Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Exam 4 Pathology & Disease > Musculoskeletal Diseases > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Disease occurs when there is a disruption

A

of the normal physiologic function of a tissue or organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Disruption of the musculoskeletal system may be the result of

A

Trauma, Degenerative disease, Inflammation, poor conformation, neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Etiology of long bone fractures

A

trauma, disease, repeated stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Open fracture vs closed

A

open is through the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the classification of the fracture helps to determine

A

the best method of repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

oblique fracture

A

break occurs diagonally across the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Comminuted fracture

A

bone is broken, splintered, or crushed into pieces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Spiral fracture

A

break travels around the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

compound fracture

A

the bone sticks through the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many x-ray views are necessary to identify the type of fracture

A

at least 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

long bone fracture tx

A

reduction & fixation: splints, casts, intramedullary pins, bone plates, external skeletal fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do bones heal

A

fracture hematoma, fibrocartilagnoius (soft) callus, bony (hard) callus, remodeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

a fractured bone will not heal without

A

stabilization/immobilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is ideal tx for simple fractures with closely apposed fracture segments

A

splint/cast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Intramedullary pins (IM pins) provide

A

good fracture site rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What tx is ideal to prevent the forces of bending and rotation

A

IM pins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

bone plates provide

A

excellent stabilization of most fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

IM pins are not recommended for

A

distal forelimb fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

External fixators are used primarily for

A

complex fractures or ones in which external wounds are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

an external skeletal fixator is a device consisting of

A

multiple pins and external rings or bars which hold a fractured bone in place during the healing process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Client education for fractures

A

restrict activity, leash walks only 6-8 weeks, surgical site care, follow up rads, additional sx or splint changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the cruciate ligament

A

are ligaments which stabilize the knee located in x pattern and connect the femur to the tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

2 cruciate ligaments

A

cranial and caudal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

most common injury to stifle of a dog

A

injury of the cranial cruciate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

injury of the cruciate causes

A

secondary degenerative joint disease (DJD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CCL injury is seen frequently in

A

obese, middle-aged, inactive animals that suddenly hyperextend the stifle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

dx of cruciate ligament injury

A

clinical signs, cranial drawer test (tibia slides forward over femoral condyles), tibial expression test, +/- joint effusion, rads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Client education for cruciate injury

A

rupture of contralateral ligament, sx is only way to repair and prevent DJD, activity restricted for 6-8 weeks, weight loss, anti-inflammatories,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is a patellar luxation

A

the kneecap luxes or pops out of place either medial or lateral position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

medial luxation common breeds

A

toy, mini, large

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

lateral luxation breeds

A

toy and mini, large and giant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

One of the most common orthopedic conditions in dogs, dx in 7% of puppies

A

patellar luxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Grading system for patellar luxation

A

Grade 1-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

patellar laxations that do not cause any symptoms should be monitored but do not typically

A

warrant surgical correction especially in small dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

surgery for patellar luxation is most often considered with grades _ and over

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Patellar luxation client education

A

sx may be warranted, post op care of sx site, activity restriction, anti-inflammatories , DJD likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Genetic/hereditary condition most often seen in large breed dogs. Rapid weight grain and growth through excessive nutritional intake. Disease of the “ball and socket” may result due to abnormally shaped acetabulum and/or femoral head

A

hip dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Extra-articular stabilization

A

suture material placed around the casual fabellae and through a tunnel in the tibial crest to stabilize the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Intra-articular stabilization

A

Tibial tuberosity advancement (TTA) to prevent femur from skiing backwards off tibial plateau slope

Tibial plateau leveling osteotomy (TPLO) completely change dynamics of knee so the torn ligament becomes irrelevant to the stability of the knee itself

40
Q

cartilage wear leads to

A

the formation of bone spurs and scar tissue, which are the characteristic signs of hip arthritis

41
Q

Canine hip dysplasia (CHD) tx

A

not every dog will require tx. aggressive weight loss, walking, anti-inflammatories, rehab, supplements and special food. sx tx: total hip replacement or femoral head ostectomy

42
Q

Hip dysplasia client education

A

OFA recommendations, weight loss, progressive condition, sx is the only cure

43
Q

Legg-Perthes Disease (avascular necrosis)

A

necrosis due to loss of blood supply to femoral head which may be the result of s growth abnormally or trauma to the hip

44
Q

Legg-perthes disease is a _ condition of small breed young dogs especially terriers, may also occur in cats and is common after trauma or injury to the leg or hip

A

hereditary

45
Q

Tx of choice for legg-perthes disease

A

femoral head and neck ostectomy (FHO), larger dogs may require a total hip replacement

46
Q

Osteochondrosis Dissecans (OCD)

A

abnormal development of the cartilage on the end of a bone in the joint. occurs rapidly growing medium to large breed dogs typically between 6-9 months

47
Q

OCD diagnosis

A

radiographs and arthroscopic exam

48
Q

Tx of OCD

A

rest, weight control, sx removal of flap, mice, or both

49
Q

What is panosteitis

A

painful inflammation of the outer surface or shaft of one or more long bones of the legs

50
Q

Panosteitis sometimes called

A

growing pains

51
Q

Panosteitis common in

A

young, rapidly growing large breed dogs

52
Q

Dx of panosteitis

A

rads reveal increased medullary opacity

53
Q

Pathology of Coxofemoral luxations

A

tearing of the joint capsule and round ligament

54
Q

tx of coxofemoral luxations

A

close or open reduction; Elmer sling placed for 7-10 days. consider other organ system that may be affected and tx accordingly

55
Q

_ laxation are most common coxofemoral luxation

A

craniodorsal

56
Q

Masticory myositis

A

involves the muscles of mastication (muscles contain a fiber that has antigenic properties similar to bacteria resulting in an inflammatory immune response)

57
Q

myopathies are

A

rare in small animals but do occur

58
Q

Most common musculoskeletal neoplasia

A

osteosarcoma

59
Q

commonly affected site for musculoskeletal neoplasia

A

distal radius, proximal humerus, distal femur, proximal tibia

60
Q

Dx of musculoskeletal neoplasia

A

rads reveal otic lesion within the bone that DOES NOT CROSS THE JOINT; metastasis check should be done: 3 view chest and 2 view abdomen

61
Q

Client education for musculoskeletal neoplasia

A

amputation will remove primary tumor but not prevent metastasis, chemo risks and cost, fatal disease

62
Q

90% of lameness in horses come from the

A

foot

63
Q

Disease affecting the foot of horses

A

subsolar bruise (corn), hoof abscess, navicular syndrome, thrush, fractures

64
Q

Etiology of subsolar bruise

A

trauma that causes solar hemorrhage

65
Q

etiology of hoof abscess

A

bacteria within hoof capsule

66
Q

clinical signs for hoof abscess

A

fever, lameness, increased palmar digital pulses, feltock and pastern swelling

67
Q

Etiology of navicular syndrome

A

inflammation of navicular bursa; excessive strain on flexor tendons; improperly trimmed hooves

68
Q

Pressure applied to the frog area by a hoof tester will cause ___ if navicular disease is present

A

the horse to flinch

69
Q

Etiology of thrush

A

bacterial infection of frog: Fusarium necrophorum; WET CONDITIONS

70
Q

Sidebones

A

ossification of the collateral cartilages. found on either side of the foot protruding above the level of the coronary band

71
Q

etiology of sidebones

A

direct trauma to the foot

72
Q

Sesamoiditis is due to

A

great stress placed on the fetlock during fast exercise, the insertion of some of the ligaments can tear, which can result in inflammation and pain in this region

73
Q

Bucked shins

A

a painful acute periostitis on the cranial surface of the large meta-carpal or metatarsal bone

74
Q

etiology of splints/fractured splint bones

A

Splints:mineral and vitamin imbalances, faulty conformation
Fractured splint bones: direct trauma to bone

75
Q

Laminitis

A

Inflammation of the sensitive laminae; occurs when an insult causes blood to bypass the dermal laminae

76
Q

Extreme vasoconstriction causes the sensitive laminae to

A

separate from insensitive laminae and the coffin bone rotates away from the hoof wall bc of the pull from the deep digital flexor tendon

77
Q

Shoulder sweeny

A

damage to the supra scapular nerve, resulting in atrophy of the shoulder muscles

78
Q

Bog spavin referes to

A

a chronic synovitis of the talocrural joint characterized by distention of the joint capsule

79
Q

Bone spavin refers to

A

osteoarthritis or osteitis of the distal intertardal and tarsometatarsal articulations and occasionally the proximal inter tarsal joints

80
Q

Etiology of bone spavin

A

stress on the hock as a result of trauma

81
Q

Rhabdomyolysis aka external myopathy, exercise induced myopathy, Monday morning disease

A

a syndrome of muscle fatigue, pain, or cramping associated with exercise

82
Q

Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP) aka impressive syndrome

A

a genetic disorder that occurs in horses. affects sodium channels in muscle cells and the ability to regulate potassium levels in the blood

83
Q

Clinical signs of HYPP

A

muscle trembling, prolapse of 3rd eyelid, generalized weakness, weakness in hind in, complete collapse

84
Q

Nutritional secondary hyperthyroidism aka big head disease

A

improper ration (high P, low Ca) causing enlarged facial bones, spontaneous fractures, intermittent shifting leg lameness

85
Q

Etiology of infectious footrot

A

bacteria Dichelobacter nodosus

86
Q

Infectious footrot clinical signs

A

lameness in more than one individual of the herd, malodorous discharge, interdigital dermatitis

87
Q

Septic arthritis etiology

A

penetrating wound near a joint; umbilical infection

88
Q

etiology of Caprine arthritis encephalitis (virus) and clinical signs

A

retrovirus; chronic progressive arthritis, carpal swelling

89
Q

Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis transmission

A

vertical (doe to kid via nursing)

90
Q

Etiology of Nutritional Muscular dystrophy (white muscle disease)

A

selenium deficiency

91
Q

Clinical signs of white muscle disease

A

cardiac: recumbency, dyspnea, tachycardia
muscular: stiff gait, muscle tremors, dysphagia

92
Q

Etiology of rickets and osteomalacia

A

lack of vitamin D, lack of calcium and phosphorus

93
Q

Rickets and osteomalacia clinical signs

A

stiff gait, recumbency, enlarged costochondral junction

94
Q

etiology of ergot toxicosis

A

ingestion of the funds claviceps purpurea (contaminated grains or fescue pastures)

95
Q

Pathogenesis of ergot toxicosis

A

Vasoconstriction by direct action on the muscles of the arterioles and repeated doses injure the vascular endothelium

96
Q

clinical signs of ergot toxicosis

A

distal limb discoloration and swelling; lameness of hindlimbs

Exam 4 Pathology & Disease (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions