Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RAP > Muscular System > Flashcards

Muscular System Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 4 main functions of muscle

A

producing body movements. stabilising body positions.
storing and moving substances.
generating hear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the 3 types of muscle

A

skeletal
cardiac
smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe skeletal muscle

A

connect to bone via tendons.
long cylindrical multinucleated cells.
obvious striations.
rapid and powerful contractions.
under voluntary control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

describe cardiac muscle

A

makes up walls of heart.
branching and usually uninucleate.
striated cells.
under involuntary control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

describe smooth muscle

A

lining of organs, arteries and airways.
spindle-shaped, uninucleate cells.
non-striated.
under involuntary control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

name the structure of skeletal muscle (in order)

A

myofibril - muscle fibre - fascicles - muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

name the layers of skeletal muscle (in order)

A

endomysium, perimysium , epimysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the sarcolemma

A

the plasma membrane of a muscle cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are t-tubules

A

infolding of sarcolemma - quickly spread an AP through muscle fibre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the sarcoplasm

A

the cytoplasm of a muscle cell; contains large amounts of glycogen and myoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what wraps around each myofibril

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

function of sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

when muscle is at rest, it stores calcium.
when stimulated, calcium is released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

function of myofilaments and sarcomeres

A

myofibrils contain this and thin filaments arranged into sarcomeres - thin are composed of actin, thick are composed of myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the 5 different bands/discs/zonese/lines

A

Z disc
I band
A band
H zone
M line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe thick filaments (myosin)

A

thick filament composed of myosin
has a tail and two heads
contains binding sites for actin and for ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

describe thin filaments (actin)

A

composed of actin, troponin, tropomyosin.
actin contains binding site for myosin.
tropomyosin blocks myosin binding site.
tropomyosin held in place by troponin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the 3 phases of muscle contraction

A

neuromuscular junction; AP travels along motor neuron and moves across synapse.

Excitation-contraction coupling; AP travels along sarcolemma, causing release of calcium

Cross-bridge cycling; myosin head bind with actin, allowing for contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

describe the process of neuromuscular junction

A
  1. AP travels along a motor neuron to the axon terminal
  2. change in memb pot causes voltage-gated Ca channels to open
  3. Ca enters the axon terminal
  4. Ca signals neurotransmitter filled vesicles to move towards the memb
  5. Vesicles mere with memb and release neurotransmitter via exocytosis
  6. neurotransmitter diffuses across synaptic cleft
  7. neurotransmitter binds to ligand-gated Na channels on muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

describe the process of excitation-contraction coupling

A
  1. AP arrives at the axon terminal and ACh is released
  2. ACh binds to the ligand-gated Na channels and Na enters the muscle
  3. AP runs along sarcolemma and t tubules initiating release of Ca
  4. Ca binds to troponin, moving tropomyosin and exposing the binding site on actin
  5. Myosin binds to actin and pulls the thin filaments toward the thick filaments
  6. AP stops and Ca is transported out of the sarcoplasm
  7. Troponin moves the tropomyosin back to the blocking the binding sites on actin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

describe the process of cross-bridge cycling

A
  1. myosin heads break down ATP and become reorientated
  2. Myosin heads bind to actin forming cross bridges
  3. myosin heads rotate towards the centre of the sarcomere (power stroke)
  4. APT binds to myosin heads , causing myosin to detach from actin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the 4 factors that increase contractile force (aka more cross bridges attached)

A

large number of muscle fibres recruited
large muscle fibres
high frequency of stimulation
stretch of sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the 6 muscle contractions

A

agonist
antaogonist
synergist
muscle tone
isotonic
isometric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is agonist

A

the contracting or shortening muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is antagonist

A

the relaxing or lengthening muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the synergist

A

assists the agonising muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is muscle tone

A

continuous and partial contraction of muscleq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is isotonic

A

contraction involving muscle shortening or lengthening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

describe Type I Fibres (skeletal muscle)

A

slow oxidative.
low tension produced.
high resistance to fatigue.
slow time to peak force.
slow duration of contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is isometric

A

contraction without a change in muscle length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

describe Type IIA Fibres (skeletal muscle)

A

fast oxidative/glycolytic.
moderate tension produced.
high resistance to fatigue.
fast time to peak force.
fast duration of contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

describe Type IIX fibres (skeletal muscle)

A

fast glycolytic.
high tension produced.
low resistance to fatigue.
fast time to peak force.
fast duration of contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the 3 types of energy for contraction

A

ATP-CP
Anaerobic Glycolysis
Aerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

describe ATP-CP

A

uses creatine phosphate stored in muscle to produce ATP.
creatine phosphate -> ADP + P -> ATP + creatine.
no oxygen required.
15 seconds of energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

describe anaerobic glycolysis

A

uses glucose in the blood to produce ATP.
Glucose -> 2 ATP and 2 Pyruvic acid.
no oxygen required.
2mins of energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

describe aerobic energy

A

uses carbs, fat and protein to produce ATP.
oxygen required.
36-38 ATP
ATP can continue to be produced until fuel stores depleted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are varcosities

A

the swellings in the neuron that contain vesicles with neurotransmitter - they form diffuse junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are gap junctions

A

basically the space instead of t-tubules (in skeletal muscle).

nuerotransmitters are released by varsities and bind to ligand-gated Na channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

why do smooth muscle have less developed sarcoplasm reticulum

A

they can’t hold as much calcium; gets calcium from extracellular fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how does a smooth muscle contraction compare to a skeletal muscle contraction

A

types of neuromuscular junctions and varcosities.
gap junctions vs t-tubules.
Ca coming from sarcoplasmic reticulum vs extracellular fluid.
Ca binds to calmodulin vs troponin.
power stroke causes contraction; spiralling vs shortening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

identify the 5 external structures of the eye

A

eyelid
eyelashes
eyebrows
lacrimal caruncle
conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the fibrous tunic of the eye and what are the 3 main structures of it

A

it is the outermost layer.
cornea
sclera
canal of schlemm

42
Q

function of cornea

A

provides a window for light to enter the eye

43
Q

function of sclera

A

provides protection and acts as an anchor for extrinsic eye muscles

44
Q

function of canal of schlemm

A

drains aqueous humor from anterior cavity

45
Q

what is the vascular tunic and what are the 3 structures of it

A

middle layer.
choroid
cillary body.
iris.

46
Q

function of choroid

A

contains extensive capillary network supplying retina and sclera

47
Q

function of ciliary body

A

includes ciliary muscle and processes which holds lens in place

48
Q

function of iris

A

contains blood vessels, pigment and smooth muscle which adjusts pupil

49
Q

what is the retina and what are the 4 structures of it

A

the inner tunic.
photoreceptors.
macula lutea.
fovea centralis
optic disc

50
Q

function of photoreceptors

A

rods and cones - turns into neural signal

51
Q

function of macula lutea

A

yellow spot in centre of retina, allow for high visual acuity

52
Q

function of fovea centralis

A

centre of macula containing only cones for high visual acuity

53
Q

function of optic disc

A

where optic nerve leaves the eye (blind spot)

54
Q

function of anterior cavity

A

contains aqueous humor which nourishes eye structures

55
Q

what are the 3 internal structures of the eye

A

anterior cavity
posterior cavity
lens

56
Q

function of posterior cavity

A

contains vitreous humor which maintains shape of eye

57
Q

function of lens

A

focusses the light that passes through it onto the retina

58
Q

describe the pathway of light through the eye

A

cornea
anterior cavity
pupil
lens
posterior cavity
retina

light goes through all the layers of cells, hits the back of the retina (pigment epithelium), then gets absorbed by photoreceptors (rods and cones), transmitted to bipolar cells, then to ganglion cells and back to the brain

59
Q

what is accomodation

A

the ability of the eye to change its focus from distant to near objects (and vice versa). this is achieved by the lens changing its shape

60
Q

what is refraction power

A

the ability of the lens to bend or refract light to focus them onto the retina

61
Q

what is the focal length

A

the distance between the lens of the eye and the retina

62
Q

describe what happens with viewing objects that are short in distance

A

the lens is round and thicker
lessens the focal length
increases refractive power

63
Q

describe what happens when viewing objects that are far in distance

A

the lens is thinner and flatter
reduces refractive power
increases the focal length

64
Q

describe rods in vision

A

most numerous.
operate in dim light.
dont discriminate colour.
many rods feed into a single ganglion cell (fuzzy and indistinct images)

65
Q

describe cones in vision

A

less numerous.
operate in bight light.
discriminate colour.
one code feeds into a single ganglion cell (detailed and highres vision)

66
Q

describe visual signal transduction in the dark

A
  1. in the dark, trans-retinal converts back to its cis-retinal form.
  2. Na moves into outer segment via ligand-gated sodium channels
  3. Ca moves into rod through voltage-gated Ca channels
  4. influx of Ca causes the release of neurotransmitter
  5. binding of neurotransmitter to bipolar cell causes hyperpolarisation
  6. no neurotransmitter released at synaptic cleft of bipolar cell
  7. no depolarisation of gangion cell
  8. no AP along optic nerve
67
Q

describe visual signal transduction in the light

A
  1. absorption of light triggers a change from cis-retinal to trans-retinal
  2. change in retinal produces a series of reaction that close Na channels in rod
  3. Ca channels in synaptic cleft close
  4. no neurotransmitter released
  5. bipolar cell remains depolarised
  6. neurotransmitter released at synaptic cleft of bipolar cell
  7. ganglion cell depolarised
  8. AP along optic nerve
68
Q

what is cis-retinal and trans-retinal

A

the form of the photoreceptor

in the dark, retinal is cis-retinal (bent)
with light absorption, turns into trans-retinal

69
Q

what does the term bleaching mean

A

trans-retinal seperates from opsin

70
Q

what does the term regeneration mean

A

cis-retinal binds with opsin

71
Q

what is the pathway of the axons that terminate in the thalamus

A

optic nerve - optic chasm - optic tract - thalamus - primary visual area

72
Q

what is the pathway of the axons that terminate in the midbrain

A

optic nerve - optic chiasm - optic tract - superior colliculi - various eye muscles

73
Q

what are the 3 structures of the external ear

A

auricle
external auditory canal
tympanic membrane

74
Q

what are the 6 structures of the middle ear

A

malleus
incus
stapes
oval window
round window
auditory canal

75
Q

what are the 5 structures of the inner ear

A

bony labyrinth
membranous labyrinth
semicircular canals
vestibule
cochlea

76
Q

describe the function of the auricle

A

direct sound waves to the external auditory canal

77
Q

function of external auditory canal

A

direct sound waves to tympanic membrane and protection

78
Q

function of tympanic membrane

A

vibrates in response to sound waves and protection

79
Q

function of ossicles

A

transmit vibrations from tympanic membranef

80
Q

function of oval window

A

receive vibrations from stapes, allow for fluid movement in cochlea

81
Q

function of round window

A

allow for fluid movement in cochlea

82
Q

function of auditory canal

A

allows for the equalisation of air pressure in middle earf

83
Q

function of bony labyrinth

A

outer bony layer of inner ear, contains perilymph

84
Q

function of membranous labyrinth

A

in membranous layer of inner ear, contains endolymph

85
Q

function of semicircular canals

A

contains receptors for equilibrium

86
Q

functions of vestibule

A

contains receptors for equilibrium

87
Q

function of cochlea

A

contains receptor for hearing

88
Q

what is equilibrium

A

a state of balance and stability

89
Q

what contains the receptors for static equilibrium

90
Q

what contains the receptors for dynamic equilibrium

A

semicircular canals

91
Q

what detects horizontal movements and changes in head orientation

A

utricle and saccule

92
Q

what detects rotational movement around an axis or pivot point

A

semicircular canals

93
Q

what is static equilibrium

A

maintaining position of the body relative to the force of gravity

94
Q

describe how static equilibrium works

A

bony vestibules contain saccule and utricle. within the walls of these are maculae.
maculae have hair cells and supporting cells.
on top of the hair cells are otolithic membrane and otoliths.
when head tilts of linear movements, otoliths move, dragging the membrane and bending the hair receptors which cause a receptor potential

95
Q

describe dynamic equilibrium

A

semicircular canals have semicircular ducts. each duct has ampulla. ampulla have small elevation called crista.
crista has hair cells, surrounded by gelatinous cupula.
head moves, hair and cupola move, and endolymph in semicircular ducts lags - causing bend of hair cells and generates receptor potential

96
Q

describe the process of hearing

A
  1. sound waves directed into external auditory canal via auricle
  2. sound waves strike tympanic memb causing vibrations
  3. vibrations transmitted through ossicles
  4. vibration of stapes at oval window causes movement of perilymph in Scala vestibule
  5. movement of perilymph continues to scala tympani, pushing against round window
  6. movement of perilymph in scala vestibule causes vibration of vestibular memb
  7. vibration of vestibular memb causes movement of endolymph
  8. movement of endolyoh in cochlea duct causes vibration of basilar membrane
  9. bends hair cells against tectorial membrane
  10. causes receptor potential
97
Q

what is gustation

A

molecules, dissolved in saliva, interact with taste receptors

sour sweet bitter salty umami

98
Q

what are the 3 cells of taste buds

A

supporting cells - supports and replaces gustatory receptor cells

gustatory receptor cells - contain microvilli which extend through taste pore

basal cells - produce supporting cells

99
Q

what are tastants

A

chemicals that stimulate gustatory receptor cells

100
Q

how are salty sour sweet bitter and umami foods received

A

salty - Na channels
sour - H channels
sweet, bitter, umami - G proteins and second messengers

101
Q

what are odorants

A

chemicals that stimulate olfactory receptors

RAP (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions