Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

What type of muscle is the only voluntary type?

A

Skeletal muscle

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2
Q

What accounts for the difference in the length-tension relationship when comparing skeletal and cardiac muscle?

A

This is due to difference Ca2+ intracellular concentrations

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3
Q

What causes the movement of tropomyosin to free the myosin binding sites on actin?

A

The combination of Ca2+ ions and TroponinC (TpC)

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4
Q

What neurotransmitter is used at a neuromuscular junction?

A

ACh

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5
Q

What 3 structures make up cardiac muscle’s own excitatory system?

A

SA node, AV node and bundle of His

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6
Q

T-tubules are present in both cardiac and skeletal muscle. True or false?

A

True; action potential propagate along t-tubules in both types of muscle

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7
Q

Define Pharmo-contraction coupling.

A

Contraction that occurs in smooth muscle in the absence of electrical activity via hormones or neurotransmitters.

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8
Q

What type of neurones innervate skeletal muscle cells?

A

Alpha-motor neurone (I.e. somatic neurones)

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9
Q

Where are somatic neurones cell bodies located?

A

The ventral horn of the spinal cord

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10
Q

What is the function of SERCA pumps?

A

To maintain calcium ion storage in muscle cells

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11
Q

List the 4 steps involved in the sliding-filament model.

A
  1. ATP is hydrolysed when myosin head is unattached.
  2. ADP + P are bound to myosin as the myosin head attaches to actin
  3. ADP+P release causes myosin head to change position; the actin filament moves
  4. Binding of ATP causes the myosin head to return to the resting position

CYCLIC PROCESS

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12
Q

Define ‘tetanic contraction’ and the different between complete and incomplete.

A

Tetanic contraction is the sustained contraction resulting from high frequency stimulation (I.e. summation). Complete is where there is no relaxation of the contraction (graph: fused) and incomplete is where there is partial relaxation of the contraction (graph: infused).

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13
Q

What is the difference of isometric and isotonic muscle contraction?

A

Isometric contraction involves the muscle contraction without any visible movement of the joint of muscle, whereas, isotonic contraction is when the muscle contracts and shortens.

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14
Q

Compare and contrast the two types of muscle fibres: slow and fast twitch fibres.

A
Slow twitch fibres
*red
*type I
*lots of mitochondria
*high levels of myoglobin; oxygen binding
*highly aerobic 
*fatigue resistant; endurance
Fast twitch fibres
*white
*type II
*fewer mitochondria
*glycolytic metabolism
*fatigue quickly 
*rapid, intense, short duration contraction
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15
Q

What metabolites cause muscle fatigue?

A

Lactic acid, inorganic phosphate, increase ADP, reactive oxygen species and an ionic imbalance (of sodium and potassium)

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16
Q

Describe dystrophy and name an example disease.

A

Dystrophy is a muscle destroying disease that is the progressive degeneration of muscle fibres.

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17
Q

Define autoregulation

A

The intrinsic ability of an organ/tissue to maintain a constant blood pressure despite changes in perfusion pressure.

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18
Q

What type of nerve fibres richly innervate skeletal muscle?

A

Sympathetic vasoconstrictor fibres.

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19
Q

What has more control over arterial pressure during strenuous exercise: metabolic or nervous control?

A

Metabolic; increase of tissue metabolism = increase blood flow

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20
Q

What portion of oxygen does muscle extract from blood at rest compared to during exercise?

A

At rest: 25-30%

During exercise: 80-90%

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21
Q

What does oxygen debt during exercise result in?

A

Post-exercise hyperaemia (due to a fall in vascular resistance - vasodilation)

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22
Q

Why does increased production of lactic acid result in pain after exercise?

A

The increases lactic acid levels stimulate nociceptive C fibres which result in the sensation of pain

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23
Q

Name some functional adaptations of vascular beds in order to maintain adequate blood flow to muscles and skin.

A
  1. Variable oxygen extraction
  2. Participation in vascular reflexes
  3. Dominant metabolic vasodilation
  4. Vasodilator response to adrenaline
  5. Skeletal muscle pump
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24
Q

Name the 3 functional adaptations of cutaneous circulation.

A
  1. Sensitivity to ambient temperature
  2. Cold-induced vasodilation
  3. Rise in core temperature to reduce body temperature
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25
Q

What are the 3 classifications of joints based on their range of movement?

A
  • Synarthroses: do not move at all (e.g. sutures in skull)
  • Amphiarthroses: limited movement (e.g. pubic symphysis)
  • Diarthroses: movement on several planes (e.g. knee joint)
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26
Q

What are the 6 types of synovial joints?

A

Ball & socket, hinge, pivot, gliding/plane, saddle and condyloid.

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27
Q

Name and describe the two membranes of an articular capsule of a synovial joint.

A
  • fibrous membrane: composed of dense irregular connective tissue and forms the outer layer of the articular capsule
  • synovial membrane: composed of a specialised connective tissue and has a rich capillarity network and contains synovial-fluid producing cells called synoviocytes. It has no epithelial lining but still have good regenerative powers.
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28
Q

Compare and contrast the two types of synoviocytes.

A

TYPE A: macrophage-like cell and acts by removing debris via phagocytosis. They are derived from bone marrow and contribute slightly to the production of synovial fluid.
TYPE B: fibroblast-like cells which an abundant rough ER. They are the main producer cells of synovial fluid.

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29
Q

How can synovial fluid be used to diagnose certain joint diseases?

A

An arthrocentesis can be preformed where a sample of synovial fluid is taken from the patient and the physical, chemical and microscopic characteristics of the fluid are analyses to, hopefully, lead to a diagnosis.

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30
Q

Why is it important to warm up being completing exercise to protect your joints?

A

The synovial fluid present in synovial joints plays an important role as a shock-absorber for the body. It is important to warm up before exercise as this thickens the synovial fluid to a gel-like consistency and is therefore a more efficient shock absorber.

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31
Q

Define proprioception.

A

The ability to know where our joints are without needing to see them (both in static and dynamic positions).

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32
Q

What type of muscle spindle is adapted to detecting rapid rates of change in joint angulation and stretch in muscles?

A

Gamma-motor neuron

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33
Q

What type of Golgi tendon receptor measures tension in tendon to gauge force generated by a muscle?

A

Type 1 beta-sensory Afferents

34
Q

What neuronal structure processes information collect by receptors of joint angulation (e.g. muscle spindles, Golgi tendon receptors, pacinian corpuscles)

A

The thalamus; acts as the relay centre

35
Q

What 2 fields of physics are explored in the science of Biomechanics?

A

Newtonian mechanics and Continuum mechanics

36
Q

State the 1st law of Newton’s Laws of Motion.

A

An object that is at rest will stay at rest and an object in motion will not change its velocity (magnitude or direction) unless an external force acts upon it

37
Q

State the 2nd law of Newton’s Laws of Motion.

A

Net force on an object is equal to the mass of the object multiplied by its acceleration
Net force = Mass x Acceleration
F = m(kg) x a(m/sec^2) = newtons

38
Q

State the 3rd law of Newton’s Laws of Motion.

A

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

39
Q

Define ‘Centre of Mass Location’.

A

The unique point in space around which the mass of an object is equally distributed

40
Q

Define ‘Moment of Inertia (I)’.

A

The measurement of an objects rotation inertia

I = mass - distance^2

41
Q

What is a lever in biomechanics?

A

A rigid beam which rotates about a support called a fulcum.

42
Q

What type of lever is an eccentric bicep curl an example of?

A

A second class - the load is situated between the fulcrum and force

43
Q

What type of lever is the Atlanta-occipital joint an example of?

A

A first class lever - the fulcrum is located between the applied force and load

44
Q

What type of lever is the concentric flexion of the biceps brachii an example of?

A

A third class - the force is applied between the fulcrum and the load

45
Q

What type of joint is the sternoclavicular joint?

A

A synovial ball and socket joint between the manubrium notch and medial end of the clavicle.

46
Q

Where does the interclavicular ligament run between?

A

The 2 medial ends of both clavicle; superior to the manubrium

47
Q

What type of joint is the acromioclavicular joint?

A

A synovial gliding joint between the acromion process and lateral end of the clavicle.

48
Q

What supporting ligament of the acromioclavicular joint is responsible for the majority of the weight-bearing abilities of the shoulder?

A

The coracoclavicular ligament that runs between the coracoid process of the scapula and the inferior surface of the acromion end of the clavicle.

49
Q

What group of muscles supply stability to the glenohumeral joint?

A

The rotator cuff muscles: teres minor, supraspinatus, infraspinatus and subscapularis.

50
Q

What portion of the humerus is covered by the glenoid cavity?

A

1/3

51
Q

What is the glenoid labrum made of and what is its primary function?

A

It is made of fibrocartilage and acts by deepening the glenoid cavity to allow for a better fit.

52
Q

What are the 3 attachment sites of the glenohumeral joint’s synovial capsule?

A
  1. Scapula; beyond the supraglenoid tubercle
  2. Margin of labrum
  3. Anatomical neck of the humerus
53
Q

Name the 4 bursae involved in the glenohumeral joint.

A

Subacromial, subscapular, subdeltoid and subcoracoid bursae.

54
Q

Name the 4 shoulder ligaments that help the stability of the joint.

A

Coracoacromial, coracohumeral, glenoumeral and transverse humeral.

55
Q

What are the 5 anatomical names of the digits?

A
I - Pollex
II - Index forefinger 
III - Digitis medius
IV - Ring annularis
V - Little minimus
56
Q

What are the two types of movements possible of the hand? Name some examples of each

A
  • non-prehensive movments - with a flat hand; hitting, pushing
  • prehensive movements - dependent on position of the fingers; grasp, grip
57
Q

What 2 sets of muscles are involved in power the power and precision grip?

A

The extrinsic flexor muscle and intrinsic palm muscles

58
Q

At what joint in the hand does the ‘bye-bye‘ Movement occurs at?

A

The metacarpophalangeal joints (I.e. the knuckles)

59
Q

What bones are involved in the synovial saddle joint of the thumb and are responsible for its range of movements?

A

The trapezium and proximal end of the 1st metacarpal bone.

60
Q

What 3 instrinsic hand muscles are hypothenar?

A

Opponents digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi & abductor digiti minimi

61
Q

What intrinsic hand muscles are thenar?

A

Abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis & adductor pollicis

62
Q

What does the anterior fibrous reticiulum form?

A

The flexor retinaculum; carpal tunnel

63
Q

What does the posterior fibrous retinaculum form?

A

The extensor retinaculum

64
Q

What nerve runs through the carpal tunnel?

A

Median nerve

65
Q

What are the 5 classifications of bone?

A

Long, short, flat, irregular and seasamoid

66
Q

What are the 2 layers of long bones?

A

Outer compact bone and an inner spongy layer of bone (diploë)

67
Q

What are the 3 areas of long bones?

A

Diaphysis: proximal shaft that runs between the distal and proximal end of the bone
Epiphysis: the wider section of each end of the bone that is filled with spongy bone
Metaphysis: the region where the diaphysis joins with the epiphysis via mature bone. It also contains the epiphyseal plate (hyaline cartilage) in growing bone

68
Q

Where is the endosteum located in long bones?

A

The delicate membrane is located lining the medullary cavity and is essential for bone growth,repair and remodelling

69
Q

Where is the periosteum located for bones and what does it contain?

A

The fibrous membrane covers the outer surfaces of bones and contain blood vessels, nerves and lymphatic vessels that nourish the outer compact bone

70
Q

What are the 2 main components of bone tissue?

A

Osteon (Haversian system of living cells) and a mineralised matrix

71
Q

Compare and contrast the inorganic and organic portions of bone.

A
Inorganic portion (65%) contains phosphate salts (hydroxyapatite) and provides strength to the bone
Organic portion (35%) contains collagen fibres and proteoglycans. It provides Flexibility
72
Q

What can a deficiency in the organic portion of bone lead to?

A

Brittle bones

73
Q

What can a deficiency in the inorganic portion of bones lead to?

A

Rickets; deficiency can be a lack of calcium

74
Q

Where are osteocytes found?

A

In the lacunae between the lamellae of the bone matrix

75
Q

Is compact/ cortical bone vascular or avascular?

A

Vascular

76
Q

What do osteoclasts develop from?

A

Monocytes and macrophages

77
Q

What is the bone immature stem cell called? And where are they found?

A

Osteogenic cells are found in the periostenum and bone marrow

78
Q

What are the main functions of osteocytes?

A

To maintain the mineral concentration of the matrix via the secretion of enzymes

79
Q

Where do blood vessels enter the bone?

A

The nutrient foramen (small opening in the diaphysis)

80
Q

What are the 3 main types of vessels that supply blood to bone?

A

Nutrient artery (arise from main circulation), metaphyseal and epiphyseal arteries and periosteal arterioles