Multiple Choice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What about positive feedback is true?

A. The response adds to the initial stimulus
B. It is the most common form of feedback
C. Clot of formation is an example of positive feedback
D. A and B
E. A and C
F. B and C
G. All of the above

A

E. A and C

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2
Q

What is true about alveolar epithelial cells?

A. Type I cells secrete surfactant
B. Type II cells are flat for gas exchange
C. Both of the above are true
D. Neither of the above are true

A

D. Neither of the above are true

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3
Q

Intrapleural pressure is defined as the hydrostatic pressure of the intrapleural fluid

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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4
Q

The steps of inhalation do NOT include:

A. Contraction of the diaphragm
B. A decrease in transpulmonary pressure
C. The expansion of the lungs
D. Alveolar pressure becomes subatmospheric

A

B. A decrease in transpulmonary pressure

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5
Q

What about elastic recoil is FALSE:

A. If transpulmonary pressure is greater than recoil, lung expands
B. As the lung expands, recoil decreases
C. The lung is at equilibrium of transpulmonary pressure is equal to recoil
D. All of the above are false
E. All of the above are true

A

B. As the lung expands, recoil decreases.

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6
Q

We change transpulmonary pressure by changing atmospheric pressure

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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7
Q

What directly determines lung compliance?

A. The stretchability of the lung tissue
B. Surface tension at the air-water interface
C. Transpulmonary pressure
D. A and B
E. A and C
F. B and C

A

E. A and C.

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8
Q

What about surfactant is true?

A. It strengthens the bonds between water molecules
B. It reduces alveolar surface tension
C. It decreases the work of breathing
D. It is secreted by type I alveolar cells
E. A and B
F. B and C
G. B and D
H. All of the above are true

A

F. B and C

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9
Q

What is the most important factor that airway resistance is dependant upon?

A. Tube length
B. Interactions between gas molecules
C. Airway radius
D. Amount of surfactant secreted

A

C. Airway radius

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10
Q

If someone has a tidal volume of 550 ml/breath and a respiratory rate of 15 breaths per
minute, what is their minute ventilation?

A. 6.60 L/min
B. 7.25 L/min
C. 8.25 L/min
D. 9.00 L/min

A

C. 8.25 L/min

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11
Q

Approximately how much air is in the respiratory dead space?

A. 100 mL
B. 150 mL
C. 300 mL
D. 350 mL

A

B. 150 mL

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12
Q

If the atmospheric pressure is 760 mmHg, and the air is made up of 30% oxygen,
what is the partial pressure of oxygen?

A. 125 mmHg
B. 228 mmHg
C. 320 mmHg
D. 450 mmHg

A

B. 228 mmHg

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13
Q

What factors cause the Hb kinetics curve to shift to the right?

A. An increase in partial pressure of carbon dioxide
B. A decrease in acidity
C. A decrease in temperature
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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14
Q

30% of carbon dioxide is dissolved in plasma

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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15
Q

As oxygen binds to Hb, Hb’s affinity for oxygen decreases

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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16
Q

Where does gas exchange occur?

A. alveolar ducts and sacs
B. alveolar sacs
C. respiratory bronchioles
D. All of the above

A

B. Alveolar sacs

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17
Q

During hyperpnea which of the following occurs?

A. increase in ventilation, decrease in carbon dioxide
B. increase in ventilation matches carbon dioxide
C. ventilation is greater than carbon dioxide production
D. ventilation is less than carbon dioxide production

A

C. ventilation is greater than carbon dioxide production

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18
Q

What is the most important factor that affects oxygen carrying capacity at altitude?

A. the fraction of oxygen in the atmosphere
B. the partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere
C. the solubility coefficient of oxygen
D. a and c
E. all of the above

A

B. The partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere

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19
Q

The lung stops expanding during inspiration because

A. alveolar pressure is greater than intrapleural pressure
B. intrapleural pressure is greater than alveolar pressure
C. Transpulonary is less than recoil
D. Transpulmonary pressure is equal to recoil

A

B. Intrapleural pressure is greater than alveolar pressure

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20
Q

Which of the following is true about hemoglobin

A. When tissues are high in CO2 hemoglobin initiates a response to increase O2 via ventilation.
B. hemoglobin increases its affinity to oxygen in order to support high increases in CO2
C. Hemoglobin has 4 heme groups and 4 globin subunits
D. a and c
E. b and c

A

D. a and c

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21
Q

Identify the correct order of how a coordinated response occur?

A. stimuli -> Sensor -> effector -> integrating center -> response
B. stimuli -> Sensor -> integrating center -> response -> effector
C. stimuli -> Sensor -> integrating center -> effector -> response
D. Stimuli -> sensor -> response -> integrating center -> effector

A

C. Stimuli -> Sensor -> Integrating center -> Effector -> Response

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22
Q

Identify the incorrect statement about peripheral chemoreceptors

A. peripheral chemoreceptors respond to changes in CO2
B. peripheral chemoreceptors respond directly to changes in CO2
C. H+ has the highest hierarchy of respiratory control in peripheral chemoreceptors
D. The response of peripheral chemoreceptors depends on both hierarchy and the
relative magnitude of change

A

B. Peripheral chemoreceptors respond directly to changes in CO2

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23
Q

The bicarbonate equilibrium reaction is important because:

A. it provides a gradient to remove CO2 out of the cell.
B. contributes to 60% of carbon dioxide transport
C. It allows hydrogen to be converted into carbon dioxide at the level of the alveoli
D. B and C
E. all of the above

A

D. B and C

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24
Q

During exercise…

A. the neural (fast) response is instigated by the motor cortex
B. The humeral response will depend on your exercise intensity
C. rapid decrease in ventilation takes about 2 to 3 minutes.
D. the lungs are often a limiting factor to reducing carbon dioxide and hydrogen levels.
E. a and b
F. a b and c
G. a b and d
H. all of the above

A

E. a and b

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25
Q

which of the following would be a short term adaptation to altitude?

A. increase in ventilation
B. increase capillary density
C. adrenal medulla in the kidney senses a decrease in oxygen delivery: excretion occurs to increase oxygen carrying capacity
D. a and c

A

A. increase in ventilation

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26
Q

Which of the following is correct

A. leukotrienes reduce the inflammation of the airways
B. transpulmonary pressure is a physical factor that increases airway resistance
C. vasoactive peptides constrict the airway
D. both emphysema and pulmonary fibrosis affects the elastic connective tissue of the alveoli therefore increasing airway resistance
E. b and d
F. a b and d
G. all of the above

A

E. b and d

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27
Q

Which of the following represents an inability for tissues to utilize oxygen?

A. anemic hypoxia
B. hypoxic hypoxia
C. ischemic hypoxia
D. histotoxic hypoxia

A

D. histotoxic hypoxia

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28
Q

On the oxygen equilibrium curve, a rightward shift would:

A. Increase O2 loading of haemoglobin in the lungs
B. Increase O2 unloading of haemoglobin in the tissues
C. Decrease O2 loading
D. Decrease the number of CO2 molecules on haemoglobin

A

B. Increase O2 unloading of hemoglobin in the tissues

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29
Q

What factors in combination would increase haemoglobin affinity for oxygen?

A. Increase in pH
B. Decrease in temperature
C. Increase in temperature
D. Decrease in pH
E. Both a and b

A

E. Both a and b

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30
Q

Which statement most accurately describes the Haldane Effect?

A. binding of O2 and CO2 in hemoglobin are not related
B. With O2 release from hemoglobin, this increases the affinity of hemoglobin for CO2
C. more CO2 is in deoxygenated blood than oxygenated blood

A

B. With O2 release from hemoglobin, this increases the affinity of hemoglobin for CO2

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31
Q

The driving force of lung expansion is causes by the difference in which two pressures?

A. Pulmonary pressure, atmospheric pressure
B. Intrapleural pressure, interpleural pressure
C. Intrapleural pressure, intra-alveolar pressure

A

C. Intrapleural pressure, intra-alveolar pressure

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32
Q

Which difference in two pressures leads to air movement in and out of the lungs?

A. Intrapleural pressure, interpleural pressure
B. Pulmonary pressure, atmospheric pressure
C. Atmospheric pressure; intra-alveolar pressure
D. Intrapleural pressure; intra-alveolar pressure

A

B. Pulmonary pressure, atmospheric pressure

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33
Q

What is Transpulmonary pressure?

A. is the driving force for air movement into and out of lungs
B. is not the driving force for lung expansion.
C. none of the above

A

A. The driving force for air movement into and out of lungs

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34
Q

Which of these factors will decrease airway resistance?

A. Decrease airway radius
B. Increase airway radius
C. Asthma
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

B. Increase airway radius

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35
Q

What is Pulmonary surfactant?

A. Removes all water from the lungs.
B. Smaller quantities in larger, compared to smaller alveoli.
C. is important for tension in the lungs.
D. Blocks bonding in the air-alveolar region.

A

C. is important for tension in the lungs

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36
Q

Which of the following leads to arteriolar vasodilation?

A. Decrease in O2
B. Decrease in CO2,
C. Increase in K+
D. Decrease in K+
E. a and c
F. a and d

A

E. a and c

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37
Q

Which of the following decreases does not show on restrictive lung disease?

A. IRV
B. Residual volume
C. ERV

A

B. Residual volume

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38
Q

Pneumothorax is an obstructive lung disease.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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39
Q

Obstructive lung diseases cause reduction in the air flow rate.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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40
Q

Emphysema is a restrictive lung disease.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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41
Q

The two types of pneumothorax are tension and open.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

42
Q

__________ is the total volume of the conducting airways from the nose to the terminal bronchioles level

A. TLC
B. VT
C. IC
D. Dead Space

A

D. Dead Space

43
Q

Which of the following about alveoli is false?

A. They have a high surface area
B. They are the site of gas exchange within in the lung
C. There are 2 types of alveolar epithelial cells
D. Type 1 alveolar cells secrete surfactant

A

D. Type 1 alveolar cells secrete surfactant.

44
Q

Which of the following results in a high flow of air in the lung?

A. A high ΔP
B. A high R
C. A Low ΔP
D. All of the have the same effect on bulk flow
E. None of the above factors effect bulk flow

A

A. A high ΔP

45
Q

Which of the following determines ΔP in the lung?

A. Alveolar and Intrapleural pressure
B. Alveolar and Atmospheric pressure
C. Transpulmonary pressure
D. All of the above
E. A and C only

A

B. Alveolar and Atmospheric pressure

46
Q

After inhalation both the volume and pressure within the thoracic cavity increases.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

47
Q

During inspiration:

A. Diaphragm contracts, intercostals contract, intrapleural pressure decreases, alveoli
collapse
B. Diaphragm contracts, intercostals contract, intrapleural pressure increases, alveoli
expand
C. Diaphragm contracts, intercostals contract, intrapleural pressure decreases, alveoli
expand
D. Diaphragm contracts, intercostals contract, intrapleural pressure increases, alveoli
collapse

A

C. Diaphragm contracts, intercostals contract, intrapleural pressure decreases, alveoli expand.

48
Q

A lung that has a large increase in volume compared to a lung that has a minimal increase in volume at any given transpulmonary pressure has greater compliance.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

49
Q

What is the Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) of an individual with the following values: TV = 550mL, VC = 5000, TLC = 6000mL, RV = 1300mL and IRV = 3200mL

A. 1000mL
B. 1.5L
C. 1200mL
D. 1.250L

A

D. 1.250 L

50
Q

If an individual has a tidal volume of 500mL, dead space of 150mL and breathing 15
breaths/min what is his/her minute ventilation?

A. 9750mL/min
B. 5250mL/min
C. 7.5L/min
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

51
Q

An individual is breathing 12breaths/min, has a dead space of 175mL and has the
following values: IRV = 3100mL, VC = 4500mL, TLC = 5800mL, RV = 1300mL and
FRC = 2250mL. What is his/her minute ventilation?

A. 5.4L
B. 3300mL
C. 1200mL
D. 9.3L
E. None of the above
F. Not enough information

A

E. None of the above

52
Q

Which of the following gases will have a lower partial pressure at an atmospheric
pressure of 760mmHg?

A. Gas Fraction = 0.3
B. Gas Fraction = 0.02
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon Dioxide

A

B. Gas Fraction = 0.02

53
Q

If Hb binds 1.3 mL O2/g, and an individual has a [Hb] = 14g/100mL and pumps 4.5L
blood/min, how much O2 does this individual pumped per minute?

A. 82,000 mL O2/min
B. 18.2 mL O2/100 mL blood
C. 820 mL O2/min
D. 18.2 mL O2/min

A

A. 82,000 mL O2/min

54
Q

What percentage of hemoglobin is bound to oxygen at sea level?

A. ~100%
B. ~90%
C. ~85%
D. ~20%

A

A. ~100%

55
Q

Less hemoglobin is bound to oxygen at altitude because there is less oxygen in the air.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

56
Q

Which of the following causes the Hb saturation curve to shift to the right?

A. Increased partial pressure of CO2
B. Increased [H+]
C. Increased temperature
D. Increased anaerobic energy production
E. All of the above
F. Only A-C

A

F. Only A-C

57
Q

During high intensity exercise, Hydrogen ions enter the blood; under this condition,
erythrocytes will produce CO2 and H2O.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

58
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding activation of the baroreceptor reflex with high MAP

A. Action potentials are sent to the brain via efferent nerves.
B. Activation of the medulla oblongata.
C. Mechanoreceptors activation of the baroreceptors.
D. Decreased SNS activity.
E. Increased PNS activity.
F. Two of the mentioned factors.

A

A. Action potentials are sent to the brain via efferent nerves.

59
Q

Which of the following correctly describe the structure and function of veins?

A. Myogenic response
B. Thick walled
C. 40% of total blood volume is stored in veins
D. Low compliance
E. Increased inspiration decreases venous pressure
F. Cardiac suction effect increases venous pressure

A

E. Increased inspiration decreases venous pressure

60
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the local control of blood flow?

A. Vasodilation is caused by decreased stretch reflex activity
B. Reactive hyperemia decreases NO production
C. Active hyperemia occurs as a result of ischemia
D. Flow auto-regulation is a positive feedback loop

A

A. Vasodilation is caused by decreased stretch reflex activity

61
Q

Which of the following is false regarding the systemic control of blood flow by arterioles?

A. The main purpose is to regulate MAP
B. There are more beta than alpha adrenergic receptors
C. Norepinephrine is produced by the sympathetic neuron
D. Both epinephrine and norepinephrine can bind to the alpha adrenergic receptor

A

B. There are more beta than alpha adrenergic receptors

62
Q

Why does blood flow distribution change from organ to organ with exercise? Choose the BEST answer.

A. No local metabolic activity in an organ will encourage
vasoconstriction to that organ
B. It depends on whether the organ has alpha-adrenergic
receptors
C. High metabolic activity in an organ will override increased SNS activity influence
D. It depends on whether the organ has flow autoregulation
E. Two of the above
F. Three of the above
G. All of the above

A

F. Three of the above

63
Q

Why are characteristics of Marfan Syndrome?

A. Disorganized elastin fibres O
B. Mutation of elastin
C. Height exceeds arm span
D. Optimal genetics for NBA players

A

A. Disorganized elastin fibres O

64
Q

What causes decreased stroke volume during pre-compensation to high aortic pressures?

A. Longer isovolumetric contraction duration
B. Shorter ventricular ejection duration
C. Longer isovolumetric relaxation duration
D. All of the above

A

B. Shorter ventricular ejection duration

65
Q

Which of the following is false regarding blood flow redistribution from rest to exercise?

A. Increased blood flow to brain
B. Decreased blood flow to bone
C. Decreased blood flow to liver
D. Increased blood flow to heart

A

A. Increased blood flow to brain

66
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding nitric oxide-induced vasodilation?

A. L-arginine → NO → guanine cyclase → GMP
B. NO → CGMP → phosphodiesterase activation → GMP
C. Viagra decreased production of cGMP
D. None of the above
E. Two of the above

A

B. NO → CGMP → phosphodiesterase activation → GMP

67
Q

Which of the following are determinants of net glomerular filtration rate?
A. Glomerular arterial blood pressure
B. Bowman’s space osmotic pressure
C. Plasma protein fluid pressure
D. Glomerular permeability

A

D. Glomerular permeability

68
Q

Which of the following will cause the greatest decrease in glomerular filtration rate?

A. Afferent vasoconstriction + efferent vasoconstriction
B. Afferent vasoconstriction + efferent vasodilation
C. Afferent vasodilation + efferent vasoconstriction
D. Afferent vasodilation + efferent vasodilation

A

B. Afferent vasoconstriction + efferent vasodilation

69
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. Intrapleural fluid gives the lungs lubrication when moving against the thoracic wall
b. The visceral pleura attaches to the thoracic wall
c. The visceral pleura and parietal pleura are attached to one another
d. Parietal pleura attaches to the alveoli
e. 2 of the above are true

A

e. 2 of the above are true

70
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the lungs?

a. Pulmonary veins bring oxygenated blood that comes from the lungs, back to the heart
b. Lung tissue contains lots of smooth muscle
c. Lungs contain systemic capillaries that are responsible for gas exchange with the alveoli
d. The lung is sealed air tight with the thoracic cavity
e. 2 of the above are true

A

a. Pulmonary veins bring oxygenated blood that comes from the lungs, back to the heart

71
Q

Which of the following is not an assumption in homeostatic control?

a. Some alterations in set points are more important than others
b. Set points are kept within a tight range
c. A sensor is required to sense changes in set point
d. Our body tends to favor positive feedback over negative feedback
e. All of the above are assumptions in homeostatic control

A

d. Our body tends to favor positive feedback over negative feedback

72
Q

An individual with an autoimmune disease that impairs the production of type 2 alveolar cells would have which characteristics?

a. Difficulty with expiration
b. An increase in surfactant production
c. Decrease in compliance
d. Increase in surface tension
e. 2 of the above are true

A

e. 2 of the above are true

73
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding the alveoli?

a. Multi-layered Type 1 alveolar cells make up the walls of the alveoli
b. Pores of Kohn allows for co-lateral ventilation of the alveoli
c. Distance between alveoli and capillaries is minimal to optimize gas exchange
d. Type 2 alveolar cells produce surfactant
e. 2 of the above are not true

A

a. Multi-layered Type 1 alveolar cells make up the walls of the alveoli

74
Q

Which of the following is required for air to flow into the lungs?

a. Skeletal muscle contraction of the alveoli
b. Alveoli expanding outwardly
c. Smooth muscle contraction of the bronchioles
d. Creating a positive alveolar pressure relative to the atmosphere
e. 2 of the above are true

A

b. Alveoli expanding outwardly

75
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. Constriction of airways can occur during exercise in people with asthma
b. Asthma is an example of a restrictive disease
c. Muscarinic receptor agonists (stimulate parasympathetic activity) are good medications for people with asthma
d. Asthma is characterized by an increased production of fibrotic tissue in the airways
e. None of the above are true

A

a. Constriction of airways can occur during exercise in people with asthma

76
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. Pulmonary fibrosis results in a reduction of lung capacity
b. Spontaneous pneumothorax is an example of an obstructive disease
c. Emphysema is a buildup of mucus production in smaller airways
d. ALS can increase airway resistance and decrease flow rate
e. None of the above are true

A

a. Pulmonary fibrosis results in a reduction of lung capacity

77
Q

Which of the following is true regarding COPD?

a. Impaired gas exchange due to destruction of systemic capillaries
b. COPD results in decreased compliance of the lung
c. Beta-2 agonists is a very effective treatment in emphysema
d. COPD is partially reversible when treated with bronchodilators
e. 2 of the above are true

A

d. COPD is partially reversible when treated with bronchodilators

78
Q

Which of the following is true regarding restrictive diseases

a. Typically has a lower FEV1/FVC ratio than a healthy lung
b. Increased compliance
c. Smoking is the primary cause of restrictive diseases
d. The restriction of the lung increases resistance of the airways
e. None of the above are true

A

e. None of the above are true

79
Q

Which option best describes vital capacity?

a. Forced expiratory volume in 1 second
b. The max volume of air an individual can inhale and exhale
c. Inspiratory capacity + functional residual capacity
d. The capacity of the lung to exhale excess air volume
e. 2 of the above are true

A

b. The max volume of air an individual can inhale and exhale

80
Q

During exercise, metabolic CO2 production increases, in an effort to maintain CO2concentration in its range of homeostasis, what will happen?

a. Tidal volume decreases
b. Dead space increases
c. Alveolar ventilation increases
d. Respiratory rate decrease
e. No change will occur

A

c. Alveolar ventilation increases

81
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. Increased surface tension results in increased compliance of the lung
b. Surface tension comes from a thin liquid layer within the alveoli
c. Decrease in surface tension makes it more difficult for the lung to bring in air
d. Surface tension plays a role in moderating volume of air in the alveoli
e. 2 of the above are true

A

b. Surface tension comes from a thin liquid layer within the alveoli

82
Q

Which of the following describes internal respiration?

a. Gas exchange between systemic capillaries and the tissues
b. Movement of air into the lungs
c. Movement of O2 and CO2 from the lungs to the tissues
d. Gas exchange between pulmonary capillaries and the lungs
e. None of the above are true

A

e. None of the above are true

83
Q

Which of the following correctly describe the processes generating the osmotic gradient in the Loop of Henle?

A. Hyperosmolality in the base of the loop is due to H20 reabsorption in the interstitium
B. Beavers pee more than kangeroo mice
C. Aquaporins in the ascending loop allow for H20 to enter interstitium
D. Vasa recta increases the osmotic gradient in the Loop of Henle

A

A. Hyperosmolality in the base of the loop is due to H20 reabsorption in the interstitium

84
Q

Which of the following is false regarding glucose reabsorption?

A. GLUT1 transports glucose into the peritubular capillaries
B. Diabetes can be determined when the renal tubular glucose concentration exceeds 300 mg/100mL
C. Tubular maximum is determined by the number of SGLT-2 transporters
D. Glucose filtered by the glomerulus can exceed what is reabsorbed in healthy individuals

A

D. Glucose filtered by the glomerulus can exceed what is reabsorbed in healthy individuals

85
Q

What is the purpose of the Na+/K+ ATPase in the tubular cell? Choose the best answer.

A. Maintain electrochemical gradient for passive Na+ influx into tubular cell
B. Maintain concentration gradient for passive Na+ influx into tubular cell
C. Two of the above
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

86
Q

Why does the active transport of Na+ from the tubule to the peritubular capillary aid in the transport of negatively charged ions?

A. By creating an electrochemical gradient
B. By creating an osmotic gradient
C. By allowing anion reabsorption
D. By concentrating solutes in the tubule

A

A. By creating an electrochemical gradient

87
Q

Which of the following is true regarding high systolic BP?

a. It can lead to oxygen deprived cardiomyocytes
b. It can lead to an immediate increase in SV
c. It can lead to an ST elevation
d. It can lead to atherosclerosis

A

d. It can lead to atherosclerosis

88
Q

Reduced coronary blood flow occurs most in which region?

a. The endocardial region
b. The endomysium region
c. The interventricular septum
d. The myocardium region

A

a. The endocardial region

89
Q

Which of the following is not part of an atherosclerotic plaque?

a. Collagen
b. Smooth muscle
c. Lipids
d. Epithelium

A

d. Epithelium

90
Q

Congestive heart failure may result from?

a. Increased LV contractility after compensation
b. Decreased oxygen demand of the cardiomyocytes
c. Decreased systemic blood flow to the heart
d. Increased systole and diastole
e. Increased ischemia at initial coronary arteriole
f. Two of the above (a and e)

A

c. Decreased systemic blood flow to the heart

91
Q

What are the possible consequences of an atherosclerotic plaque?

a. Thrombo-embolism
b. Congestive heart failure
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Compensatory increase in SV
e. All of the above

A

c. Myocardial infarction

92
Q

Which of the following have the largest change in BF from rest to exercise (in order of
large to small)?

a. Skeletal muscle, heart, skin, GI tract
b. Skeletal muscle, heart, skin, bone
c. Skeletal muscle, skin, liver, heart
d. Skeletal muscle, skin, heart, bone

A

d. Skeletal muscle, skin, heart, bone

93
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the lymphatic system

a. Allows for immune cell production
b. Directly connect to the right atrium
c. Blockage can cause excessive edema called elephantiasis
d. Uptakes about 3L/day of interstitium at the lymph node
e. Consists of overlapping epithelial cells called blind-ended tubes
f. Two of the above

A

f. Two of the above

94
Q

Which of the following is not part of the pathway of filtrate

a. Endothelial pores
b. Basement membrane
c. Podocyte slits
d. Epithelial cells
e. None of the above

A

d. Epithelial cells

95
Q

Which of the following does not cause glucosuria?

a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Cushing’s syndrome
c. Acromegaly
d. Hypothyroidism
e. None of the above

A

d. Hypothyroidism

96
Q

Which of the following is at an increased risk of acidemia?

a. Pregnant women
b. High carbohydrate diet
c. Type I diabetic with no insulin therapy
d. Malnutrition
e. Two of the above
f. All of the above

A

e. Two of the above

97
Q

Which of the following is not involved in glucose reabsorption?

a. SGLT1
b. SGLT2
c. Glut 3
d. Glut 1

A

c. Glut 3

98
Q

Which of the following is dependant on sodium for transport across the basolateral
membrane

a. Chloride ion
b. Glucose
c. Water
d. Amino acids
e. None of the above

A

e. None of the above

99
Q

Which option best describes total lung capacity?

a. Vital capacity + expiratory reserve volume
b. The maximum amount of air one can inhale at the end of passive/normal
expiration
c. The total amount of air that can expired forcefully
d. The volume of air that one can breathe regularly/passively
e. None of the above

A

e. None of the above

100
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. Negative intrapleural pressure results in pneumothorax
b. One collapsed lung is fatal enough to cause death
c. The lung can collapse if atmospheric and intrapleural pressure equalize
d. Spontaneous pneumothorax can occur from a hard punch to the chest
e. None of the above

A

c. The lung can collapse if atmospheric and intrapleural pressure equalize