Multifactor models & Linear Empirical Testing Flashcards
The Intertemporal Capital Asset Pricing Model
The Intertemporal Capital Asset Pricing Model (ICAPM) by Merton (1973) generalizes the CAPM
It shares with the CAPM the assumption that investors do not have outside income
But it allows for additional periods and time-varying investment opportunities
in some periods
investment opportunities are good: expected future returns are high in other periods,
investment opportunities are poor: expected future returns are low
A long-term investor’s future marginal utility depends on
1 future wealth from asset payoffs
→ pricing factor RW as in CAPM
2 future quality of investment opportunities
→ additional pricing factors summarizing quality of investment opportunities
Why does marginal utility depend on investment opportunities
A two-period investor simply consumes all wealth next period, ct+1 = Wt+1
But a long-term investor decides how to split wealth next period, Wt+1, into consumption ct+1
→ this affects marginal utility u′(ct+1)
savings Wt+1 − ct+1 → this is affected by investment opportunities
When investment opportunities improve, an investor may want to:
cut back consumption in order to invest more and exploit the opportunities (substitution effect)
increase consumption because the investor is now effectively richer (income effect)
Which effect dominates depends on utility function
→ but unless both cancel, ct+1 is affected by investment opportunities
State variables capturing investment opportunities emerge as factors
Suppose the (random) vector zt summarizes the quality of investment opportunities at t
the statistical distribution of RW conditional on time-t information is a function of z t+1
zt is called a state variable for investment opportunities
Investor’s optimal consumption choice depends on both wealth Wt and zt
The assumption of no outside income in CAPM
CAPM and ICAPM assume that investors have no (non-capital) outside income
We can interpret this assumption in three ways:
1 all sources of income are tradeable
no truly private equity, tradeable human capital unlikely to be a good approximation to reality
2 financial markets are dominated by investors with no or little outside income
e.g. retirees or households close to retirement
perhaps these are the “marginal agents” relevant for pricing?
3 markets are (approximately) complete
payoffs from all sources can be replicated with tradeable asssets this is as if all income sources themselves were tradeable directly
What happens if none of these interpretations applies? - example with quadratic utility and outside income - setup
Quadratic utility example
Quadratic utility example
General lessons from this example
Non-traded outside income can be relevant for asset pricing, e.g. labor income
“service flow” from owner-occupied housing
dividends from ownership of private (non-traded) businesses
State variables that capture future outside income are natural candidates for factors in addition to CAPM factor RW
But keep in mind: only matters if income of most investors is affected simultaneously
otherwise investors could trade and insure each other
in previous example model: implicit representative investor assumption, as only then
investor’s portfolio return must be RW t+1
Conditional vs Unconditional Factor models
Theoretical derivations usually result in conditional factor models
E[Ri ]=γ +β λ +···+β λ
t t+1 t i,1,t 1,t i,J,t J,t
holds for expected returns from t to t + 1 conditional on time-t information
expectations, betas, risk premia can all be time-dependent
In empirical work, we often assume that we have an unconditional factor model
E[Ri ]=γ+β λ +···+β λ t+1 i,1 1 i,J J
holds for expected returns from t to t + 1 without using any information expectations, betas, risk premia are time-invariant
So far, we have ignored the difference
When is the distinction between conditional and Unconditional relevant
Suppose asset returns and factors are i.i.d. over time
(i.i.d. refers to independent and identically distributed)
Then time-t information is no more informative for predicting Rti+1 than no information
→ Et[Rti+1] = E[Rti+1]
… and the joint distribution of returns Rti+1 and factors f1,t+1, …, fJ,t+1 is time-invariant
→ all betas are time-invariant
Hence: if returns and factors are i.i.d.,
conditional and unconditional models are equivalent
Is the i.i.d assumption plausible?
The i.i.d. assumption for asset returns is not literally satisfied,
e.g.
return predictability:
expected returns are (mildly) predictable by certain variables
volatility clustering: high volatility in recent past predictor of high volatility in the future
But assuming i.i.d. returns is also not crazy
asset returns are (close to) uncorrelated over time
for a long time, asset prices were thought to follow random walks
strong predictability unlikely as someone would try to make money out of it
We will therefore keep on ignoring the distinction conditional vs unconditional
Conditional one-factor model can imply unconditional multi factor model
Conditional factor models can sometimes be expressed as unconditional factor models
This usually requires adding “information factors” that capture time variation in investor information
Summary
Three theoretical foundations for factors in addition to CAPM factor RW :
1 ICAPM: state variables for future investment opportunities
2 Outside income: state variables for future outside income
3 Conditional models: state variables for investors’ information sets
Different test portfolios lead to rejection of CAPM
For size-sorted portfolios, the CAPM fit is reasonably good
in fact
However, we see already in previous graph a deterioration of CAPM fit for small firms
(this is the high-beta observation in the upper right part of the figure)
Fama, French (1993) form test portfolios differently:
sort stocks into 5 portfolios by market capitalization (“size”)
sort stocks into 5 portfolios by ratio of book value to market value (“book-to-market”)
form intersection portfolios → leads to 25 test portfolios
With these alternative test portfolios, the CAPM is easily rejected
The Fama-French Three-Factor Model
To explain these portfolios, Fama, French (1993) add two factors to the CAPM
1 size factor SMB (“small minus big”)
excess return on portfolio of small firms minus portfolio of big firms long position in small firms, short position in big firms
2 value factor HML (“high minus low”)
excess return on portfolio of high book-to market firms minus portfolio of low book-to-market firms
long position in “value stocks”, short position in “growth stocks”
Economic interpretation of size and factors
Do size and value factors have economic meaning?
Fama, French (1993) motivate them as state variables in the ICAPM sense but that motivation remains vague and imprecise
they ultimately justify them on empirical grounds: they “work” in sample
There has been a lot of ex-post theorizing to justify these factors by economic models
by now, we have many theories that predict a value-like factor
no broad consensus has formed which ones we should believe
but these theories provide a strong prior that there should be a pricing factor that is highly correlated with the value factor
the theoretical base for the size factor is thinner
theories that predict a size premium exist
but none of them has become widely accepted in finance
empirically, the “small-firm effect” driving the size premium has also largely disappeared