Musculoskeletal System Pathology - Walby Flashcards

1
Q

Osteoprogenitor cells are (toti/pluri)potent

A

pluripotent

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2
Q

T/F: osteoprogenitor cells are on all bony surfaces

A

true

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3
Q

Where are osteoblasts found?

A

surface of the bone

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4
Q

WHere are osteoclasts found?

A

granulocyte precursors of the marrow

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5
Q

What cell is in Howship’s lacunae?

A

osteoclasts

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6
Q

What bone cells communicate with each other via canaliculi?

A

osteocytes

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7
Q

what forms bone matrix?

A

osteoblast

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8
Q

what maintains bone tissue

A

osteocyte

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9
Q

The periosteum is made of what two layers?

A

outer fibrous

inner osteogenic

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10
Q

What type of collagen forms 90 % of the organic component of the bone?

A

Type I collagen

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11
Q

Woven bone is seen during what part of dev?

A

fetal skeleton and during repairs from breaks

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12
Q

What is the most common disease of the growth plate?

A

achondroplasia

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13
Q

what is the histology like in achondroplasia?

A

disorderly laydown of bone

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14
Q

Achondroplasia has a mutation in what receptor?

A

Fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3)

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15
Q

What is the most common form of Achondroplasia?

A

heterozygous auto dom

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16
Q

Describe the physical features of heterzygote Achondroplasia?

A

Infants have shortened extremities, bowing of legs, lordosis (sway-back), relatively normal trunks, and enlarged heads (spares the cranium & vertebrae), frontal bossing, saddle nose

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17
Q

T/F: growth hormone helps in the development of homozygous Achondroplasia

A

False

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18
Q

What other complications arise in homozygous Achondroplasia?

A

compromised respiratory function (abn chest cavity); die in infancy

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19
Q

What is the lifespan in Achondroplasia?

A

normal

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20
Q

What is a Lysosomal storage diseases involving acid hydrolases?

A

mucopoplysaccharidoses

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21
Q

How does mucopolysaccharidoses manifest physically?

A

Results in abnormalities of hyaline cartilage, and hence growth plates and articular surfaces, due to abnormalities of chondrocytes, and hence growth plates, articular cartilage, etc.

Manifest as chest wall deformities, short stature, and malformed bones

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22
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta is a disease of (bone growth/matrix formation)

A

matrix formation

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23
Q

OI is also known as:

A

brittle bone disease

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24
Q

OI is caused by a abn. in what type of collagen

/

A

type 1

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25
Q

What disease has this presentation?

A

joints (lax), eyes (blue sclera), ears (deafness), skin (thin), and teeth (small & discolored)

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26
Q

What is unique about the eyes in OI?

A

the sclera is blue

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27
Q

Big picture wise, what is the issue in OI?

A

too little bone; cortical thinning and attenuation of trabecular bone–woven instead of lamellar

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28
Q

Which types of OI are most likely to survive?

A

types I and IV

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29
Q

What are the common features of survivors of OI?

A

hearing deficits
BLUE YELLOW TEETH
fractures

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30
Q

What type of OI is this?Perinatal demise (mostly Auto Rec)

A

II

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31
Q

What type of OI is this?

Postnatal fractures without blue sclerae (Auto Dom)

A

IV

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32
Q

What type of OI is this?

Postnatal fractures with blue sclerae, deafness (Auto Dom)

A

I

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33
Q

What type of OI is this?

Progressively deforming w/ growth retardation (Auto Rec)

A

III

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34
Q

Vitamin D deficiency resulting in rickets results in decreased (blank) and an increase in (blank)

A

decrease in mineralization and an increase in osteoid

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35
Q

HyperPTH has what effect on bone?

A

decreased bone density

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36
Q

Osteoporosis has a decreased bone (blank)

A

density and mass

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37
Q

T/F: there is a abn. in the ratio of minerals in the bone in osteoporosis

A

false

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38
Q

What causes localized/focal osteoporosis?

A

disuse

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39
Q

Primary osteoporosis is seen in what age group and sexes?

A

post menopausal women and senile in old men

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40
Q

People from what countries are at risk of developing osteoporosis?

A

N. european and Asians

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41
Q

T/F: Hispanics have a lower risk of osteoporosis compared to europeans

A

false; similar

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42
Q

What race is at the least risk of developing osteoporosis?

A

african americans

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43
Q

excessive consumption of what things can lead to osteoporosis?

A
EtOH
caffeine
carbonated beverages
smoking ciggies
anticonvulsants or benzos long term
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44
Q

What hormonal imbalances can lead to osteoporosis?

A

Hypogonadism resulting in reducted testosterone
Hypercortisol states
HyperPTH
Inadequate Ca2+ or Vit. D in diet

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45
Q

Plain XRAY doesn’t see osteoporosis until what percent of bone is gone?

A

30-40%

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46
Q

T/F: serum calcium and phosphorus are not diagnostic for osteoporosis

A

true

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47
Q

T/F: there is no sensitive or specific test for osteoporosis

A

true

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48
Q

Kyphoscoliosis and lordosis are complications of osteoporosis that arise as a result of fractures in what regions of the spine?

A

thoracic and lumbar

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49
Q

T/F: osteoporosis also shows up as fractrues in the wrist

A

true

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50
Q

Fractures of the femoral neck, pelvis, and spine are complicated by (blank) and pneumonia

A

PE

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51
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of osteoporotic vertebrae?

A

fish mouth appearance

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52
Q

when do we reach our peak bone mass?

A

3rd decade

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53
Q

Where do we lose the most bone mass?

A

spine and femoral head

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54
Q

low calcium intake in what age group and sex predisposes for osteoporosis?

A

adolescent girls

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55
Q

Where is most of the bone resorption coming from in osteoporosis?

A

cancellous bone

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56
Q

what percent of women will have an osteoporotic bone fracture in their life?

A

1/2

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57
Q

How does decreased estrogen lead to increased bone resorption?

A

increased IL1
increased IL6
recruits osteoclasts and increases bone resorption

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58
Q

what is the most potent activator of osteoclasts?

A

IL1

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59
Q

Paget’s diseases is caused by (blank) dysfunction

A

osteoclast

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60
Q

What are the three stages of osteoclast dysfunction?

A
  1. otesoclast/osteolytic stage–hypervascularity and bone loss
  2. mixed stage with osteoblastic activity
  3. burnt-out osteosclerotic stage
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61
Q

When does Paget’s onset?

A

5th decade

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62
Q

What is the racial predilection of Paget’s?

A

whites of N. europe and US

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63
Q

What countries is Pagets rare in?

A

Scandinavia, China, Japan, and Afrika

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64
Q

What is the histological change in the osteoclasts in Pagets?

A

become multinucleate

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65
Q

In Pagets, the marrow is replaced by (blank)

A

CT containing osteoprogenitor cells and blood vessels

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66
Q

The characteristic histological finding of Pagets is a (blank) pattern, making bone look like a jigsaw

A

mosaic pattern

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67
Q

T/F: even though the bone is denser it is weaker in Pagets

A

true

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68
Q

what virus can cause Pagets?

A

paramyxovirus causing MEASLES

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69
Q

explain how a virus can induce Pagets?

A

virus induces IL6 which activates osteoclasts and blasts are then in reponse to the clasts

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70
Q

90% of Pagets are (poly/.mono) ostic

A

polyostotic including pelvis, spine, and skull

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71
Q

THe axial skeleton and proximal femur are involved in what percent of pagets?

A

80%

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72
Q

What bones are rarely affected by Pagets?

A

ribs, fibula, small bones of hands and feet

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73
Q

t/F: most cases of Pagets are asymptomatic and found only by chance

A

true

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74
Q

What are the early symtpoms of Pagets?

A

headache, hearing loss, visual changes, pain is the most common problem

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75
Q

What is the cause of pain and HA in Pagets?

A

microfractures and bone overgrowth which compresses spinal and cranial nerve roots

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76
Q

What is the name for the Paget facies?

A

leonine facies; difficult to stand upright due to wt. of the bone

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77
Q

Severe secondary osteoarthritis arises in Pagets due to what>

A

severe bowing of the long bones from the weight

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78
Q

The increase in blood flow in severe polyostotic Pagets causes a (blank), resulting in high output cardiac failure

A

functional arterio-venous shunt

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79
Q

What is the characteristic finding of Pagets on XRAY?

A

cotton wool spots

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80
Q

Giant cell tumors, sarcomas, and extramedullary hematopoiesis are complications of what dz?

A

Pagets

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81
Q

T/F: giant cell tumors are benign

A

true

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82
Q

WHat are the lab values that are abn in pagets?

A

inc. serum Alk phos
inc. urinary hydroxyproline
NORMAL serum calcium and phosphate

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83
Q

WHat is the Tx for Pagets?

A

anti-resorptive agents like biphosphonates and calcitoniin

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84
Q

T/F: osteopetrosis makes brittle bones

A

true

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85
Q

Osteopetrosis is too much (mineral/osteoid)

A

mineral

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86
Q

What can cause osteosclerosis?

A

osteopetrosis

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87
Q

A variant of osteopetrosis is caused by a def. in what enzyme necessary for excretoin of Hydrogen ions to acidify the environment to resorb matrix?

A

carbonic anhydrase II

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88
Q
What are the labs for osteomalacia/rickets?
Calcium
Phosphate
ALK PHOS
PTH
A

Calcium dec.
Phosphate dec.
ALK PHOS inc.
PTH inc.

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89
Q
What are the labs for osteopetrosis?
Calcium
Phosphate
ALK PHOS
PTH
A

Calcium normal
Phosphate normal
ALK PHOS inc.
PTH normal

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90
Q
What are the labs for osteoporosis?
Calcium
Phosphate
ALK PHOS
PTH
A

Calcium normal
Phosphate normal
ALK PHOS normal
PTH normal

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91
Q
What are the labs for Pagets?
Calcium
Phosphate
ALK PHOS
PTH
A

Calcium normal
Phosphate normal
ALK PHOS variable
PTH normal

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92
Q

What disease presents with brown tumors in the bone?

A

osteitis fibrosa cystica

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93
Q

vitamin d def leads to an increase in what substance in the bone?

A

osteoid

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94
Q

what is the vitamin d precursor from plants?>

A

ergosterol

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95
Q

what is vitamin d bound to on its way to the liver?

A

a-1-globulin d binding protein

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96
Q

In the (blank) vitamin d is converted to 25-OH vit d and in the (blank) it is then converted to 1,25OH-D, which is the active form

A

liver then kidney

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97
Q

elevated 1,25 OHD inhibits (blank)

A

alpha hydroxylase

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98
Q

hypocalcemia stimulates what hormone?

A

PTH, which activates alpha hydroxylase

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99
Q

Hypophosphatemia directly activates (blank) to increase 1,25 OH D

A

alpha hydroxylase

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100
Q

Vit D required for normal mineralizatoin of epiphyseal cartilage and (blank) matrix

A

osteoid

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101
Q

Overall, vit. d. def results in (blank) def

A

Calcium

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102
Q

What drugs break down vitamin D?

A

phenytoin, phenobarbitol, rifampin, CYP450

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103
Q

What is the mechanism of deformation in rickets?

A

overgrowth of epiphyseal cartilage

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104
Q

In rickets, there is an enlargement and lateral expansion of the (blank) junction

A

osetochondral junction

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105
Q

Why do you get a growth of capillaries and fibroblasts in the disorganized zones of rickets?

A

microfractures bring them in

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106
Q

an excess of osteoid in rickets produces (blank) and a squared appearance to the head

A

frontal bossing

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107
Q

Rachitic rosary is overgrowth of cartilage at the costochondral junction where?

A

in the chest

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108
Q

Pidgeon breast in rickets is due to what?

A

respiratory muscles pulling on the weak metaphyseal areas of the ribs

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109
Q

What is Harrison’s groove?

A

girdling of thoracic cavity at lower margin of rib cage due to pull of diaphragm

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110
Q

lumbar lordosis and bowing of the legs is seen in ….

A

rickets

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111
Q

Are the contours of the bone affected in osteomalacia?

A

no

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112
Q

osteomalacia has an excess of what?

A

osteoid; too much and too weak

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113
Q

Which bones are most affected by osteomalacia?

A

vertebra and femoral neck

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114
Q

increased PTH levels leads to increased osteo(clast/blast) activity

A

clast

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115
Q

does hyperPTH affect cancellous or cortical bone more?

A

cancellous

116
Q

Subperiosteal resorption produces thinned cortices and loss of (blank) around teeth (loosen)

A

lamina dura

117
Q

The collection of changes seen in hyperPTH–brown tumor and cysts, make it also known as…

A

osteitis fibroas cystica

118
Q

Renal Osteodystrophy Describes all the skeletal changes due to chronic renal disease including:

A

Increased osteoclastic bone resorption which mimics osteitis fibrosa cystica
Delayed matrix mineralization (osteomalacia)
Osteosclerosis
Growth retardation
Osteoporosis

119
Q

renal failure results in retention of what ion?

A

phosphate

120
Q

hyperphosphatemia also causes (hyper/hypo)calcemia, which leads to secondary hyperPTH

A

hypocalcemia

121
Q

low levels of Vit. D, Ca, and renal failure contribute to what bone disease?

A

osteomalacia

122
Q

Renal failure and low levels of vit. D make bone less responsive to (blank)

A

PTH

123
Q

if a bone fracture breaks through the skin, what is likely to infect it?

A

S. aureus

124
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

splintered bone

125
Q

All cases of avascular necrosis is caused by:

A

ischemia

126
Q

What is the most common cause of AVN?

A

idiopathic with prior steroid use

127
Q

What other dz’s are implicated in AVN?

A

connective tissue diseases, sickle cell disease, radiation, alcohol abuse (mechanism unclear), tumors, trauma (ie joint displacement), etc.

128
Q

What type of AVN results in triangular or wedge shaped infarcts?

A

subchondral infarcts

129
Q

T/F: overlying cartilage in subchondral infarcts will die

A

false; will survive via nutrients from the synovial fluid

130
Q

What type of AVN infarcts are geographic

A

medullary infarcts

131
Q

is the cortex involved in medullary infarcts?

A

nope; collateral blood flow

132
Q

what type of AVN causes chronic pain?

A

subchondral infarcts

133
Q

subchondral infarcts may cause the cartilage to collapse and predispose to severe (blank)

A

osteoarthritis

134
Q

Medullary infarcts are clinically (blank) except for large ones

A

silent

135
Q

WHat are some causes of medullary infarcts?

A

Gaucher’s disease (fatty substances - sphingolipids accumulate)
Dysbarism (pressure changes)
Hemoglobinopathies

136
Q

Which type of infarct remains stable over time?

A

medullary

137
Q

how do the majority of osteomyelitis cases develop?

A

hematogenous spread

138
Q

besides hematogenous spread, what are the ways that osteomyelitis can begin?

A

direct extension from a focus of acute infection in soft tissue or trauamatic implannation after compound fracture

139
Q

what is the most common causative organism of osteomyelitis?

A

s. aureus

140
Q

What are the common osteomyelitic agents in newborns?

A

E. coli, GBS,

141
Q

Slamonella osteomyelitis is common in pts with…

A

sickle cell

142
Q

mixed bacterial osteomyelitis common after….

A

trauma

143
Q

T/F: half of the cultures of osteomyelitis are neg

A

TRUE

144
Q

Bone abscesses, periosteal life, and extension into the joint are complications of osteomyelitis seen in what age group?

A

children

145
Q

What is the most common location of a bone infection in children?

A

metaphysis

146
Q

What is the most common location of a bone infection in adults?

A

anywhere in the bone

147
Q

The residual necrotic bone, aka (blank) may be resorbed by the osteoclasts

A

sequestrum

148
Q

large sequestra that cannot be resorbed are surrounded by a rim of reactive new bone called….

A

involucrum

149
Q

(blank) are well-defined rim of sclerotic bone surrounding a residual abscess

A

Brodie’s Abcess

150
Q

changes on xray for bone infx may not appear for how long?

A

more than a week; already lots of damage has been done

151
Q

What type of scan is helpful in localzing a bone infection?

A

gallium type radionuclide scanning

152
Q

What is the Tx for bone infections?

A

hardcore abx and maybe debridement

153
Q

what a severe complication of a distant organ of bone infx?

A

endocarditis

154
Q

Systemic (blank) can also follow a bone infection

A

systemic amyloidosis

155
Q

What kind of cancer can form along the sinus tracts of bone infections?

A

squamous cell

156
Q

TB osteomyelitis favors what bones?

A

long bones and vertebra

157
Q

TB osteom. lesions are (blank) in AIDS pts

A

multicentric

158
Q

iWhere does the tB osteom. infx begin?

A

in the synovium, the bacteria needs oxygen

159
Q

TB osteom. lesions may form cold abcesses of the (blank) muscle

A

psoas; aka Pott’s disease

160
Q

WHat are the four types of bone-forming tumors?

A
  1. osteomas
  2. osteoid osteoma
  3. osteoblastoma
  4. osteogenic sarcoma
161
Q

what are the three types of cartilaginous tumors?

A
  1. osteochondroma
  2. endochondroma
  3. chondrosarcoma
162
Q

T/F: bone mets are more common than primary tumors

A

true

163
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor of bone?

A

osteogenic sarcoma

164
Q

When are benign tumors of bone most common?

A

last 3 decades of life

165
Q

What age group gets malignant bone tumors?

A

the old

166
Q

bone tumors are deposed as (blank) trabeculae and may or may not be mineralized

A

woven trabeculae

167
Q

Osteomas are (blank), round to oval, and project from the subperiosteal or endosteal surfaces of the cortex

A

bosselated

168
Q

Are osteomas benign or malignant?

A

benign

169
Q

Do osteomas undergo malignant transformation?

A

nope

170
Q

multiple osteomas of the skull may be assc’d with what disease?

A

Gardner’s Syndrome aka familial polyposis

171
Q

What is the difference between osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma?

A

differ in size and location

172
Q

What is the size difference betrween osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma?

A

Osteoid osteomas by definition < 2cm in size

Osteoblastomas > 2 cm

173
Q

Both osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma begin as a small, round, radiolucent (blank)

A

nidus; becomes sclerotic or mineralized; a rim of sclerotic bone is present at the edges

174
Q

T/F: both osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma are well circumscribed

A

true

175
Q

If you don’t completely excise osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma, they will (blank)

A

recur

176
Q

What bones does osteoid osteoma attack?

A

peripheral skeleton

177
Q

What bones does osteoblastoma attack?

A

spine

178
Q

Is osteoid osteoma or osteoblastoma painful at night?

A

osteoid osteoma from the production of excess PGE2

179
Q

What characteristically relieves the pain assc’d with osteoid osteoma?

A

aspirin, inhibits PGE2 synth

180
Q

Is pain relieved by aspirin in osteoblastoma?

A

nope

181
Q

Osteogenic sarcoma arises from malignant cells of what embryo origin?

A

mesenchymal

182
Q

What is the age for osteogenic sarcoma?

A

<20

183
Q

Where in the bone does most osteogenic sarcoma arise?

A

metaphysis, 60% in the knee

184
Q

mutations with which gene are associated with osteogenic sarcoma?

A

p53

185
Q

The following microscopic findings are associated with which bone tumor?
Islands of primitive bony trabeculae
Rim of malignant osteoblasts
+/- Other mesenchymal elements (ie. cartilage)

A

osteosarcoma

186
Q

what are the most common benign tumors of the bone?

A

osteochondroma aka osteocartilaginous exostoses

187
Q

what type of tumor has a cauliflower appearance of mature bone with a cartilaginous cap?

A

osteochondroma

188
Q

Where does osteochondroma arise?

A

metaphysis

189
Q

T/F: osteochondroma presents with joint pain

A

false; asymptomatic, but does cause cosmetic deformities

190
Q

are enchondromas benign or malignant?

A

benign

191
Q

What are the common sites of enchondromas?

A

short tubular bones of hands and feet

192
Q

Are enchondromas painful?

A

some, but usually asymptomatic

193
Q

what are the two diseases associated with enchondromas?

A

Ollier’s disease

Maffucci’s syndrome

194
Q

Ollier’s disease is weird becase it is enchondromas in what pattern?

A

down one side of the body

195
Q

Maffucci’s syndrome are multiple enchondromas associated with (blank) of soft tissue

A

hemagiomas

196
Q

How frequent are chondrosarcomas?

A

1/3 with tumors

197
Q

What is the second most common matrix forming tumor of bone?

A

chondrosarcoma

198
Q

Where does chondrosarcoma start?

A

medullary cavity

199
Q

Describe the appearance of chondrosarcoma in the medullary cavity?

A

expansile, glistening mass that spreads to the surface

200
Q

Where does chondrosarcoma like to localize?

A

pelvis, shoulder, and ribs

201
Q

Clear cell variants of chondrosarcoma are seen in the (blanks) of long tubular bones

A

epiphysis

202
Q

Hematogenous mets of chrondrosarcoma go to the…

A

lung

203
Q

What is a reactive, osteoclast like multinucleated mononuclear benign neoplasm?

A

giant cell tumor of bone

204
Q

What has a soap bubble appearance on radiology?

A

giant cell tumor

205
Q

what is the second most common childhood malignancy of bone?

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

206
Q

What is the first most common childhood malignancy of bone?

A

osteosarcoma

207
Q

What is the 3rd most common bone tumor overall?

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

208
Q

What is the genetic basis for Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

t(11,22); same as PNETs

209
Q

Ewing’s sarcoma forms Sheets of small cells with uniform nuclei, containing glycogen, aka ….

A

small blue cell tumor

210
Q

Ewing’s sarcoma is often misdiagnosed as (blank) because of extensive necrosis

A

osteomyelitis

211
Q

What is the prognosis for Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

young children are less likely to survive

212
Q

EWing’s sarcoma is an expanding (intramedullary/cortical) mass

A

intramedullary

213
Q

Multiple myeloma is characterized by pockets of what type of cell?

A

plasma cells

214
Q

Do all Ig’s increase in MM?

A

nope

215
Q

In (blank), Normal trabecular bone is replaced by proliferating fibrous tissue and disorderly islands of deformed bone

A

fibrous dysplasia

216
Q

What is the most common form of fibrous dysplasia?

A

mono-ostotic; Starts during adolescence, then quiescent when bone growth stops
Ribs, calvarium, femur, tibia, jaw are common sites

217
Q

Where do you see polyostotic fibrous dysplasia?

A

craniofacial with deformation; see it more in adults

218
Q

Explain the interesting physical findings of the polyostotic form of fibrous dysplasia with endocrine abnls?

A
unilateral bone lesions
cafe au lait spots on same side
precocious puberty
hyperthyroidism
Cushing's disease
219
Q

osteoarthritis is the degenration of…

A

articular cartilage

220
Q

T/F: primary osteoarthritis arises without predisposing factors

A

true

221
Q

what are the most important factors in the dev of osteoarthritis?

A

aging and wear and tear

222
Q

what joints tend to get osteoarthritis?

A

wt. bearing

223
Q

Cartilage in osteoarthritis has increased water and decreased (blank) content

A

proteoglycans

224
Q

What type of collagen network is weakened in osteoarthritis?

A

type II

225
Q

Chondrocytes relase which cytokine that causes the release of proteolytic enzymes?

A

IL1

226
Q

The articular surface undergoes splitting in (RA/OA)

A

OA

227
Q

What the fuck is eburnation?

A

subchondral bone becomes thickened, and gives appearance of ivory

228
Q

(blanks) may form within bone as cracks in cartilage allow synovial fluid into bone in OA

A

cysts

229
Q

Heberden’s nodes of osteophytes may appear on what joints in OA?

A

DIP

230
Q

While Heberden’s node is on the DIP, Bouchard’s node is on the (blank)

A

PIP

231
Q

Is RA symmetric or asymmetric?

A

symmetric, starts in the small joints of the hands, feet

232
Q

Does RA improve with heat or cold?

A

heat

233
Q

Does RA present with heat, redness and swelling?

A

yes

234
Q

What is up with the mucin level in the joint tap in RA?

A

low levels

235
Q

What would you see on an XRAY of a joint with RA?

A

erosions

236
Q

RA presents with nonsuppurative chronic proliferative (synovitis/tenosynovitis)

A

synovitis

237
Q

the pannus and mantle configuration of RA is proliferation and hypertrophy of what cells?

A

synovial lining cells

238
Q

T/F: lymphoid follicles may develop in the RA joint

A

true

239
Q

The pannus is characterized by what gross appearance of the synovium?

A

formation of villi!!

240
Q

Where do you get subQ nodules in rA?

A

along the forearm and areas of pressure

241
Q

Describe the microscopic findings of the RA nodules?

A

Central focus of fibrinoid necrosis
Surrounded by palisading macrophages
Rimmed by granulation tissue

242
Q

what bug causes lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

243
Q

What is the rodent that carries lyme disease?

A

deer tick Ixodes dammini

244
Q

what is the major arthropod borne disease in the US?

A

lyme disease

245
Q

lyme disease tends to attack which joints first?

A

large joints like the knee, shoulder, and elbow and MIGRATES

246
Q

lyme disease in early stages resembles what?

A

RA

247
Q

what chronic inflamm. disease affects the sacroiliac joints?

A

akylosying spondylitis

248
Q

Describe the look of gout crystals?

A

needle shaped and birefringent

249
Q

gouty tophi are seen in what reaction?

A

chronic granulomatous reaction

250
Q

What are some of the complications of gout crystals?

A

joint deformity and renal tubular injury or formation of stones

251
Q

Is gout caused by uric acid over production or under excretion?

A

over production

252
Q

What is the rare enzyme defect that can cause gout>

A

HGPRT

253
Q

What would cause a rapid increase in urate production that would cause secondary gout?

A

rapid cell lysis during tx for lymphoma or leukemia

254
Q

What would be a disease that would cuase decreased excretion of urate?

A

chronic renal insufficiency

255
Q

What is Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome?

A

over production and over exprection of uric acid with NO HGPRT AT ALL

256
Q

Urate crystals in the synovium are chemotactic and can activate (blank)

A

complement and generate C3a and C5a

257
Q

Describe the order of involvment of gouty joints?

A

hallux, instep, ankle, heel, and then wrist

258
Q

Where do you normally find pseudogout?

A

in the knee after surgery

259
Q

What are the shape of the calcium pyrophosphate cyrstals?

A

coffin shaped

260
Q

T/F: pseudogout can cause an acute attack of arthritis that lasts one day to four weeks

A

true

261
Q

what are slow twitch fibers

A

type 1

262
Q

what are fast twitch fibers

A

type 2

263
Q

are cross striations retained in muscle atrophy?

A

yes

264
Q

a grouped nature of muscle atrophy suggests what about its origin?

A

neurogenic

265
Q

what is the most common type of muscle atrophy and what causes it?

A

type 2 fast twitch atrophy
Disuse (bedridden)
Glucocorticoid use - Longterm
Hypercortisol state for any reason

266
Q

type 2 atrophy is difficult to distinguish from (blank) atrophy histologically

A

neurogenic

267
Q

myesthenia gravis is an acquired disorder that affects transmission at what part of the synapse?

A

junction

268
Q

T/F: in myesthenia gravis, Ab titer relates to the severity of the symptoms

A

false!!!

269
Q

T/F: MG is associated with other autoimmune disorders

A

yes, as is the case with most autoimmunes

270
Q

What are the two pathologies associated with MG?

A

thymus hyperplasia

thymomas

271
Q

What seems to be the source of the AchR Abs in MG?

A

the thymus

272
Q

What happens with the eyes in MG?

A

Ptosis and diplopia in the evening

273
Q

T/F: severe MG can affect the respiratory muscles

A

true

274
Q

What is the Tx for MG?

A

Anti-ACh agent(Edrophonium chloride, akaTensilon) for transient fix
Cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g. Mestinon® or Progstimin®) administered. Success and dosages vary widely.
Most patients show improvement after thymectomy

275
Q

DMD has what mode of inheritance?

A

X-linked

276
Q

(proximal/distal) muscles are affected in DMD?

A

proximal

277
Q

what muscles get really big in DMD?

A

calf muscles

278
Q

What are you missing in DMD that causes the muscle shearing?

A

dystrophin

279
Q

What are the histologic characteristics of DMD?

A

marked variation in muscle fiber size, with

hypertrophy and atrophy of adjacent fibers

280
Q

BMD is an (abscence/mutation) in dystrophin

A

only a mutation; less severe than DMD

281
Q

Rhabdomyoma is a cardiac form of skeletal neoplasm assocated with (blank)

A

tuberous sclerosis

282
Q

(blank) is probably a hamartoma

A

Rhabdomyoma

283
Q

What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

284
Q

What is the embryonal variant of rhabdomyosarcoma in the GU tract?

A

Sarcoma botryoides; gelatinous GRAPE LIKE structures

285
Q

embroyonal rhabdomyosarcoma has scattered skeletal muscle strap cells and appears as….

A

primitive small round blue cells

286
Q

What are the three variants of rhabdomyosarcoma?

A
  1. embryonal
  2. alveolar
  3. pleomorphic