Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Health Care Participant Nursing: N1220 > Musculoskeletal System (Exam One) > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal System (Exam One) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Pharmacology flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Adult Health flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards
1
Q

What are the functions of the skeleton?

A
  • Provides structural support
  • Protects organs
  • Provides attachment
  • Blood cell production
  • Stores minerals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is hemopoiesis? Where does this occur?

A
  • Production of blood cells and platelets

- Occurs in red bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the functions of the muscle?

A
  • Stabilize the skeleton
  • Produce heat
  • Aids in the return of blood from the legs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A fracture in the epiphyseal plate, or long bones, can affect what?

A

Growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If a child is under the age of 16, a bone fracture will most likely do what? If the bone does not realign itself appropriately what might be necessary?

A
  • Repair itself

- Rebreaking of the bone in order to realign the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bone fractures in adults require what in regards to repair?

A
  • Extensive repair

- Perfect realignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three types of bone cells?

A
  • Osteoblasts
  • Osteoclasts
  • Osteocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are osteoblasts responsible for?

HINT: Building Blocks

A
  • Producing new bone

- Rebuilding existing bones when they are broken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Osteoclasts are responsible for what?

HINT: Clean up

A
  • Reabsorb existing bone when more calcium is needed in the blood
  • Removes excess bone
  • Breakdown existing bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Osteocytes are responsible for what?

A
  • Maintaining bone tissue

- Cycle of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Give examples of long bones.

A
  • Femur
  • Humerus
  • Tibia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give examples of short bones.

A
  • Carpals in the hand

- Tarsals in the foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give examples of flat bones.

A
  • Ribs
  • Skull
  • Scapula
  • Sternum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Give examples of irregular bones.

A
  • Sacrum
  • Mandible
  • Ear ossicles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The axial skeleton is composed of what?

A
  • Skull
  • Hyoid
  • Vertebral Column
  • Rib Cage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The appendicular skeleton is composed of what?

A
  • Arms/Legs
  • Shoulder
  • Pelvic Girdles
  • Synovial Joints
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the characteristics of an immature skeleton in children?

A
  • Increased resilience to stress
  • Thicker periosteum
  • Shorter healing times
  • Apophysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a disadvantage for children regarding the immature skeleton?

A
  • Misaligned fragments become solid sooner

- Bones may heal themselves in an improper position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the purpose of the thoracic cage?

A
  • Protects the heart, lungs, liver, and spleen

- Expands chest cavity for inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List the vertebrae of the vertebral column in order.

HINT: Cereal, Turkey, Lasagna, Snack, Chocolate

A
  • Cervical
  • Thoracic
  • Lumbar
  • Sacrum
  • Coccyx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Synovial fluid is responsible for what?

A
  • Lubrication of joints
  • Nourishes cartilage
  • Contain phagocytes to removes debris
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are bursae?

A

Small sacs of synovial fluid between joints and other structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tendons attach _____ to _____.

A

Muscle to bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ligaments connect _____ to _____.

A

Bones to bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Do antagonistic muscles work with or against each other?

A

Work against each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Synergistic muscles aid in what functions of the body?

A
  • Fine motor control

- Maintain balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe cardiac muscle.

A
  • Involuntary

- Contracts spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe smooth muscle.

A
  • Involuntary
  • Found in the walls of hollow structures
  • Contracts based on neuronal and hormonal influences
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe skeletal muscle.

A
  • Voluntary

- Contracts based on neuronal stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Contractions of the skeletal muscle allow for what?

A
  • Posture maintenance
  • Body movement
  • Heat production
  • Facial expressions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Muscular atrophy is the result of what?

A

Immobility of muscular activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Muscular hypertrophy is the result of what?

A

Increased muscular activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The point of origin ____ move during contraction.

A

Does not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The point of insertion ____ move during contraction.

A

Does

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Skeletal muscles require what in order to contract?

A

Electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which electrolytes are necessary for muscle contraction?

A
  • Calcium
  • Sodium
  • Potassium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which electrolytes enter the muscle fibers?

A
  • Calcium

- Sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which electrolyte exits the muscle fibers?

A

Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Are osteoarthritis and osteoporosis a normal part of the aging process?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is joint crepitation?

A

Grating or crackling sound with joint movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What six components should be assessed during a neurovascular assessment?

HINT: 6 P’s

A
  • Pain
  • Pallor
  • Pulse
  • Paresthesia
  • Paralysis
  • Pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a cause for concern when performing a muscle strength test? What might this indicate?

A
  • Only one side of the body is presenting with weakness

- Might be indicative of an underlying neurological issue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the purpose of the muscle strength test?

A

Assesses for weakness and localizes a likely problem area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The muscle strength test should be performed _____.

A

Bilaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the normal range for calcium?

A

9.0 - 10.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the normal range for phosphorus?

A

2.6 - 4.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

If the patients calcium level is elevated, the nurse knows that what other laboratory value will be elevated?

A

Phosphorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

An increase in ALP may be indicative of what?

A
  • Bone abnormalities

- Formation of new bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Too much of what lab value can damage the muscle?

A

Creatine Kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Where can oxygen molecules be stored?

A

Muscle tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Muscle breakdown causes what to be released into the bloodstream?

A

Myoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The nurse knows these muscles are at risk if a patient presents with an elevated creatine kinase and myoglobin?

A

Cardiac muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Potassium aids in muscle _____.

A

Contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What electrolyte allows the heart to send electrical impulses?

A

Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which laboratory value is nonspecific?

A

ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

X-rays are used to identify what?

A
  • Soft tissue abnormalities
  • Bony abnormalities
  • Various trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What education should the nurse provide to the patient if they require an x-ray?

A
  • Painless

- Importance of remaining still

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

If contrast dye is utilized, the nurse must verify what?

A
  • Shellfish allergy

- Liver function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is an arthroscopy?

A
  • Surgical intervention used to visualize the inside of a joint
  • Usually performed in the knee
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is an arthrocentesis?

A
  • Collects synovial fluid from a joint capsule using a syringe
  • Also known as joint aspiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the preferred method of treatment for many musculoskeletal injuries?

A

R - Rest for 2-3 days
I - Ice inflammation 15-20 minutes every 2-3 hours
C - Compression with elastic bandages (do not leave on while sleeping)
E - Elevate above level of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Ask the ____ if they are satisfied with the level of pain control.

A

Patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which hours are critical for soft-tissue injuries?

A

The first 12 to 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are soft-tissue injuries?

A

Injury to a muscle, tendon, or ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is a sprain?

A

Excessive stretching of a ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is a sTrain?

A

Excessive stretching of a Tendon or muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of soft-tissue injuries?

A
  • Decreased ROM
  • Pain
  • Edema
  • Decreased function
  • Contusion (bruising)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Soft-tissue injuries are ____ _____.

A

Self limiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is dislocation?

A

When the ends of bones are forced from their normal position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Where do dislocations occur?

A

Joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What should immediately follow a dislocation? Why?

A
  • Immobilization or splinting

- To preserve function of extremity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What must be performed before treatment of the dislocation? Why?

A
  • X-rays

- Determine the extent of the injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A patient with a dislocated joint will lose range of motion in which direction of the joint?

A

Distally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What education should the nurse provide to a patient who has a dislocation?

A

A patient with a dislocated joint is at a greater risk for dislocations in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is bursitis?

A

Inflammation of the bursa itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the cause of bursitis?

A

Repetitive joint action or motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What makes up the rotator cuff?

A

Muscles and tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How is a rotator cuff injury diagnosed?

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is carpel tunnel syndrome?

A
  • Median nerve compression

- Swelling within the tunnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What might a patient with carpel tunnel syndrome complain of?

A
  • Pain
  • Numbness
  • Paresthesia
  • Muscle weakness
  • Possible fine motor deficits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What tests are used to diagnose carpel tunnel syndrome?

A
  • Phalen’s sign

- Tinel’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Explain Phalen’s sign?

A
  • Forced flexion of patients hands for 30-60 seconds compressing the nerve
  • Patient will experience burning, tingling, numbness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Explain Tinel’s sign.

A
  • Light tapping over the nerve

- Patient will experience a tingling sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Who is at an increased risk for developing carpel tunnel syndrome? What can they do to mitigate this development?

A
  • Secretaries
  • Individuals who type
  • Use wrist elevation pads
  • Wrist splint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is a fracture?

A

A break in the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the FIRST priority if a fracture is suspected?

A
  • Immobilize the extremity!
  • Splint the extremity
  • RICE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Which types of fractures may result in limb shortening?

A
  • Complete

- Complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Should the nurse be concerned about bleeding with a broken bone/fracture?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What labs would the nurse want to assess in a patient with a fracture?

A
  • Hemoglobin
  • Hematocrit
  • ESR
  • Calcium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How are fractures diagnosed?

A

X-ray

91
Q

The inability to locate a pulse in an extremity that is distal to an injury is considered what?

A

EMERGENCY!

92
Q

If a patients capillary refill is 7 seconds, the nurse should do what?

A

Notify the health care provider

93
Q

What is the most common treatment for simple fractures?

A

Reduction

94
Q

_____ is key after a fracture has been successfully reduced.

A

Immobilization

95
Q

A closed reduction immobilization will include which joints?

A

Joints above and below the fracture

96
Q

What is bucks traction?

A

Temporary medical device which applies a pulling force on a fractured extremity using weight which causes immobility of that extremity

97
Q

What is the primary purpose of Bucks Traction? What is the weight limit for Bucks Traction?

A
  • Immobilization until surgery can be done
  • Pain relief for the patient

-10 pounds

98
Q

What should never be touched by the nurse regarding Bucks Traction?

A

Weights

99
Q

If the weights are not in the correct position for Bucks Traction, what should the nurse do?

A

-Notify the RN or health care provider

100
Q

What is Skeletal Traction used to treat? What is the weight limit for Skeletal Traction?

A
  • Fractures of the femur

- 20 to 40 pounds

101
Q

When is Skeletal Traction used?

A
  • When Bucks Traction will not work

- Fractures that require longer duration than Bucks Traction

102
Q

What should the nurse expect with Skeletal Traction?

A

Pain medication will be administered regularly

103
Q

The nurse knows she should do what if the patient expresses their pain is unrelieved or severe while in skeletal traction?

A

Notify the health care provider

104
Q

Open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF) is commonly performed on patients who have a fracture in which joint?

A

Hip fracture

105
Q

When will external fixation be utilized?

A

Severe bone damage (i.e. crush injury, splintered fractures, numerous breaks)

106
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

Infection of the bone caused by invasion of bacteria into bone and soft tissue

107
Q

The nurse knows the healing process may be delayed for which patients?

A
  • Diabetic patients

- Older adults

108
Q

What are concerning findings of the neurovascular assessment that indicate neurologic complications?

A
  • Numbness and tingling
  • Decreased sensations
  • Decreased mobility
109
Q

What are concerning findings of the neurovascular assessment that indicate circulation complications?

A
  • Decreased pulses
  • Absent pulses
  • Cool skin temperature
  • Dusky skin
110
Q

What should the nurse do if concerning findings are present during the neurovascular assessment?

A

Notify the health care provider

111
Q

Which fracture poses the biggest risk for bleeding or hemorrhage and infection?

A

Open fracture

112
Q

Open fractures require what?

A

Aggressive surgical debridement

113
Q

Common infections with fractures stem from which sites?

A
  • Wound
  • Pin-site
  • Surgical incision
  • Bone (osteomyelitis)
114
Q

All post-op fracture patients should be on what type of medication?

A

Prophylactic anticoagulant

115
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention with venous thrombosis?

A

Prevention

116
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A
  • Swelling and increased pressure occur within a limited space
  • Pressure compromises function of blood vessels, nerves, and tendons
  • Reduction of blood circulation and capillary refill
  • Impaired tissue perfusion
  • Life-threatening, EMERGENCY!
117
Q

What are the causes of compartment syndrome?

A
  • Decreased compartment size due to restrictive dressings, splints, casts
  • Increased compartment size due to bleeding, edema, tissue swelling, IV infiltration
118
Q

How is compartment syndrome prevented?

A
  • Extremity elevation

- Ice

119
Q

What is the earliest symptom of compartment syndrome?

A

Patient reports severe increasing pain that is unrelieved by opioids

120
Q

A fasciotomy may be necessary regarding what syndrome?

A

Compartment Syndrome

121
Q

The patient is most at risk for what with a fasciotomy?

A

Infection

122
Q

What may occur if compartment syndrome is not treated in a timely manner?

A
  • Tissue necrosis
  • Infection
  • Rhabdomyolysis
  • Renal failure
123
Q

What is rhabdomyolysis?

A
  • Death of muscle fibers
  • Muscle fibers release protein into the bloodstream
  • Excessive protein in renal system causes renal failure
124
Q

What is fat embolism syndrome?

A
  • Occurs in patients with long bone fracture

- Small fat particles are dislodged from broken bone and distributed into tissues and organs

125
Q

When will fat embolism syndrome occur?

A

72 hours after initial injury

126
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of fat embolism syndrome in the skin?

A
  • Petechiae

- Red rash on chest, neck, axilla, and conjunctiva

127
Q

What is the priority nursing management regarding fat embolism syndrome?

A

-Continuous immobilization of long bone fractures

128
Q

What nursing interventions should be done for a patient with fat embolism syndrome?

A
  • Notify the health care provider
  • Apply oxygen
  • High-fowlers
  • Immobilization
  • Corticosteroids
129
Q

Fat embolism is most common in what type of fracture?

A

Long bone fracture

130
Q

Infant hip dysplasia has a significant relationship with what?

A

Tight swaddling

131
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hip dysplasia?

A

-Limited hip abduction
-Asymmetrical skinfolds
-Uneven knee heights
-

132
Q

What are the treatment options for hip dysplasia?

A
  • Pavlik Harness
  • Spica cast
  • Surgery
133
Q

What is the cause of scoliosis?

A

Unknown

134
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

Curvature of the spine

135
Q

What is clubfoot? Where is clubfoot is easily identified ?

A
  • Complex deformity of the ankle and foot

- Easily identified in utero

136
Q

_____ __ _______ is a priority with clubfoot.

A

Correction of deformity

137
Q

What is the common treatment approach for clubfoot?

A

Ponseti method

138
Q

How long does acute osteomyelitis last?

A

< 4 weeks

139
Q

How long does chronic osteomyelitis last?

A

> 4 weeks

140
Q

What tests are used to diagnose osteomyelitis?

A
  • CBC
  • Bone biopsy
  • Blood culture
  • Imaging
141
Q

The nurse would expect what labs to be elevated in a patient with osteomyelitis?

A
  • WBC

- ESR

142
Q

How is osteomyelitis treated?

A
  • Vigorous and prolonged antibiotic therapy
  • Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy
  • Surgery
  • Amputation
143
Q

What is the most effective way to prevent osteomyelitis?

A
  • Handwashing!

- Sterile dressing changes

144
Q

What is hyperbaric oxygen therapy?

A

Enhances bodies natural healing process by inhalation of 100% oxygen

145
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A
  • Chronic, progressive metabolic bone disease
  • Causes weak and fragile bones that are prone to fracture
  • Loss of bone density and structural deterioration
146
Q

What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

A
  • Female
  • Poor nutrition
  • Smoking/Alcohol
  • Caffeine
  • Low calcium levels
  • Family history
147
Q

What is the single most effective prevention method for osteoporosis?

A

Low-impact exercise (i.e. walking)

148
Q

Calcium supplements become more effective if paired with what other supplement?

A

Vitamin D

149
Q

What is a DEXA scan?

A

Assesses the mineral density

150
Q

What laboratory values should the nurse assess in a patient with osteoporosis?

A
  • Calcium
  • Vitamin D
  • Phosphorus
151
Q

How are falls and fractures prevented in patients with osteoporosis?

A
  • Promote hazard free environment
  • Decrease clutter
  • Clear walkways
  • Use of gait aide (i.e. walker, cane)
152
Q

What is Paget’s disease? What bones are most commonly affected?

A
  • Skeletal bone disorder characterized by bone destruction
  • Spine
  • Femur
  • Skull
  • Pelvis
153
Q

Paget’s disease can result in what?

A

Osteoarthritis

154
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Paget’s disease?

A
  • Bone pain
  • Limping/waddling gait
  • Joint stiffness
  • Pinched nerves
155
Q

How is Paget’s disease diagnosed?

A

X-ray

156
Q

What is osteosarcoma? Where is it most commonly found?

A
  • Most common and most fatal malignant bone tumor
  • Tumor located inside of the bone
  • Found in long bones
157
Q

Who is most at risk for osteosarcoma?

A
  • Younger people (ages 10 to 25)

- Males

158
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of osteosarcoma?

A
  • Localized pain and swelling

- Possible tender, palpable mass

159
Q

Which bone cancer has a high rate of being cured?

A

Ewing’s Sarcoma

160
Q

What is Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

-Malignant bone tumor
-Tumor located on outside of
the bone

161
Q

Metastatic bone disease are commonly known as what? Why?

A
  • Referred to as bone-seeking cancers

- Tumors first present in tissue and then migrate to bone

162
Q

What is primary gout?

A

Occurs when uric acid production is greater than the kidneys ability to excrete the uric acid

163
Q

What medication can cause secondary gout?

A

-Diuretics

164
Q

Gout usually occurs in which joint?

A

Big toe

165
Q

What is a normal serum uric acid level?

A

2.4 - 7.0

166
Q

What medication is commonly prescribed for patients with gout? What does this medication do?

A
  • Allopurinol

- Blocks the formation of uric acid

167
Q

List foods high in purine.

A
  • Seafood
  • Red meat
  • Organ meat
  • Wild game
168
Q

What should a patient with alcohol avoid?

A
  • Diuretics
  • Aspirin
  • Alcohol
169
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

-Slow deterioration of articular cartilage and bone ends of joints

170
Q

What is the most common form of joint disease in North America?

A

Osteoarthritis

171
Q

The cause of osteoarthritis is _____.

A

Unknown

172
Q

Osteoarthritis most commonly affects which joints?

A

Weight bearing joints (i.e. hips, knees, hands, vertebral column)

173
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis?

A
  • Increased pain with activity
  • Decreased pain with rest
  • Crepitus
  • Heberden’s nodes
  • Bouchard’s nodes
174
Q

What are Heberden’s nodes?

A

Pain and redness that is distal to the joint

175
Q

What are Bouchard’s nodes?

A

Pain and redness that is proximal to the joint

176
Q

What is the key difference between osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Osteoarthritis has no system manifestations – it is localized

177
Q

Why is a patient with osteoarthritis educated to not take excessive amounts of NSAIDs?

A

NSAIDs can affect other organs

178
Q

The synovial fluid removed from a joint should be what color?

A

Clear

179
Q

Synovial fluid of this color would be concerning to the nurse. What would this indicate?

A
  • Cloudy
  • Milky
  • Dark yellow with inflammatory cells
  • Indicates rheumatoid arthritis
180
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

A chronic, progressive, systemic autoimmune disease

181
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • A chronic, progressive, systemic autoimmune disease

- Destroys synovial joints and other connective tissues

182
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is more prevalent in individuals with a _____ ____ of the disease. It can occur at ___ ____.

A
  • Family history

- Any age

183
Q

An increase in lymphocytes and plasma cells, synovitis, and articular destruction is common in what disease?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

184
Q

Joint deformity is considered a late manifestation in what disease?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

185
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis generally begins in which extremities?

A

Upper extremities

186
Q

Which joints are affected in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Large peripheral joints (i.e wrist, elbows, shoulders, hips, jaw)

187
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis can lead to what extracellular manifestations?

A
  • Raynaud’s phenomenon
  • Carpel tunnel syndrome
  • Felty syndrome
  • Spleenomegaly
188
Q

Patients with rheumatoid arthritis may be prescribed what?

A
  • DMARD’s
  • Corticosteroids
  • NSAIDs
189
Q

Who should be involved in care for patients with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Family

190
Q

What is an arthroplasty?

A

Total joint replacement

191
Q

If a patient undergoes a total hip or total knee replacement, what should be done if CPM is not ordered?

A

Pillow should be placed under the postoperative joint

192
Q

Patients who have a joint replacement will be given what medication prior to surgery?

A

Prophylactic antibiotics

193
Q

What should the nurse ensure for a post-op total hip replacement patient?

A

Proper positioning!

194
Q

Patients who have had a hip replacement cannot be in what positions?

A
  • Adduction
  • Hyperflexion
  • Bending over
  • Crossing body and twisting
195
Q

What is the most common post-op complication of a total hip replacement? The nurse should do what if this occurs?

A
  • Hip dislocation
  • Notify the surgeon immediately
  • Administer pain medication
196
Q

What is the correction positioning of a post-op total hip replacement patient?

A
  • Supine, head slightly elevated

- Abductor pillow in place

197
Q

If placing a post-op hip replacement patient on a bed pan, how should the nurse rotate the patient?

A

Turn the hip and leg simultaneously

198
Q

Regarding post-op hip replacement patients, what should be kept off of the bed to avoid skin breakdown?

A

Heels

199
Q

If a hip replacement post-op patient presents with confusion, the nurse should be concerned about what?

A

Infection

200
Q

Late infection can occur ____ after a total hip replacement.

A

One or more years

201
Q

How should the nurse monitor dressings?

A
  • Draw a line around the drainage to monitor hourly progression
  • Report large of unexpected amounts
202
Q

What lab values should be monitor post-op in a hip replacement or knee replacement patient?

A
  • Hemoglobin

- Hematocrit

203
Q

Neurovascular assessments should be performed _____ to the surgical site.

A

Distal

204
Q

Which patients are at the greatest risk for a DVT or PE?

A

Total hip replacement patients

205
Q

Traumatic amputation are considered what?

A

Accidents

206
Q

When transporting limbs or body parts, they should be what?

A
  • In a bag
  • Clean
  • Cold
207
Q

What is the most common amputation site?

A

Lower extremities

208
Q

What occurs if the great toe is amputated?

A

Balance and gait are affected

209
Q

What would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for a pre-operative elective amputation patient?

A

Increased anxiety

210
Q

Why are residual limbs wrapped in compression bandages during post-op care?

A

Ensures molding of the residual limb

211
Q

What is phantom pain? What nursing management is provided with phantom pain?

A
  • Patient feels as if the limb is still there
  • Manage with prescribed pain medication
  • This is REAL pain!
212
Q

Is phantom sensation painful?

A

No

213
Q

How is phantom pain assessed?

A

Just like normal pain

214
Q

What is the nursing priority for amputee patients?

A

Empathetic nursing care

215
Q

What must reduce prior to using prosthetics?

A

Swelling

216
Q

Describe that bandaging technique for post-operative above the knee amputation patients?

A
  • Elevate the foot of the bed for 24 hours after surgery
  • Then keep bed flat to prevent contractures
  • No pillows!
217
Q

Explain the neuromuscular junction.

A

1) Neuron releases acetylcholine
2) Action potential travels down motor neuron to the synaptic end bulb
3) Acetylcholine crosses into the synaptic cleft and bonds with receptors on motor end plate
4) Action potential travels into the transverse tubules to the sarcoplasmic reticulum
5) Calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum bonds to myosin heads
6) Myosin shortens the sarcomeres and pulls the muscle fiber

218
Q

Describe 0 on the Muscle Strength Testing Scale.

A

No detection of muscular contraction

219
Q

Describe 1 on the Muscle Strength Testing Scale.

A

A barely detectable flicker or trace of. contraction with observation or palpation

220
Q

Describe 2 on the Muscle Strength Testing Scale.

A

Active movement of body part with elimination of gravity

221
Q

Describe 3 on the Muscle Strength Testing Scale.

A

Active movement against gravity only and not against resistance

222
Q

Describe 4 on the Muscle Strength Testing Scale.

A

Active movement against gravity and some resistance

223
Q

Describe 5 on the Muscle Strength Testing Scale.

A

Active movement against full resistance without evident fatigue (normal strength)

Health Care Participant Nursing: N1220 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions