MUSCULAR TISSUE PT. 1 Flashcards

1
Q

contributes to homeostasis by producing body movements, moving substances through the body, and producing heat to maintain normal body temperature.

A

Muscular Tissue

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2
Q

What do bones provide and form in the body?

A

Leverage and the framework of the body.

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3
Q

Can bones move body parts by themselves?

A

No, they cannot move body parts by themselves.

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4
Q

What results from the alternating contraction and relaxation of muscles?

A

Motion results from the alternating contraction and relaxation of muscles.

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5
Q

What percentage of total adult body weight do muscles make up?

A

40–50% of total adult body weight.

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6
Q

What factors determine the percentage of total adult body weight made up by muscles?

A

The percentage of body fat, gender, and exercise regimen determine the percentage.

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7
Q

What does your muscular strength reflect?

A

It reflects the primary function of muscle.

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8
Q

What is the primary function of muscle?

A

The transformation of chemical energy into mechanical energy to generate force, perform work, and produce movement.

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9
Q

What do muscle tissues stabilize?

A

They stabilize body position.

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10
Q

What do muscle tissues regulate?

A

They regulate organ volume.

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11
Q

What do muscle tissues generate?

A

They generate heat.

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12
Q

What do muscle tissues propel through various body systems?

A

They propel fluids and food matter through various body systems.

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13
Q

What are the three types of muscular tissue?

A

Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth.

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14
Q

What is the scientific study of muscles known as?

A

Myology.

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15
Q

What does “myology” mean?

A

Myo = muscle; logy = study of.

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16
Q

In what ways do different types of muscular tissue differ?

A

They differ in microscopic anatomy, location, and how they are controlled by the nervous and endocrine systems.

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17
Q

Why is skeletal muscle tissue named as such?

A

Because most skeletal muscles move the bones of the skeleton.

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18
Q

What else do some skeletal muscles attach to and move?

A

The skin or other skeletal muscles.

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19
Q

What characteristic does skeletal muscle tissue have when examined under a microscope?

A

It is striated.

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20
Q

What causes the striated appearance of skeletal muscle tissue?

A

Alternating light and dark protein bands (striations).

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21
Q

In what manner does skeletal muscle tissue mainly work?

A

In a voluntary manner.

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22
Q

How can skeletal muscle activity be controlled?

A

By neurons (nerve cells) that are part of the somatic (voluntary) division of the nervous system.

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23
Q

To what extent are most skeletal muscles controlled subconsciously?

A

To some extent.

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24
Q

What skeletal muscle contracts and relaxes without conscious control to allow breathing?

A

The diaphragm.

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25
Q

What skeletal muscles contract without conscious thought to maintain posture or stabilize body positions?

A

The skeletal muscles that maintain your posture or stabilize body positions.

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26
Q

Which organ contains cardiac muscle tissue?

A

Only the heart.

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27
Q

What does cardiac muscle tissue form?

A

Most of the heart wall.

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28
Q

What characteristic does cardiac muscle tissue share with skeletal muscle tissue?

A

It is striated.

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29
Q

In what manner does cardiac muscle tissue work?

A

Involuntary.

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30
Q

What is not consciously controlled in cardiac muscle tissue?

A

The alternating contraction and relaxation of the heart.

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31
Q

Why does the heart beat?

A

Because it has a natural pacemaker that initiates each contraction.

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32
Q

What is the built-in rhythm of the heart called?

A

Autorhythmicity.

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33
Q

What can adjust the heart rate?

A

Several hormones and neurotransmitters.

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34
Q

How do hormones and neurotransmitters adjust heart rate?

A

By speeding or slowing the pacemaker.

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35
Q

Where is smooth muscle tissue located?

A

In the walls of hollow internal structures, such as blood vessels, airways, and most organs in the abdominopelvic cavity.

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36
Q

Where else is smooth muscle tissue found?

A

In the skin, attached to hair follicles.

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37
Q

What characteristic does smooth muscle tissue lack under a microscope?

A

Striations.

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38
Q

Why is smooth muscle tissue referred to as smooth?

A

Because it looks nonstriated.

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39
Q

In what manner does smooth muscle tissue usually work?

A

Involuntary.

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40
Q

What type of smooth muscle tissue has autorhythmicity?

A

The muscles that propel food through your digestive canal.

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41
Q

What regulates both cardiac muscle and smooth muscle?

A

Neurons that are part of the autonomic (involuntary) division of the nervous system and hormones released by endocrine glands.

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42
Q

What are the four key functions of muscular tissue?

A

Producing body movements, stabilizing body positions, storing and moving substances within the body, and generating heat.

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43
Q

What do movements of the whole body, such as walking and running, and localized movements, such as grasping a pencil, keyboarding, or nodding the head, rely on?

A

The integrated functioning of skeletal muscles, bones, and joints.

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44
Q

What do skeletal muscle contractions stabilize?

A

Joints.

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45
Q

What do skeletal muscle contractions help maintain?

A

Body positions, such as standing or sitting.

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46
Q

What type of muscles contract continuously when you are awake?

A

Postural muscles.

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47
Q

What is an example of sustained contractions of neck muscles?

A

Holding your head upright when you are listening intently to your anatomy and physiology lecture.

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48
Q

How is storage accomplished within the body?

A

By sustained contractions of ringlike bands of smooth muscle called sphincters.

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49
Q

What do sphincters prevent?

A

Outflow of the contents of a hollow organ.

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50
Q

What makes temporary storage of food in the stomach or urine in the urinary bladder possible?

A

Smooth muscle sphincters closing off the outlets of these organs.

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51
Q

What pumps blood through the blood vessels of the body?

A

Cardiac muscle contractions in the wall of the heart.

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52
Q

What helps adjust blood vessel diameter and regulate the rate of blood flow?

A

Contraction and relaxation of smooth muscle in the walls of blood vessels.

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53
Q

What moves food and substances such as bile and enzymes through the digestive canal?

A

Smooth muscle contractions.

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54
Q

What pushes gametes (sperm and oocytes) through the passageways of the genital systems?

A

Smooth muscle contractions.

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55
Q

What propels urine through the urinary system?

A

Smooth muscle contractions.

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56
Q

What promotes the flow of lymph plasma and aids the return of blood in veins to the heart?

A

Skeletal muscle contractions.

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57
Q

What is produced when muscular tissue contracts?

A

Heat.

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58
Q

What is the process of heat production by muscle contractions called?

A

Thermogenesis.

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59
Q

What is much of the heat generated by muscle used for?

A

To maintain normal body temperature.

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60
Q

What are involuntary contractions of skeletal muscles known as?

A

Shivering.

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61
Q

What can increase the rate of heat production?

A

Shivering.

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62
Q

What enables muscular tissue to function and contribute to homeostasis?

A

Four special properties.

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63
Q

What are the four special properties of muscular tissue?

A

Electrical excitability, contractility, extensibility, and elasticity.

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64
Q

What is electrical excitability?

A

The ability to respond to certain stimuli by producing electrical signals called action potentials (impulses).

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65
Q

What are action potentials in muscles referred to as?

A

Muscle action potentials.

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66
Q

What are action potentials in nerve cells called?

A

Nerve action potentials.

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67
Q

What are the two main types of stimuli that trigger action potentials in muscle cells?

A

Autorhythmic electrical signals and chemical stimuli.

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68
Q

What is an example of an autorhythmic electrical signal?

A

The heart’s natural pacemaker.

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69
Q

What are examples of chemical stimuli that trigger action potentials?

A

Neurotransmitters released by neurons, hormones distributed by the blood, or local changes in pH.

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70
Q

What is contractility?

A

The ability of muscular tissue to contract forcefully when stimulated by a nerve impulse.

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71
Q

What does a skeletal muscle generate when it contracts?

A

Tension (force of contraction).

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72
Q

What happens if the tension generated by a skeletal muscle is great enough to overcome the resistance of the object being moved?

A

The muscle shortens and movement occurs.

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73
Q

What is an example of movement caused by muscle contraction?

A

Lifting a book off a desk.

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74
Q

What happens in some muscle contractions where the muscle develops tension but does not shorten?

A

The muscle holds the position without movement.

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75
Q

What is an example of a contraction where the muscle does not shorten?

A

Holding a book in your outstretched upper limb

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76
Q

What is extensibility?

A

The ability of muscular tissue to stretch, within limits, without being damaged.

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77
Q

What limits the range of extensibility and keeps it within the contractile range of the muscle cells?

A

The connective tissue within the muscle.

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78
Q

Which type of muscle is subject to the greatest amount of stretching?

A

Smooth muscle.

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79
Q

What is an example of smooth muscle stretching?

A

The smooth muscle in the wall of the stomach stretching when it fills with food.

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80
Q

When does cardiac muscle stretch?

A

Each time the heart fills with blood.

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81
Q

What is elasticity?

A

The ability of muscular tissue to return to its original length and shape after contraction or extension.

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82
Q

What type of muscle is the focus of much of this chapter?

A

Skeletal muscle.

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83
Q

What is each of your skeletal muscles?

A

A separate organ composed of hundreds to thousands of cells.

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84
Q

What are muscle fibers (myocytes)?

A

Cells of skeletal muscles.

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85
Q

Why are muscle fibers called myocytes?

A

Because of their elongated shapes.

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86
Q

What are two terms for the same structure in skeletal muscle?

A

Muscle cell and muscle fiber.

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87
Q

What does skeletal muscle also contain?

A

Connective tissues surrounding muscle fibers, and blood vessels and nerves.

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88
Q

What must you first understand to learn how contraction of skeletal muscle can generate tension?

A

Its gross and microscopic anatomy.

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89
Q

What surrounds and protects muscular tissue?

A

Connective tissue.

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90
Q

What is another name for subcutaneous tissue?

A

Hypodermis.

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91
Q

What does the subcutaneous tissue or hypodermis separate?

A

Muscle from skin.

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92
Q

What is the subcutaneous tissue composed of?

A

Areolar connective tissue and adipose tissue.

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93
Q

What does the subcutaneous tissue provide a pathway for?

A

Nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels to enter and exit muscles.

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94
Q

What does the adipose tissue of the subcutaneous tissue store?

A

Most of the body’s triglycerides.

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95
Q

What does the adipose tissue serve as?

A

An insulating layer that reduces heat loss.

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96
Q

What does the adipose tissue protect muscles from?

A

Physical trauma.

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97
Q

What is fascia?

A

A dense sheet or broad band of irregular connective tissue.

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98
Q

What does fascia line?

A

The body wall and limbs.

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99
Q

What does fascia support and surround?

A

Muscles and other organs of the body.

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100
Q

What does fascia hold together?

A

Muscles with similar functions.

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101
Q

What does fascia allow?

A

Free movement of muscles.

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102
Q

What does fascia carry?

A

Nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels.

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103
Q

What does fascia fill?

A

Spaces between muscles.

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104
Q

How many layers of connective tissue extend from the fascia to protect and strengthen skeletal muscle?

A

Three.

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105
Q

What is the epimysium?

A

The outer layer, encircling the entire muscle.

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106
Q

What type of connective tissue does the epimysium consist of?

A

Dense irregular connective tissue.

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107
Q

What is the perimysium?

A

A layer of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds groups of 10 to 100 or more muscle fibers.

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108
Q

What does the perimysium separate muscle fibers into?

A

Bundles called muscle fascicles.

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109
Q

What is another name for muscle fascicles?

A

Muscle fasciculi.

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110
Q

What gives a cut of meat its characteristic “grain”?

A

Muscle fascicles.

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111
Q

What happens when a piece of meat is torn?

A

It rips apart along the muscle fascicles.

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112
Q

What is the endomysium?

A

A layer that penetrates the interior of each muscle fascicle and separates individual muscle fibers from one another.

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113
Q

What is the endomysium mostly composed of?

A

Reticular fibers.

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114
Q

What are the epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium continuous with?

A

The connective tissue that attaches skeletal muscle to other structures, such as bone or another muscle.

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115
Q

What do all three connective tissue layers extend beyond the muscle fibers to form?

A

A ropelike tendon.

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116
Q

What does a ropelike tendon attach?

A

A muscle to the periosteum of a bone.

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117
Q

What is an example of a ropelike tendon?

A

The calcaneal (Achilles) tendon of the gastrocnemius (calf) muscle.

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118
Q

What does the calcaneal (Achilles) tendon attach?

A

The gastrocnemius (calf) muscle to the calcaneus (heel bone).

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119
Q

What is an aponeurosis?

A

A broad, flat sheet of connective tissue.

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120
Q

What is an example of an aponeurosis?

A

The epicranial aponeurosis on top of the skull.

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121
Q

Where is the epicranial aponeurosis located?

A

Between the frontal and occipital bellies of the occipitofrontalis muscle.

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122
Q

It consists of individual muscle fibers bundled into muscle fascicles and surrounded by three connective tissue layers that are extensions of the fascia

A

Skeletal muscle

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123
Q

What are the 4 functions of Muscular Tissues

A
  1. Producing motions. 2. Stabilizing body positions. 3. Storing and moving substances within the body. 4. Generating heat (thermogenesis).
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124
Q

A chronic, painful, nonarticular rheumatic disorder that affects the fibrous connective tissue components of muscles, tendons, and ligaments.

A

Fibromyalgia

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125
Q

What does the term “algia” mean in fibromyalgia?

A

Painful condition.

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126
Q

What is a striking sign of fibromyalgia?

A

Pain that results from gentle pressure at specific “tender points”.

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127
Q

What symptoms are present in fibromyalgia even without pressure?

A

Pain, tenderness, and stiffness of muscles, tendons, and surrounding soft tissues.

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128
Q

Besides muscle pain, what other symptoms do those with fibromyalgia report?

A

Severe fatigue, poor sleep, headaches, depression, irritable bowel syndrome, and inability to carry out their daily activities.

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129
Q

Is there a specific identifiable cause of fibromyalgia?

A

No.

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130
Q

What does the treatment for fibromyalgia consist of?

A

Stress reduction, regular exercise, application of heat, gentle massage, physical therapy, medication for pain, and a low dose antidepressant to help improve sleep.

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131
Q

What are skeletal muscles well supplied with?

A

Nerves and blood vessels.

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132
Q

What generally accompanies each nerve that penetrates a skeletal muscle?

A

An artery and one or two veins.

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133
Q

What are the neurons that stimulate skeletal muscle to contract?

A

Somatic motor neurons.

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134
Q

What does each somatic motor neuron have?

A

A threadlike axon that extends from the brain or spinal cord to a group of skeletal muscle fibers.

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135
Q

What does the axon of a somatic motor neuron typically do?

A

It branches many times, each branch extending to a different skeletal muscle fiber.

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136
Q

What are the microscopic blood vessels that are plentiful in muscular tissue?

A

Blood capillaries.

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137
Q

What is each muscle fiber in close contact with?

A

One or more blood capillaries.

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138
Q

What do blood capillaries bring in?

A

Oxygen and nutrients.

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139
Q

What do blood capillaries remove?

A

Heat and the waste products of muscle metabolism.

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140
Q

What does a muscle fiber synthesize and use especially during contraction?

A

Considerable ATP (adenosine triphosphate).

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141
Q

What substances are delivered to the muscle fiber in the blood for ATP production?

A

Oxygen, glucose, fatty acids, and other substances.

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142
Q

What are the most important components of a skeletal muscle?

A

Muscle fibers.

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143
Q

What is the diameter of a mature skeletal muscle fiber?

A

10 to 100 µm.

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144
Q

What is the typical length of a mature skeletal muscle fiber?

A

About 10 cm (4 in.).

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145
Q

How long can some mature skeletal muscle fibers be?

A

As long as 30 cm (12 in.).

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146
Q

What do skeletal muscle fibers arise from during embryonic development?

A

The fusion of a hundred or more small mesodermal cells called myoblasts.

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147
Q

How many nuclei does each mature skeletal muscle fiber have?

A

A hundred or more.

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148
Q

What happens once fusion of myoblasts has occurred?

A

The muscle fiber loses its ability to undergo cell division.

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149
Q

When is the number of skeletal muscle fibers set?

A

Before you are born.

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150
Q

How long do most skeletal muscle fibers last?

A

A lifetime.

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151
Q

Where are the multiple nuclei of a skeletal muscle fiber located?

A

Just beneath the sarcolemma.

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152
Q

What is the sarcolemma?

A

The plasma membrane of a muscle fiber.

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153
Q

What are the tiny tube-shaped invaginations of the sarcolemma called?

A

T tubules (transverse tubules).

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154
Q

Where do T tubules tunnel from and to?

A

From the surface toward the center of each muscle fiber.

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155
Q

Why are T tubules filled with interstitial fluid?

A

Because they are open to the outside of the fiber.

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156
Q

How do muscle action potentials travel?

A

Along the sarcolemma and through the T tubules.

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157
Q

What does the arrangement of the T tubules ensure?

A

That an action potential excites all parts of the muscle fiber at essentially the same instant.

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158
Q

What is found within the sarcolemma?

A

The sarcoplasm.

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159
Q

What is the sarcoplasm?

A

The cytoplasm of a muscle fiber.

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160
Q

What does sarcoplasm include a substantial amount of?

A

Glycogen.

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161
Q

What is glycogen composed of?

A

Many glucose molecules.

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162
Q

What can glycogen be used for?

A

Synthesis of ATP.

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163
Q

What red-colored protein does the sarcoplasm contain?

A

Myoglobin.

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164
Q

Where is myoglobin found?

A

Only in muscle.

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165
Q

What does myoglobin bind to?

A

Oxygen molecules that diffuse into muscle fibers from interstitial fluid.

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166
Q

When does myoglobin release oxygen?

A

When it is needed by the mitochondria for ATP production.

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167
Q

Where do mitochondria lie in a muscle fiber?

A

In rows throughout the muscle fiber.

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168
Q

Why are mitochondria strategically close to contractile muscle proteins?

A

So that ATP can be produced quickly as needed during contraction.

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169
Q

What are the contractile elements of muscle fibers?

A

Myofibrils.

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170
Q

What do myofibrils contain?

A

Overlapping thick and thin filaments.

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171
Q

How does muscle growth occur after birth?

A

By enlargement of existing muscle fibers, called muscular hypertrophy.

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172
Q

What is muscular hypertrophy due to?

A

Increased production of myofibrils, mitochondria, sarcoplasmic reticulum, and other organelles.

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173
Q

What causes muscular hypertrophy?

A

Very forceful, repetitive muscular activity, such as strength training.

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174
Q

Why are hypertrophied muscles capable of more forceful contractions?

A

Because they contain more myofibrils.

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175
Q

What stimulates an increase in the size of skeletal muscle fibers during childhood?

A

Growth hormone and other hormones.

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176
Q

What hormone promotes further enlargement of muscle fibers?

A

Testosterone.

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177
Q

What are the few myoblasts that persist in mature skeletal muscle called?

A

Satellite cells.

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178
Q

What is the function of satellite cells?

A

They retain the capacity to fuse with one another or with damaged muscle fibers to regenerate functional muscle fibers.

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179
Q

What happens if the number of new skeletal muscle fibers formed by satellite cells is not enough?

A

The muscular tissue undergoes fibrosis, replacing muscle fibers with fibrous scar tissue.

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180
Q

What is muscular atrophy?

A

A decrease in the size of individual muscle fibers due to progressive loss of myofibrils.

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181
Q

What is disuse atrophy?

A

Atrophy that occurs because muscles are not used.

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182
Q

What causes disuse atrophy?

A

Reduced nerve impulses to inactive skeletal muscles.

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183
Q

Can disuse atrophy be reversed?

A

Yes, it is reversible.

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184
Q

What is denervation atrophy?

A

Atrophy that occurs when the nerve supply to a muscle is disrupted or cut.

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185
Q

What happens to the muscle in denervation atrophy?

A

Over 6 months to 2 years, the muscle shrinks to about one fourth its original size, and its fibers are irreversibly replaced by fibrous connective tissue

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186
Q

What does the sarcoplasm appear to be stuffed with at high magnification?

A

Little threads.

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187
Q

What are the small structures in the sarcoplasm called?

A

Myofibrils.

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188
Q

What are myofibrils?

A

The contractile organelles of skeletal muscle.

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189
Q

How large are myofibrils?

A

About 2 µm in diameter and extend the entire length of a muscle fiber.

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190
Q

What makes skeletal muscle fibers appear striped (striated)?

A

The prominent striations of myofibrils.

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191
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)?

A

A fluid-filled system of membranous sacs that encircles each myofibril.

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192
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum similar to in nonmuscular cells?

A

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

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193
Q

What are the dilated end sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum called?

A

Terminal cisterns.

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194
Q

What do terminal cisterns do?

A

They butt against the T tubule from both sides.

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195
Q

What is a triad?

A

A T tubule and the two terminal cisterns on either side of it.

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196
Q

What does the sarcoplasmic reticulum store in a relaxed muscle fiber?

A

Calcium ions (Ca²⁺).

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197
Q

What triggers muscle contraction?

A

The release of Ca²⁺ from the terminal cisterns of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

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198
Q

What are the smaller protein structures within myofibrils called?

A

Filaments or myofilaments.

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199
Q

How large are thin filaments?

A

8 nm in diameter and 1–2 µm long.

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200
Q

What protein are thin filaments composed of?

A

Actin.

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201
Q

How large are thick filaments?

A

16 nm in diameter and 1–2 µm long.

202
Q

What protein are thick filaments composed of?

203
Q

What filaments are directly involved in the contractile process?

A

Both thin and thick filaments.

204
Q

What is the ratio of thin to thick filaments in the regions of filament overlap?

A

Two thin filaments for every thick filament.

205
Q

Do the filaments inside a myofibril extend the entire length of a muscle fiber?

206
Q

What are the compartments that filaments are arranged in called?

A

Sarcomeres.

207
Q

What are sarcomeres?

A

The basic functional units of a myofibril.

208
Q

What separates one sarcomere from the next?

209
Q

How far does a sarcomere extend?

A

From one Z disc to the next Z disc.

210
Q

What is the A band?

A

The darker middle part of the sarcomere that extends the entire length of the thick filaments.

211
Q

What is the zone of overlap in the A band?

A

The area where thick and thin filaments lie side by side.

212
Q

What is the I band?

A

A lighter, less dense area that contains thin filaments but no thick filaments.

213
Q

What passes through the center of each I band?

214
Q

What creates the striations seen in myofibrils and muscle fibers?

A

The alternating dark A bands and light I bands.

215
Q

What is the H band?

A

A narrow band in the center of each A band that contains thick filaments but no thin filaments.

216
Q

What does the letter I in the I band represent?

A

Thin filaments.

217
Q

What does the letter H in the H band represent?

A

Thick filaments.

218
Q

What holds the thick filaments together at the center of the H band?

A

Supporting proteins.

219
Q

What is the M line?

A

The middle of the sarcomere, where the supporting proteins hold the thick filaments together.

220
Q

contain two types of filaments: thick filaments and thin filaments.

A

Myofibrils

221
Q

Narrow, plate shaped regions of dense material that separate one sarcomere from the next.

222
Q

Dark, middle part of sarcomere that extends entire length of thick filaments and includes those parts of thin filaments that overlap thick filaments.

223
Q

Lighter, less dense area of sarcomere that contains remainder of thin filaments but no thick filaments. A Z disc passes through center of each I band.

224
Q

Narrow region in center of each A band that contains thick filaments but no thin filaments

225
Q

Region in center of H zone that contains proteins that hold thick filaments together at center of sarcomere.

226
Q

What are the three kinds of proteins that myofibrils are built from?

A

Contractile proteins, regulatory proteins, and structural proteins.

227
Q

What is the function of contractile proteins?

A

Generate force during contraction.

228
Q

What is the function of regulatory proteins?

A

Help switch the contraction process on and off.

229
Q

What is the function of structural proteins?

A

Keep the thick and thin filaments in the proper alignment, give the myofibril elasticity and extensibility, and link the myofibrils to the sarcolemma and extracellular matrix.

230
Q

What are the two contractile proteins in muscle?

A

Myosin and actin.

231
Q

What is the main component of thick filaments?

232
Q

What is the function of myosin?

A

Functions as a motor protein in all three types of muscle tissue.

233
Q

What do motor proteins do?

A

Pull cellular structures to achieve movement by converting the chemical energy in ATP to mechanical energy.

234
Q

How many myosin molecules form a single thick filament?

A

About 300.

235
Q

What is the shape of a myosin molecule?

A

Two golf clubs twisted together.

236
Q

What does the myosin tail point toward?

A

The M line in the center of the sarcomere.

237
Q

What are the myosin heads?

A

The two projections of each myosin molecule.

238
Q

What are the two binding sites on each myosin head?

A

An actin-binding site and an ATP-binding site.

239
Q

What is the function of the ATP-binding site on myosin?

A

Functions as an ATPase, an enzyme that hydrolyzes ATP to generate energy for muscle contraction.

240
Q

How do the myosin heads project outward?

A

In a spiraling fashion, each extending toward one of the six thin filaments surrounding each thick filament.

241
Q

What is the main component of thin filaments?

242
Q

How is an actin filament formed?

A

By individual actin molecules twisted into a helix.

243
Q

What is located on each actin molecule?

A

A myosin-binding site.

244
Q

What are the two regulatory proteins in the thin filament?

A

Tropomyosin and troponin.

245
Q

What prevents myosin from binding to actin in relaxed muscle?

A

Tropomyosin covers the myosin-binding sites on actin.

246
Q

What holds tropomyosin in place?

A

Troponin molecules.

247
Q

What happens when calcium ions (Ca2+) bind to troponin?

A

Troponin undergoes a conformational change, moving tropomyosin away from myosin-binding sites on actin, allowing muscle contraction to begin.

248
Q

What do structural proteins contribute to?

A

Alignment, stability, elasticity, and extensibility of myofibrils.

249
Q

What are some key structural proteins?

A

Titin, α-actinin, myomesin, nebulin, and dystrophin.

250
Q

What is the third most plentiful protein in skeletal muscle?

251
Q

What is the molecular mass of titin?

A

About 3 million daltons.

252
Q

How far does a titin molecule span?

A

Half a sarcomere, from a Z disc to an M line.

253
Q

What does titin help with?

A

Stabilizing the position of the thick filament and providing elasticity and extensibility.

254
Q

What does titin help prevent?

A

Overextension of sarcomeres.

255
Q

What does α-actinin do?

A

Binds to actin molecules of the thin filament and to titin.

256
Q

What is the function of myomesin?

A

Forms the M line and holds the thick filaments in alignment at the M line.

257
Q

What is the function of nebulin?

A

Anchors the thin filaments to the Z discs and regulates their length during development.

258
Q

What is the function of dystrophin?

A

Links thin filaments to integral membrane proteins of the sarcolemma.

259
Q

What does dystrophin help with?

A

Reinforcing the sarcolemma and transmitting tension from sarcomeres to tendons.

260
Q

What are the two contractile proteins?

A

Myosin and actin.

261
Q

What is the function of contractile proteins?

A

Generate force during contraction.

262
Q

What are the two regulatory proteins?

A

Troponin and tropomyosin.

263
Q

What is the function of regulatory proteins?

A

Help switch contraction on and off.

264
Q

Proteins that generate force during muscle contractions

A

Contractile Proteins

265
Q

Contractile protein that makes up thick filament; molecule consists of a tail and two myosin heads, which bind to myosin binding sites on actin molecules of thin filament during muscle contraction.

266
Q

Contractile protein that is the main component of thin filament; each actin molecule has a myosin binding site where myosin head of thick filament binds during muscle contraction.

267
Q

Proteins that help switch muscle contraction process on and off

A

Regulatory proteins

268
Q

Regulatory protein that is a component of thin filament; when skeletal muscle fiber is relaxed, tropomyosin covers myosin binding sites on actin molecules, thereby preventing myosin from binding to actin.

A

Tropomyosin

269
Q

Regulatory protein that is a component of thin filament; when calcium ions (Ca2+) bind to troponin, it changes shape; this conformational change moves tropomyosin away from myosin binding sites on actin molecules, and muscle contraction subsequently begins as myosin binds to actin.

270
Q

Proteins that keep thick and thin filaments of myofibrils in proper alignment, give myofibrils elasticity and extensibility, and link myofibrils to sarcolemma and extracellular matrix.

A

Structural proteins

271
Q

Structural protein that connects Z disc to M line of sarcomere, thereby helping to stabilize thick filament position; can stretch and then spring back unharmed, and thus accounts for much of the elasticity and extensibility of myofibrils.

272
Q

Structural protein of Z discs that attaches to actin molecules of thin filaments and to titin molecule

273
Q

Structural protein that forms M line of sarcomere; binds to titin molecules and connects adjacent thick filaments to one another

274
Q

Structural protein that wraps around entire length of each thin filament; helps anchor thin filaments to Z discs and regulates length of thin filaments during development

275
Q

Structural protein that links thin filaments of sarcomere to integral membrane proteins in sarcolemma, which are attached in turn to proteins in connective tissue matrix that surrounds muscle fibers; thought to help reinforce sarcolemma and help transmit tension generated by sarcomeres to tendons

276
Q

Organ made up of muscle fascicles that contain muscle fibers, blood vessels, and nerves; wrapped in epimysium.

A

Skeletal muscle

277
Q

Bundle of muscle fibers wrapped in perimysium.

A

Muscle fascicle

278
Q

Long cylindrical cell covered by endomysium and sarcolemma; contains sarcoplasm, myofibrils, many peripherally located nuclei, mitochondria, T tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum, and terminal cisterns. The muscle fiber has a striated appearance.

A

Muscle fiber

279
Q

Threadlike contractile elements within sarcoplasm of muscle fiber that extend entire length of fiber; composed of filaments.

280
Q

Contractile proteins within myofibrils that are of two types: thick filaments composed of myosin and thin filaments composed of actin, tropomyosin, and troponin; sliding of thin filaments past thick filaments produces muscle shortening.

A

Filaments (myofilaments)

281
Q

What did scientists discover when examining the first electron micrographs of skeletal muscle?

A

The lengths of the thick and thin filaments were the same in both relaxed and contracted muscle.

282
Q

What was originally thought about muscle contraction?

A

It was thought to be a folding process, like closing an accordion.

283
Q

Why does skeletal muscle shorten during contraction?

A

Because the thick and thin filaments slide past one another.

284
Q

What is the model describing this process called?

A

The sliding filament mechanism.

285
Q

Why does muscle contraction occur?

A

Because myosin heads attach to and “walk” along the thin filaments at both ends of a sarcomere, progressively pulling the thin filaments toward the M line.

286
Q

What happens as a result of the thin filaments sliding inward?

A

The thin filaments meet at the center of a sarcomere and may even overlap.

287
Q

What bands or zones narrow and eventually disappear when the muscle is maximally contracted?

A

The I band and H zone.

288
Q

Which band remains unchanged during contraction?

A

The width of the A band.

289
Q

Do the individual lengths of the thick and thin filaments change during contraction?

A

No, the individual lengths of the thick and thin filaments remain unchanged.

290
Q

What happens to the Z discs when the thin filaments slide inward?

A

The Z discs come closer together.

291
Q

What causes the shortening of the whole muscle fiber?

A

The shortening of the sarcomeres.

292
Q

What does the shortening of the whole muscle fiber lead to?

A

The shortening of the entire muscle

293
Q

During __, thin filaments move toward the M line of each sarcomere.

A

muscle contractions

294
Q

At the onset of contraction, what does the sarcoplasmic reticulum release into the sarcoplasm?

A

Calcium ions (Ca2+)

295
Q

What do the calcium ions (Ca2+) bind to?

296
Q

What does troponin move away from the myosin binding sites on actin?

A

Tropomyosin

297
Q

When the binding sites are “free,” what begins?

A

The contraction cycle

298
Q

What is the contraction cycle?

A

The repeating sequence of events that causes the filaments to slide

299
Q

How many steps does the contraction cycle consist of?

300
Q

What is the first step of the contraction cycle?

A

ATP hydrolysis

301
Q

What does a myosin head include that functions as an ATPase?

A

An ATP binding site

302
Q

What does ATPase do?

A

Hydrolyzes ATP into ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and a phosphate group

303
Q

What happens to the energy generated from ATP hydrolysis?

A

It is stored in the myosin head for later use during the contraction cycle

304
Q

When is the myosin head said to be energized?

A

When it contains stored energy

305
Q

What position does the energized myosin head assume?

A

A “cocked” position, like a stretched spring

306
Q

At what angle is the myosin head positioned relative to the thick and thin filaments?

307
Q

What remains attached to the myosin head after ATP hydrolysis?

A

ADP and a phosphate group

308
Q

What is the second step of the contraction cycle?

A

Attachment of myosin to actin

309
Q

What does the energized myosin head attach to?

A

The myosin binding site on actin

310
Q

What is released when the myosin head attaches to actin?

A

The previously hydrolyzed phosphate group

311
Q

What is the myosin head referred to as when it attaches to actin?

A

A cross-bridge

312
Q

How many heads of a single myosin molecule bind to actin at a time?

A

Only one head

313
Q

What is the third step of the contraction cycle?

A

Power stroke

314
Q

After a cross-bridge forms, what happens to the myosin head?

A

It pivots, changing its position from a 90° angle to a 45° angle

315
Q

What does the myosin head pull during the power stroke?

A

The thin filament past the thick filament toward the center of the sarcomere

316
Q

What is generated during the power stroke?

A

Tension (force)

317
Q

Where does the energy for the power stroke come from?

A

The energy stored in the myosin head from the hydrolysis of ATP

318
Q

What is released from the myosin head after the power stroke?

319
Q

What is the fourth step of the contraction cycle?

A

Detachment of myosin from actin

320
Q

When does the cross-bridge remain firmly attached to actin?

A

Until it binds another molecule of ATP

321
Q

What happens when ATP binds to the ATP binding site on the myosin head?

A

The myosin head detaches from actin

322
Q

What enzyme hydrolyzes the newly bound ATP molecule?

A

Myosin ATPase

323
Q

How long does the contraction cycle continue?

A

As long as ATP is available and the Ca2+ level near the thin filament is sufficiently high

324
Q

What do the cross-bridges keep doing with each power stroke?

A

Rotating back and forth, pulling the thin filaments toward the M line

325
Q

How many times per second does each of the 600 cross-bridges in one thick filament attach and detach?

A

About five times per second

326
Q

What happens at any one instant during contraction?

A

Some myosin heads are attached to actin, forming cross-bridges and generating force, while others are detached, getting ready to bind again

327
Q

What does the movement of cross-bridges apply as the contraction cycle continues?

A

The force that draws the Z discs toward each other

328
Q

What happens to the sarcomere as the Z discs move closer together?

A

The sarcomere shortens

329
Q

During a maximal muscle contraction, by how much can the distance between two Z discs decrease?

A

To half the resting length

330
Q

What do the Z discs pull on as they shorten?

A

Neighboring sarcomeres

331
Q

What happens when neighboring sarcomeres shorten?

A

The whole muscle fiber shortens

332
Q

What are some of the elastic components in a muscle?

A

Titin molecules, connective tissue around the muscle fibers (endomysium, perimysium, and epimysium), and tendons that attach muscle to bone

333
Q

What do skeletal muscle fibers first pull on as they shorten?

A

Their connective tissue coverings and tendons

334
Q

What happens to the connective tissue coverings and tendons during muscle contraction?

A

They stretch and then become taut

335
Q

What does the tension passed through the tendons do?

A

Pulls on the bones to which they are attached

336
Q

What is the result of the tension pulling on the bones?

A

Movement of a part of the body

337
Q

Does the contraction cycle always result in shortening of the muscle fibers and the whole muscle?

338
Q

What happens in some contractions when the cross-bridges rotate and generate tension?

A

The thin filaments cannot slide inward because the tension generated is not large enough to move the load on the muscle

339
Q

What is an example of a contraction where the thin filaments cannot slide inward?

A

Trying to lift a whole box of books with one hand

340
Q

During the power stroke of contraction, what do cross-bridges do?

A

Rotate and move the thin filaments past the thick filaments toward the center of the sarcomere

341
Q

What starts muscle contraction?

A

An increase in Ca2+ concentration in the sarcoplasm

342
Q

What stops muscle contraction?

A

A decrease in Ca2+ concentration in the sarcoplasm

343
Q

What is the concentration of Ca2+ in the sarcoplasm when a muscle fiber is relaxed?

A

0.1 micromole per liter (0.1 µmol/L)

344
Q

Where is a huge amount of Ca2+ stored?

A

Inside the sarcoplasmic reticulum

345
Q

What happens when a muscle action potential propagates along the sarcolemma and into the T tubules?

A

It causes the release of Ca2+ from the SR into the sarcoplasm and this triggers muscle contraction.

346
Q

What is the sequence of events that links excitation to contraction called?

A

Excitation–contraction coupling

347
Q

Where does excitation–contraction coupling occur?

A

At the triads of the skeletal muscle fiber

348
Q

What does a triad consist of?

A

A T tubule and two opposing terminal cisterns of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)

349
Q

What are the two groups of integral membrane proteins that link the T tubule and terminal cisterns?

A

Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels and Ca2+ release channels

350
Q

Where are voltage-gated Ca2+ channels located?

A

In the T tubule membrane

351
Q

How are voltage-gated Ca2+ channels arranged?

A

In clusters of four known as tetrads

352
Q

What is the main role of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in excitation–contraction coupling?

A

To serve as voltage sensors that trigger the opening of the Ca2+ release channels

353
Q

Where are Ca2+ release channels located?

A

In the terminal cisternal membrane of the SR

354
Q

What prevents Ca2+ from leaving the SR when a skeletal muscle fiber is at rest?

A

A given cluster of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels blocking the Ca2+ release channels

355
Q

What happens when an action potential travels along the T tubule?

A

The voltage-gated Ca2+ channels detect the change in voltage and undergo a conformational change that ultimately causes the Ca2+ release channels to open.

356
Q

What happens when Ca2+ release channels open?

A

Large amounts of Ca2+ flow out of the SR into the sarcoplasm around the thick and thin filaments.

357
Q

By how much does the Ca2+ concentration in the sarcoplasm increase when Ca2+ release channels open?

A

Tenfold or more

358
Q

What does released Ca2+ combine with?

359
Q

What happens when troponin undergoes a conformational change?

A

Tropomyosin moves away from the myosin binding sites on actin.

360
Q

What happens when myosin binding sites on actin are free?

A

Myosin heads bind to them to form cross bridges, and the muscle fiber contracts.

361
Q

What do Ca2+-ATPase pumps do?

A

Use ATP to constantly transport Ca2+ from the sarcoplasm into the SR

362
Q

When do Ca2+ release channels remain open?

A

As long as muscle action potentials continue to propagate along the T tubules

363
Q

What happens after the last action potential has propagated throughout the T tubules?

A

The Ca2+ release channels close.

364
Q

What happens to Ca2+ as Ca2+-ATPase pumps move it back into the SR?

A

The Ca2+ level in the sarcoplasm rapidly decreases.

365
Q

What protein binds to Ca2+ inside the SR?

A

Calsequestrin

366
Q

What does calsequestrin allow the SR to do?

A

Sequester (store) even more Ca2+

367
Q

How much higher is the concentration of Ca2+ in the SR compared to the sarcoplasm in a relaxed muscle fiber?

A

10,000 times higher

368
Q

What happens when the Ca2+ level in the sarcoplasm decreases?

A

Ca2+ is released from troponin, tropomyosin covers the myosin binding sites on actin, and the muscle fiber relaxes.

369
Q

What is electrodiagnostic medicine concerned with?

A

The diagnosis of neuromuscular disorders

370
Q

What are the two tests that are components of electrodiagnostic medicine?

A

Nerve conduction velocity studies and muscle response studies

371
Q

What do nerve conduction velocity (NCV) tests measure?

A

The speed of nerve impulses conducted through nerves outside the brain and spinal cord

372
Q

What is an example of nerves that NCV tests examine?

A

Nerves of your limbs

373
Q

How are NCV studies performed?

A

By stimulating a nerve with an electrical impulse applied to the skin and recording the response from a muscle or another portion of a nerve through patches placed on the skin

374
Q

What conditions are diagnosed using NCV tests?

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome, herniated discs, and sciatica

375
Q

What test is performed after a nerve conduction velocity test?

A

Electromyography (EMG)

376
Q

What serves as a recording device in an EMG test?

A

A very thin needle

377
Q

Where is the recording needle placed in an EMG test?

A

Through the skin into a muscle

378
Q

What is the needle in an EMG connected to?

A

The screen of a device (an oscilloscope)

379
Q

What does resting muscle produce in an EMG?

A

No electrical activity

380
Q

What happens to electrical activity as muscle contraction becomes more forceful?

A

The level of electrical activity increases

381
Q

What does the client do once the needle is in place during an EMG?

A

Contract a muscle

382
Q

How is muscle activity recorded in an EMG?

A

On the screen and may also be detected audibly with a speaker

383
Q

What disorders are diagnosed using EMG?

A

Muscular dystrophy, myasthenia gravis, and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

384
Q

An increase in the Ca2+ level in the sarcoplasm starts the ___. When the level of Ca2+ in the sarcoplasm declines, sliding stops.

A

sliding of thin filaments

385
Q

What does the length–tension relationship for skeletal muscle indicate?

A

How the forcefulness of muscle contraction depends on the length of the sarcomeres within a muscle before contraction begins

386
Q

At what sarcomere length is the zone of overlap optimal for maximum tension?

A

2.0–2.4 µm

387
Q

What is the resting length of sarcomeres in most muscles?

A

Very close to 2.0–2.4 µm

388
Q

When does maximum tension (100%) occur?

A

When the zone of overlap between a thick and thin filament extends from the edge of the H zone to one end of a thick filament

389
Q

What happens when sarcomeres are stretched to a longer length?

A

The zone of overlap shortens, and fewer myosin heads can make contact with thin filaments

390
Q

What happens to tension as sarcomere length increases?

A

The tension the fiber can produce decreases

391
Q

What happens when a skeletal muscle fiber is stretched to 170% of its optimal length?

A

There is no overlap between the thick and thin filaments

392
Q

Why is tension zero at 170% of the optimal sarcomere length?

A

Because none of the myosin heads can bind to thin filaments, the muscle fiber cannot contract

393
Q

What happens when sarcomere lengths become shorter than the optimum?

A

The tension that can develop decreases

394
Q

Why does tension decrease when sarcomeres are shorter than the optimum?

A

Because thick filaments crumple as they are compressed by the Z discs, resulting in fewer myosin heads making contact with thin filaments

395
Q

How is resting muscle fiber length maintained near the optimum?

A

By firm attachments of skeletal muscle to bones (via their tendons) and to other inelastic tissues

396
Q

What happens to cellular membranes after death?

A

They become leaky

397
Q

What leaks out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm after death?

A

Calcium ions

398
Q

What do calcium ions allow myosin heads to do after death?

A

Bind to actin

399
Q

Why can’t the cross bridges detach from actin after death?

A

Because ATP synthesis ceases shortly after breathing stops

400
Q

What is the condition in which muscles remain rigid after death?

A

Rigor mortis

401
Q

When does rigor mortis begin?

A

3–4 hours after death

402
Q

How long does rigor mortis last?

A

About 24 hours

403
Q

Why does rigor mortis disappear?

A

Because proteolytic enzymes from lysosomes digest the cross bridges

404
Q

develops its greatest tension when there is an optimal zone of overlap between thick and thin filaments.

A

Muscle fiber

405
Q

What are the neurons that stimulate skeletal muscle fibers to contract called?

A

Somatic motor neurons

406
Q

What does each somatic motor neuron have that extends from the brain or spinal cord to a group of skeletal muscle fibers?

A

A threadlike axon

407
Q

In response to what does a muscle fiber contract?

A

One or more action potentials propagating along its sarcolemma and through its system of T tubules

408
Q

Where do muscle action potentials arise?

A

At the neuromuscular junction (NMJ) or neuromuscular synapse (NMS)

409
Q

What is a synapse?

A

A region where communication occurs between two neurons, or between a neuron and a target cell

410
Q

What is the small gap that separates two cells at most synapses called?

A

Synaptic cleft

411
Q

Why can’t an action potential “jump the gap” from one cell to another?

A

Because the cells do not physically touch

412
Q

How does the first cell communicate with the second cell at a synapse?

A

By releasing a chemical messenger called a neurotransmitter

413
Q

What is the end of the motor neuron called?

A

Axon terminal

414
Q

What do the axon terminal divide into at the NMJ?

A

A cluster of synaptic end bulbs

415
Q

What are the membrane-enclosed sacs inside the synaptic end bulbs called?

A

Synaptic vesicles

416
Q

What neurotransmitter is found inside each synaptic vesicle?

A

Acetylcholine (ACh)

417
Q

What is the region of the sarcolemma opposite the synaptic end bulbs called?

A

Motor end plate

418
Q

How many acetylcholine receptors are found in each motor end plate?

A

30 million to 40 million

419
Q

What type of ion channels are ACh receptors?

A

Ligand-gated ion channels

420
Q

What are the components of an NMJ?

A

All of the synaptic end bulbs, the synaptic cleft, and the motor end plate

421
Q

What is the first step in eliciting a muscle action potential?

A

Release of acetylcholine

422
Q

What stimulates voltage-gated channels to open at the synaptic end bulbs?

A

Arrival of the nerve impulse

423
Q

Why does Ca2+ flow inward through the open voltage-gated channels?

A

Because calcium ions are more concentrated in the extracellular fluid

424
Q

What process do synaptic vesicles undergo to release ACh into the synaptic cleft?

A

Exocytosis

425
Q

What happens after ACh diffuses across the synaptic cleft?

A

Activation of ACh receptors

426
Q

How many ACh molecules must bind to the receptor on the motor end plate to open an ion channel?

427
Q

What happens when the ion channel in the ACh receptor opens?

A

Small cations, most importantly Na+, flow across the membrane

428
Q

What does the inflow of Na+ into the muscle fiber cause?

A

Production of muscle action potential

429
Q

What does the production of a muscle action potential cause?

A

The sarcoplasmic reticulum to release stored Ca2+ into the sarcoplasm

430
Q

What enzyme rapidly breaks down ACh?

A

Acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

431
Q

Where is AChE located?

A

On the extracellular side of the motor end plate membrane

432
Q

What are the breakdown products of ACh by AChE?

A

Acetyl and choline

433
Q

When do action potentials in the motor neuron cease?

A

When ACh is no longer released and AChE breaks down the ACh already present

434
Q

What happens after the last muscle action potential is produced?

A

Ca2+ moves from the sarcoplasm back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

435
Q

How many NMJs does a skeletal muscle fiber have?

436
Q

Where is the NMJ usually located on a skeletal muscle fiber?

A

Near the midpoint of the fiber

437
Q

What does this location of the NMJ allow?

A

Nearly simultaneous activation of all parts of the muscle fiber

438
Q

What bacterial toxin blocks exocytosis of synaptic vesicles at the NMJ?

A

Botulinum toxin

439
Q

What bacterium produces botulinum toxin?

A

Clostridium botulinum

440
Q

What happens when botulinum toxin blocks ACh release?

A

Muscle contraction does not occur

441
Q

Why can botulinum toxin be lethal?

A

It paralyzes skeletal muscles, including respiratory muscles, stopping breathing

442
Q

What is Botox® used for?

A

To treat strabismus, blepharospasm, vocal cord spasms, chronic back pain, and facial wrinkles

443
Q

What plant derivative causes muscle paralysis by blocking ACh receptors?

444
Q

What is curare used for in medicine?

A

To relax skeletal muscles during surgery

445
Q

What family of chemicals slows the enzymatic activity of AChE?

A

Anticholinesterase agents

446
Q

What effect do anticholinesterase agents have?

A

They slow the removal of ACh from the synaptic cleft, strengthening weak muscle contractions

447
Q

What is an example of an anticholinesterase agent?

A

Neostigmine

448
Q

What condition is neostigmine used to treat?

A

Myasthenia gravis

449
Q

What else is neostigmine used for?

A

As an antidote for curare poisoning and to terminate the effects of curare-like drugs after surgery

450
Q

Located at the tips of axon terminals that contain synaptic vesicles filled with acetylcholine (ACh)

A

Synaptic end bulbs

451
Q

released at the neuromuscular junction triggers a muscle action potential, which leads to muscle contraction

A

Acetylcholine

452
Q

Unlike most cells of the body, what do skeletal muscle fibers often switch between?

A

A low level of activity when they are relaxed and using only a modest amount of ATP, and a high level of activity when they are contracting and using ATP at a rapid pace.

453
Q

What is needed in a huge amount to power the contraction cycle, pump Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, and for other metabolic reactions involved in muscle contraction?

454
Q

How long is the ATP present inside muscle fibers enough to power contraction?

A

Only a few seconds

455
Q

If muscle contractions continue past a few seconds, what must the muscle fibers do?

A

Make more ATP

456
Q

What are the three ways muscle fibers produce ATP?

A

(1) From creatine phosphate, (2) by anaerobic glycolysis, and (3) by aerobic respiration

457
Q

What is unique to muscle fibers for ATP production?

A

The use of creatine phosphate

458
Q

What ATP production methods can all body cells use?

A

Anaerobic glycolysis and aerobic respiration

459
Q

What do muscle fibers do while they are relaxed?

A

They produce more ATP than they need for resting metabolism.

460
Q

What is most of the excess ATP used for?

A

It is used to synthesize creatine phosphate, an energy-rich molecule found in muscle fibers.

461
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the transfer of a high-energy phosphate group from ATP to creatine?

A

Creatine kinase (CK) catalyzes the transfer.

462
Q

What is formed when creatine kinase catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to creatine?

A

Creatine phosphate and ADP are formed.

463
Q

What is creatine?

A

Creatine is a small, amino acid–like molecule synthesized in the liver, kidneys, and pancreas and then transported to muscle fibers.

464
Q

How much more plentiful is creatine phosphate than ATP in the sarcoplasm of a relaxed muscle fiber?

A

Creatine phosphate is three to six times more plentiful than ATP.

465
Q

What happens when muscle contraction begins and the ADP level starts to rise?

A

Creatine kinase (CK) catalyzes the transfer of a high-energy phosphate group from creatine phosphate back to ADP.

466
Q

What does this direct phosphorylation reaction quickly generate?

A

It quickly generates new ATP molecules.

467
Q

Why is creatine phosphate the first source of energy when muscle contraction begins?

A

The formation of ATP from creatine phosphate occurs very rapidly.

468
Q

How do anaerobic glycolysis and aerobic respiration compare to creatine phosphate in ATP production?

A

These mechanisms take a longer period of time to produce ATP compared to creatine phosphate.

469
Q

How long can stores of creatine phosphate and ATP provide energy for maximal muscle contraction?

A

They provide enough energy for muscles to contract maximally for about 15 seconds.

470
Q

What are the sources of creatine?

A

Creatine is both synthesized in the body and derived from foods such as milk, red meat, and some fish.

471
Q

How much creatine do adults need to synthesize and ingest daily to make up for urinary loss?

A

Adults need to synthesize and ingest a total of about 2 grams of creatine daily.

472
Q

What is creatinine?

A

Creatinine is the breakdown product of creatine.

473
Q

What type of movements have some studies shown to improve with creatine supplementation?

A

Some studies have demonstrated improved performance from creatine supplementation during explosive movements, such as sprinting.

474
Q

Have all studies found a performance-enhancing effect of creatine supplementation?

A

No, other studies have failed to find a performance-enhancing effect of creatine supplementation.

475
Q

What happens when extra creatine is ingested?

A

Ingesting extra creatine decreases the body’s own synthesis of creatine.

476
Q

Is it known whether natural creatine synthesis recovers after long-term creatine supplementation?

A

No, it is not known whether natural synthesis recovers after long-term creatine supplementation.

477
Q

What are the potential negative effects of creatine supplementation?

A

Creatine supplementation can cause dehydration and may cause kidney dysfunction.

478
Q

What is needed to determine the long-term effects of creatine supplementation?

A

Further research is needed to determine both the long-term safety and the value of creatine supplementation.

479
Q

During a long-term event such as a marathon race, how is most ATP produced?

A

Most ATP is produced aerobically.

480
Q

When muscle activity continues and the supply of creatine phosphate within the muscle fiber is depleted, what is catabolized to generate ATP?

A

Glucose is catabolized to generate ATP.

481
Q

How does glucose pass into contracting muscle fibers?

A

Glucose passes easily from the blood into contracting muscle fibers via facilitated diffusion.

482
Q

How else is glucose produced within muscle fibers?

A

Glucose is also produced by the breakdown of glycogen within muscle fibers.

483
Q

What is the series of reactions that quickly break down each glucose molecule into two molecules of pyruvic acid?

A

The series of reactions is called glycolysis.

484
Q

Where does glycolysis occur, and how many molecules of ATP does it produce?

A

Glycolysis occurs in the cytosol and produces a net gain of two molecules of ATP.

485
Q

Does glycolysis require oxygen?

A

No, glycolysis does not require oxygen and can occur under aerobic or anaerobic conditions.

486
Q

What happens to pyruvic acid under normal conditions?

A

Under normal conditions, pyruvic acid enters the mitochondria and undergoes aerobic respiration to produce a large amount of ATP.

487
Q

What happens to pyruvic acid during heavy exercise when oxygen is unavailable?

A

Under anaerobic conditions, pyruvic acid is converted into lactic acid.

488
Q

What is the process by which the breakdown of glucose gives rise to lactic acid in the absence of oxygen?

A

The process is called anaerobic glycolysis.

489
Q

How many molecules of lactic acid and ATP are produced from one molecule of glucose via anaerobic glycolysis?

A

Anaerobic glycolysis yields 2 molecules of lactic acid and 2 molecules of ATP.

490
Q

Where does most of the lactic acid produced by anaerobic glycolysis go?

A

Most of the lactic acid diffuses out of the skeletal muscle fiber into the blood.

491
Q

What can liver cells do with lactic acid from the bloodstream?

A

Liver cells can convert lactic acid back into glucose.

492
Q

What does the conversion of lactic acid in the liver do to the blood?

A

The conversion reduces the acidity of the blood.

493
Q

What is thought to cause muscle soreness during strenuous exercise?

A

The buildup of lactic acid in active skeletal muscle fibers and in the bloodstream is thought to cause muscle soreness.

494
Q

Compared to aerobic respiration, how does anaerobic glycolysis perform in terms of ATP production?

A

Anaerobic glycolysis produces fewer ATPs but is faster and can occur when oxygen levels are low.

495
Q

How long can anaerobic glycolysis provide energy for maximal muscle activity?

A

Anaerobic glycolysis provides enough energy for about 2 minutes of maximal muscle activity.

496
Q

If sufficient oxygen is present, where does pyruvic acid formed by glycolysis go?

A

Pyruvic acid enters the mitochondria.

497
Q

What does pyruvic acid undergo in the mitochondria when oxygen is present?

A

Pyruvic acid undergoes aerobic respiration.

498
Q

What are the oxygen-requiring reactions that make up aerobic respiration?

A

The Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain.

499
Q

What does aerobic respiration produce?

A

ATP, carbon dioxide, water, and heat.

500
Q

What happens when oxygen is present in muscle cells?

A

Glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain occur.