Histology Flashcards

1
Q

Name 2 neuroscientists that contributed greatly to the field.
(hint: technique + application)

A
  • Camillo Golgi - discovered the silver-staining technique
  • Santiago Ramón y Cajal: applied the technique all over the body to map the human nervous system

Their combined work gained them the Nobel Prize for Physiology & Medicine in 1906

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2
Q

What characteristic allows neurones to communicate and what do they use to do so?

A

The phospholipid belayer with ion channels produces an excitable membrane that allows neurones to communicate using ions (e.g. Na+, K+, Cl- & Ca2+).
This allows the presence of concentration gradients and electrostatic potentials.

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3
Q

What specialised synapses are present in tissues including the heart and connective tissue? What type of communication do they allow and what can go wrong here in a clinical setting?

A

Gap junctions (I.e. connexons) are electrical synapses present in these tissue that allow fast signalling and bi-directional communication. Certain disorders can affect these gap junctions including epilepsy, which is the result of uncontrolled activation of these.

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4
Q

Briefly described the dream of Otto Lowei and what is contributed to neuronal signalling.

A

Otto Lowei was a neuroscientist that had a dream that inspired him to investigate an important question in neuroscience - is there a chemical component involved in neuronal signalling? He took 2 frogs hearts and placed heart 1 in solution and stimulated the vagus nerve = heart slowing down. He then removed heart 1 and replaced it with heart 2. He noted that heart 2 also slowed down without the stimulation of the vagus nerve. This was proof that there was a chemical signal - first known as Vagusstuff but now acetylcholine (ACh).

n.b. Stimulation of vagus nerve = release of ACh = muscarinic receptor-complex = slows the heart
Stimulation of accelerans nerve = release of norepinephrine (NE) = beta2-adrenergic receptor complex = heart speeds up

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5
Q

What was Sir Bernard Katz major neuroscience discovery?

A

With research involving the motor end-plate and cholinergic transmission, Katz discovered that synaptic transmission is quantal.

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6
Q

Compare and contract excitatory and inhibitory electrical synapses.

A
Excitatory synapses:
* Asymmetrical synapses
* Gray’s type I
* Rounded synaptic vesicles 
Inhibitory synapses: 
* Symmetrical synapses
* Gray’s type II
* Flattened/ pleomorphic synaptic vesicles
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7
Q

Out of the 4 possible synaptic apposition, what type is also inhibitory?

A

Axo-axonic

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8
Q

What are the 2 types of neurotransmitter receptors? (Incl. Brief explanation)

A
  1. Ionotropic - a pore is formed in the membrane and, once activated, undergoes a conformational change (I.e. opens and closes) to allow ions to pass across the membrane. It has relatively quick effects.
  2. Metabotropic - an example of this type of receptor is a G-protein coupled receptor which have much slower effects
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9
Q

Briefly describe synaptic plasticity and the neuro-components involved.

A

Synaptic plasticity refers to the changes that occurs at neuronal junctions and synapses that affects how efficiently neurones communicate. It has been linked to memory storage and how the brain changes and adapts to new information. There are 2 main receptor types involved in this functions: AMPA & NMDA.

  1. AMPARs are pentemric structures composed of 4 subunits (GluR1-GluR4). If a receptor includes the GluR2 subunit, it is impermeable to Ca2+.
  2. NMDARs are composed of a NR1 & NR2 subunit. These channels are impermeable to Ca2+ due to a magnesium block, which can only be lifted if the Em is below -30mV.
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10
Q

Briefly describe the process involved in Long-Term Potentiation (LTP).

A

LTP is thought to be the cellular process responsible for learning and memory. It is regarded as the ability of excitatory synapses to become more sensitive to specific NTs due to transmission patterns. Process =
1. AMPARs activated and K+ ions leave the cell and Na+ enters the cell = membrane depolarisation
2. Magnesium block removed (-30mV) = influx of Ca2+ ions into the post-synaptic membrane
3. Activation of Tyrosine-Kinase = NDMARs activation = Ca2+ increased conc.
4. Activation of CaMKii, which phosphorylates AMPARs = increases AMPARs activation = insertion of new AMPARs
= LONG TERM POTENTIATION

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11
Q

List the 6 steps involved in cell-to-cell communication.

A
  1. SYNTHESIS of the signalling molecule - the receptor will detect a response and the cell will synthesise a signalling molecule
  2. RELEASE of the signalling molecule
  3. TRANSPORT to the site of action (I.e. target cell)
  4. DETECTION of the signal by a specific receptor
  5. ALTERATION in cell function
  6. REMOVAL of signal and termination (I.e. receptor desensitisation)
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12
Q

Name the 3 types of signalling including examples.

A
  1. Autocrine: signal acts upon releasing cell (I.e. self-activation). Examples include epinephrine acting on alpha2-adrenoceptors to inhibit NT release
  2. Paracrine: soluble signals act upon an adjacent cell (e.g. ACh acting on skeletal muscle via a neuromuscular junction)
  3. Endocrine: signals act at a target cell distant from their site of synthesis (e.g. hormones - insulin)
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13
Q

Describe the actions of an Intracellular receptor and what type of molecules use this type?

A

Intracellular receptors are used by hydrophobic signalling molecular (e.g. steroid and thyroid hormones) that travel in the blood via a transport protein. Once the molecule has successfully crossed the plasma membrane, it binds to a cytosol receptor that trans locates to the nucleus and alters DNA via becoming a transcription factor.

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14
Q

What are the actions of plasma membrane surface receptors and what type of molecules use these?

A

Hydrophilic molecules (e.g. adrenaline, histamine) use surface receptors as they can not cross the plasma membrane but can travel freely in blood. Once they have bound to the receptor, they trigger Intracellular chemical responses (e.g. second messengers).

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15
Q

What type of skeletal muscle receptors use ACh and what effect does it have?

A

Nicotinic ACh receptors are found in skeletal muscle and, once activated, cause depolarisation which is a relatively rapid effect.

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16
Q

What chemicals can reduce the channel opening time of a nACHRs? Where do these chemicals bind on the receptor?

A

Certain anaesthetics including isofluorane, halothane and NO. These chemicals bind to the loop between the M2 and M3 subunits.

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17
Q

Explain the structure of a nicotinic AChR (nAChR) including subunit structure.

A

A nAChR has a pentemeric structure which a combination of alpha, beta, gamma and delta subunits. Each subunit contains

  • an Extracellular N-terminus which holds the ACh binding sites (x2).
  • 4 transmembrane alpha-helixes within the subunits named M1-M4.
  • Glycosylation and disulphides bonds also confer stability of the receptor.
  • Glu + Thr in pore provides electron pairs that attracts cations and excludes anions
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18
Q

What can be used to determine the direction of movement of an ion across a permeable membrane?

A

The Nerst Equation

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19
Q

What is the resting membrane potential (Em)?

A

Em is the voltage difference across a cell’s membrane at rest. It can be calculated by finding the difference between the voltage of the cytoplasm and ECM.

  • Neuron = -70mV
  • Muscle = -90mV
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20
Q

What types of channels maintain Em?

A

There are PASSIVE (leak) channels that are constantly open and also ACTIVE channels that open and close in response to a specific stimuli. There are 3 main types of active channels!

  1. Chemically-gated channel
  2. Voltage-gated channel
  3. Mechanically-gated channel
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21
Q

What are graded potentials?

A

Graded potentials are changes (either depolarising or hyperpolarising) in membrane voltage that is lost quickly due to the permeable plasma membrane. If a graded potential passes the threshold of membrane voltage an action potential can occur.

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22
Q

What is an action potential?

A

An AP is a rapid change in Em caused by rapid activation and fluxes of ion currents, followed by a return to resting Em. They are the basis of cell-to-cell communication.

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23
Q

What is ‘Saltatory Conduction’?

A

The propagation of an AP along an axon via Nodes of Ranvier (unmyelinated sections of an axon), which increases conductoin velocity of APs.

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24
Q

Is Epithelia vascular or avascular?

A

Avascular

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25
Q

Describe the two laminas of epithelium and their relation to the basement membrane.

A

Epithelium has two laminas:
1. Basal lamina: comprised of the lamina lucida and dense - collagen fibres
2. Reticular lamina: composed of reticular fibres
The combination of these two laminas creates the basement membrane of epithelium cells.

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26
Q

What are the 4 shape types of epithelium?

A

Squamous, cuboidal, columnar and transitional (used if the cell shape is difficult to classify).

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27
Q

Describe the histology of the inner lining of the cervix? What clinical observation can be seen here?

A

The inner lining of the cervix is composed of 2 different types of epithelium:
1. Glandular columnar cells - secrete mucus
2. Stratified squamous epithelial cells - protective function
Cervical cancer is a life-threatening disease that can occur in females and is diagnoses via the use of Pap tests. This method takes a biopsy of the cervical tissue and look for cell changes under a microscope. Any changes observed have occurred due to the presence of the human papilloma virus (HPV).

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28
Q

What 3 appearance can the apical surface of epithelium have?

A
  1. Smooth - reduces friction
  2. Folds - present in organs that need to change shape
  3. Specialisations -
    a. Microvilli: an extension of the cytoplasm and formed by actin microfilaments. Act by increasing surface area and favour the absorption and movement of nutrients. Found in the small intestine as the ‘brush border’.
    b. Stereocillia: closely related to microvilli but longer and thinner. They are essential for sensation and absorption. Found in the epididymis and sensory hair cells of the internal ear.
    c. Cilia: these motility devices are comprised of tubulin (an outer ring of 9 and inner duo). They are found in the respiratory epithelium and Fallopian tubes.
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29
Q

What are the 3 major components of the cytoskeleton?

A
  1. Microtubules: large, hello tubes of tubulin that determine the cell’s shape
  2. Intermediate filaments: strong structures that stabilise the cell (e.g. keratin, desmin, vimentin).
    Microfilaments: bundles of myosin or actin filaments that generate movement and provide mechanical support.
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30
Q

Describe 3 basolateral specilisations.

A
  1. Occluding/ tight junctions: these are normally found close to the cell’s apical surface and act by sealing cells together and preventing leaking. They use the proteins occulidins and claudins.
  2. Anchoring junctions: these mechanically attach neighbouring cells and provide stability via groups of microfilaments (e.g actin and myosin). They also establish connections with transmembrane proteins via the protein cadherin.
  3. Communicating/ gap junctions: these mediate the passage of signal molecules between cells. Gaps are filled with channel-forming proteins called connexions. They allow electrical and metabolic communication.
31
Q

Compare and contrast desmosomes and hemidesmosomes.

A

Both are an example of an anchoring junction. The main difference between the two are that desmosomes connect two cells together (via cadherins) and hemidesmosomes connect a single cell to the BM (via integrins).

32
Q

What is Pemphigus?

A

An auto-immune blistering disease that affects the action of desmosomes and targeting the skin and mucous membranes that results in the presence of blisters.

33
Q

What happens when there is a failure of the formation of the BM that surrounds groups of scattered cells (e.g. muscles cells, schwann cells, adipocytes)?

A

Muscle dystrophy

34
Q

What receptor links the ECM and actin in the cytoskeleton?

A

Integrin receptor: extends from the intracellular components to the ECM. Can have many effects including cytoskeleton reorganisation, intracellular signalling and other cell processes.

35
Q

What leads to scurvy?

A

A lack of vitamin C, which is essential for the hydroxylation of PRO that forms the triple helix structure of collagen.

36
Q

What is the most abundant component of connective tissue?

A

Collagens (collagen 1 is the most popular)

37
Q

Describe the structure of proteoglycan.

A

A smaller protein chain with glycoaminoglycan side chains - has a very glycoslated structure.

38
Q

Describe the structure of glycoprotein.

A

A longer protein core chain with oligosaccharide side chains.

39
Q

What are the 3 main components of the ECM?

A
  1. Basement membrane
  2. Fibres (collagen, reticular, microfibrils, elastic)
  3. Amorphous matrix (i.e. ground substance)
40
Q

What are the 3 layers of the BM?

A
  1. Lamina lucida
  2. Lamina dense
  3. Lamina fibroreticularis
41
Q

What type of microscopy needs to be used to visualise the BM and it’s layers?

A

Transmission electron microscopy (TEM)

42
Q

What to metastatic and inflammatory cells have to break through in order to spread?

A

The basement membrane

43
Q

What are the 3 types of connective tissue?

A
  1. Connective tissue proper
  2. Supporting connective tissue
  3. Fluid connective tissue
44
Q

What determines the strength of connective tissue?

A

The ECM

45
Q

What germ layer is connective tissue derived from?

A

Embryonic mesenchyme

46
Q

What are the 3 types of classes in connective tissues?

A
  1. Blasts - create the ECM
  2. Cytes - maintain the ECM
  3. Clasts - breakdown the ECM

(e.g. osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteocytes)

47
Q

What is a ‘quiescent’ cell?

A

A dormant cells present in connective tissue that is not active but can be via a trigger to complete its desired task again.

48
Q

What type of cell produces and secretes elastic fibres?

A

Fibroblasts

49
Q

Describe Marfan’s Syndrome

A

An abnormal production of Fibrillin-1 that results in inefficient weak elastic fibres and overgrowth of tissues

50
Q

Describe Pulmonary Emphysema

A

A destruction of elastic tissue cause by increased elastase activity (pancreatic enzyme that digests elastin). Drugs and environmental toxins (e.g. air pollution and tobacco smoke) stimulate excess release of elastase.

51
Q

What type of connective tissue is ‘Stroma’?

A

Loose fibrous connective tissue proper

52
Q

Describe the genes involved in EMT.

A

Epithelial switches off ‘E-gene’ (I.e. cytokeratin) and activates ‘S-gene’ = gains motility

53
Q

Describe the gene(s) involved in MET.

A

Stroke can re-express ‘E-gene’ (I.e. E-cadherin) = turn off motility and regain polarity

54
Q

Define potency (regards to stem cells).

A

The potential to differentiate into different cell types

55
Q

Name the 4 types of potency including examples.

A
  1. Totipotent: can differentiate into any tissue including the placenta (e.g. morula)
  2. Pluripotent: can differentiate into any tissue (e.g. blastocyst)
  3. Multipotent: can differentiate into cells from a family (e.g. haemotopoietic - blood cells; WBC, RBC, platelets)
56
Q

Where are ‘cord blood stem cells’ found?

A

SC’s found in the umbilical cord

57
Q

Where are embryonic stem cells located?

A

SC’s in the blastocyst

58
Q

Where are adult stem cells found?

A

SC’s from children or adults

59
Q

Why are stem cells difficult to identify?

A

They do not have a specific marker for stem cell recognition

60
Q

List the 4 steps involved in ‘therapeutic cloning’.

A
  1. Take a somatic body with desired genes and remove the nucleus
  2. Add nucleus to denucleiated egg cell
  3. Two components fuse together
  4. Clone (i.e. morula) produced = stem cells (embryonic)
61
Q

Define ‘epitope’.

A

A specific part of an antigen that is recognised by an immunoglobulin (Ig) molecule. It is a very small portion of the molecule (5-8 amino acids).

62
Q

Describe the process involved in producing polyclonal antibodies.

A
  1. Inject host animal with the antigen of interest
  2. Give time for the immune response to develop
  3. Remove blood and make serum; may need to be purified to remove any unwanted antibodies
63
Q

Describe the process involved in producing monoclonal antibodies.

A
  1. Inject antigen of interest into animal (usually a mouse)
  2. Remove B-lymphocytes from spleen
  3. Hybridise B-cells with myeloma cells
64
Q

What is the difference in the fixative used for LM to EM

A

LM - only formaldehyde

EM - uses a mixture of formaldehyde and glutaraldehyde

65
Q

What type of immunoglobulin is specific for secondary antibodies during IHC?

A

IgG

66
Q

What is the ‘zona pellucida’ composed of?

A

Glycoproteins

67
Q

Define ‘clevage’.

A

The splitting of cells via mitotic divisions without overall growth. Occurs in the zygote around 24hrs post-fertilisation

68
Q

What type of cells does the trophoblast layer of the blastocyst develop into (including characteristics)?

A

Epithelium cells forming junctions via e-cadherins

69
Q

What is formed after clevage is completed?

A

Morula. (16 cells)

70
Q

What day is the developing blastocyst fully implanted in the uterine wall?

A

Day 14

71
Q

What development of the trophoblast secretes hCG? What is it’s clinical relevance?

A

The syncytiotrophoblast secrete hCG and this is the hormone that is detected by pregnancy tests to reveal positive results.

72
Q

Define ‘gastrulation’.

A

The formation from the single-layered blastula to the 3-layered gastrula. This contains the 3 germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.

73
Q

Describe the involvement of Na+ ions and water during blastocyst development.

A

The outer trophoblast layer begins to actively pump Na+ ions from the maternal environment into the cavity (i.e. blastocoele). Via osmosis, water also follows the ion path.

74
Q

Compare and contrast the two theories that determine cell polarity in the blastocyst (whether a cell will be apart of the ICM or trophoblast).

A
  1. Inside-out theory: cells that HAPPEN to be on the inside form the ICM and cells that HAPPEN to be on the outside form the trophoblast. What determines the initial cell positioning is unknown ht to involve external signals.
  2. Polarisation hypothesis: focuses more on position during clevage; if cells divide vertically they both become apart of the trophoblast but is they divided horizontally the inner one becomes the ICM and the outer becomes the trophoblast.