ringworms (specifically microsporum)

378
Q

Spaghetti and meatballs

A

Malassezia furfur (Tinea versicolor/An-an)

379
Q

Rose gardeners

A

Sporothrix schenckii

380
Q

DOC for Sporotrichosis

A

Itraconzole or Potassium Iodide

381
Q

Mold in soil; SPHERULE in tissue

A

Coccidiodes immitis

382
Q

Transmission of Coccidiodes immitis

A

inhalation of ARTHROSPORES (arthrospores form spherules filled with endospores)

383
Q

DOC for coccidiodes

A

Amphotericin B or Itraconazole (fluconazole if with meningitis)

384
Q

Bird droppings, Starlings, bat guano

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

385
Q

2 forms of asexual spores of H. capsulatum

A

Tuberculate macroconidia(diagnostic) and microconidia (infective)

386
Q

Histoplasma Hides inside Macrophages

A

develop into budding yeasts inside macrophages, spreads to liver and spleen

387
Q

Name 2 great mimickers of TB

A

Histoplasmosis and Paragonimus

388
Q

Round yeast with broad based buds

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

389
Q

Most common cause of fungal pneumonia

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

390
Q

Transmission of blastomycosis

A

inhalation of conidia

391
Q

DOC for blastomycosis

A

Itraconazole (amphotericin if severe)

392
Q

Mariner’s Wheel

A

Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis

393
Q

Transmission of paracoccidioidomycosis

A

Inhalation of conidia

394
Q

DOC for paracoccidiodomycosis

A

Itraconazole

395
Q

5 opportunistic mycoses

A

Candida albicans, Cryptococcus neoformans, Aspergillus fumugatus; Rhizopus oryzae and Mucor spp.; Pneumocystis jiroveci

396
Q

Oval yeast with a single bud or as pseudohyphae

A

Candida albicans

397
Q

Germ tubes in serum and chlamydo-spores in culture

A

Candida albicans

398
Q

DOC for oral thrush from candida

A

Nystatin

399
Q

DOC for skin infections from candida

A

clotrimazole

400
Q

DOC for disseminated candidiasis

A

amphotericin B

401
Q

DOC for chemoprophylaxis for candida

A

fluconazole

402
Q

MCC of fungal septicemia

A

Candida albicans

403
Q

Oval yeast wth narrow based bud surrounded by a wide polysaccharide capsule

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

404
Q

Staining techniques for cryptococcus

A

India ink with Nigrosin

405
Q

Screening test for cryptococcus

A

CALAS (Cryptococcal antigen latex agglutination system)

406
Q

Pigeon droppings

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

407
Q

Transmission of cryptococcus

A

Inhalation of yeasts

408
Q

MCC of meningoencephalitis among AIDS patients

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

409
Q

DOC for Cryptococcus

A

amphotericin B and Flucytosine

410
Q

DOC for chemoprophylaxis for cryptococcus

A

fluconazole

411
Q

septate hyphae that form V-shaped (dichotomous) branches in acute angles

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

412
Q

T or F: Aspergillus fumigatus only exists as MOLDS

A

TRUE!

413
Q

Transmission of aspergillosis

A

inhalation of conidia

414
Q

Asthmatic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (APBA)

A

Asthmatic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (APBA)

415
Q

DOC for aspergillosis

A

amphotericin B

416
Q

Saprophytic molds with nonseptate hyphae with walls and branches at right angles

A

Mucormycosis

417
Q

Rhino-orbital-cerebral infection with eschar formation

A

Mucormycosis

418
Q

Patients at risk for mucormycosis

A

DKA, Burns, Leukemia

419
Q

BAL washings stained with toluidine blue and methenamine silver stain

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

420
Q

Transmission of pneumocystis

A

inhalation of cysts

421
Q

Most common AIDS defining illness

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

422
Q

Frothy exudate that blocks oxygen exchange

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

423
Q

Diffuse interstitial pneumonia with ground glass infiltrates

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

424
Q

DOC for pneumocystis

A

TMP-SMX

Microbiology (5 decks)

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