Mtriol1 Lt Only Package Round 2

Question 1

BACK LIST NEXT
Question 4:
Which size-up consideration is incorrectly described when dealing with a fire in a nonfireproof tenement?

A: Weather - The most serious factor at any fire.

B: Time - Governs the life hazard.

C: Occupancy - Determines the severity of the life hazard and the intensity of the fire.

D: Height - Governs the use of the Aerial and/or Tower Ladder and portable ladders.

Answer 1

Explanation:
A) Life - The most serious factor at any fire.
Acronym: COAL WAS WEALTH
Construction
Occupancy
Auxiliary Appliances
Life
Weather
Apparatus and Equipment
Street Conditions
Water Supply
Exposures
Area
Location and Extent
Time
Height
Lad 3 1.4.1

Question 2

Question 32:
The ability to properly use the MDT is an important responsibility for members, especially chauffeurs. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the use of the keys?

A: To acknowledge an assignment to an incident, relocation, or returning from relocation, the 10-4 (Orange) button must be pressed followed by the send button.

B: To acknowledge an assignment to an incident, relocation, or returning from relocation as a 4-firefighter engine company, the 10-14 (Yellow) button must be pressed.

C: To go available on the air, the 10-8 (Yellow) button must be pressed.

D: To release everybody except for the one engine or ladder designated, the 10-19 (Yellow) button must be pressed followed by the send button.

Answer 2

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
D IS CORRECT – 2.11.1 B & D – Double Action Key – The signal is not transmitted until the send key is depressed.
A – Single action key – not necessary to press send button. 2.11.1 A
B – Single Action Key – Not in use at this time (No 10-14 response designations) 2.11.1 A
C – 10-8 button is YELLOW – double action key – Operating units must hit 10-8 key and send when in service. 2.11.1A & D

Question 3

BACK LIST NEXT
Question 35:
Members are at MUD drilling on firefighter removal and the topic of the “safety team” starts being discussed. The following points are mentioned. Which one is correct?

A: When only one engine and one ladder are on scene, the safety team is comprised of the control firefighter and the LCC when the ladder has 4 or 5 firefighters.

B: Once firefighters enter the IDLH, both members of the safety team must account for firefighters inside the IDLH without performing other duties.

C: When only one 4 firefighter engine is on-scene, the officer and one firefighter can enter the IDLH for line advancement while two firefighters compose the safety team.

D: When an “understaffed” engine or ladder company (unit staffed with less than 4 firefighters) is the only unit on the scene, the company shall take a defensive position and may not enter the IDLH under any circumstances.

Answer 3

Explanation:
B. Once firefighters enter the IDLH, ONE MEMBER of the safety team must account for firefighters inside the IDLH without performing other duties.

C. When only one 4 firefighter engine is on-scene, the officer and one firefighter can enter the IDLH for SEARCH WITHOUT LINE ADVANCEMENT while two firefighters compose the safety team.

D. When an “understaffed” engine or ladder company (unit staffed with less than 4 firefighters) is the only unit on the scene, the company shall take a defensive position. HOWEVER, IF A KNOW LIFE HAZARD IS DISCOVERED AND IMMEDIATE ACTION COULD PREVENT THE LOSS OF LIFE, APPROPRIATE ACTION (RESCUE ACTIVITY) MAY BE TAKEN BY AN INDIVIDUAL MEMBER.

MMID 2.1.1, 2.3

Question 4

Question 37:
Which choice correctly describes the blue light in a Subway?

A: Near every blue light there will is a power removal box, a telephone, and a dry chemical fire extinguisher

B: Near every blue light there will is a power removal box, a telephone, and a emergency evacuation device

C: Blue lights are found at approximately 200 feet intervals throughout the subway system

D: Near every blue light there will is a power removal box, a telephone, and a pressurized water fire extinguisher

Answer 4

Explanation:
B- Emergency Evacuation Devices (EED) are found at the 1st blue light south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end). At elevated stations the EED is found near the full time token booth……EED can also be found at the base of emergency exits and at the ends of each river tunnel…AUC 207 add 11 sec 2
C- approximately 600 feet apart……section valves are every 200 feet apart
D- Dry Chemical Extinguisher
AUC 207 sec 8.1 and 8.5

Question 5

Question 19:
Which of the following choices is the CORRECT way to address individual marking situations on CIDS buildings?

A: When interconnected/attached buildings and building complexes have a separate house number posted on each building, a CIDS entry must be entered for the first and last address in the range. The separate building numbers are added in the transmitted data portion of the card.

B: When a single building has multiple addresses listed in the FDNY BIS or FDNY Map Application, but only a single address posted on the building, a CIDS Card must be completed for each address.

C: When a single building has an address range posted on the building, the combined number should also be included in the Transmitted Data portion of each CIDS entry.

D: When a single building with a single address posted fronts on more than one street, a CIDS entry must be completed for each street front.

Answer 5

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 4 – CIDS
C IS CORRECT 4.5.1 #3
A – CIDS entries must be prepared for each address with the transmitted data portion of each CIDS entry indicating the number of buildings in the complex. 4.5.1#4
B – Prepare a CIDS entry for the posted address. The unit officer will determine if additional CIDS are required for any other applicable addresses. 4.5.1#2
D – When a single building regardless of size has a single address, prepare one CIDS entry. This provision applies even if the building fronts on more than one street.

Question 6

Question 17:
In addition to normally assigned ladder company tools, the FAST Unit shall report to the ICP with the following equipment. Which item listed is incorrect?

A: 2:1 Rope

B: Skeds

C: Pak-tracker

D: Search Rope

Answer 6

Explanation:
B. STOKES BASKET WITH LONG BACKBOARD

ALSO THE FAST PAK

CODE: ROPE/ROPE; PAK/PAK; STOKES

MMID Ch 2 8.0

Question 7

Question 20:
Which of the following indicates the CORRECT use of the 10-25 CODE?

A: Lt. A transmitted a 10-25-4 for contents fire in a transformer room in the subcellar of a building.

B: Lt. B transmitted a 10-25 code 2 for smoke seeping from a pair of blown manholes.

C: Lt. C transmitted a 10-25 Code 3 for smoke issuing from a manhole under pressure.

D: Lt. D transmitted a 10-25 Code 1 for replacing a missing manhole cover.

Answer 7

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS.
B IS CORRECT – 10-25 Code 2 – Fire has blown one or more manhole covers or smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure.
A – 25-4 is for fire or smoke condition from a transformer at any location. (This is a contents fire in the transformer room)
C – 25-2
D – 25 no code.

Question 8

Question 17:
The incident commander can special call a communications unit anytime they deem necessary. You are working in Engine 100 and discussing the dispatch policy with the members over roll call. Which choice below is INCORRECT about the response matrix for these units?

A: 10-60 transmitted for the collapse of an exterior wall of a private dwelling.

B: 10-66 transmitted for an unconscious member trapped in the cellar of an MD.

C: 10-75 transmitted for fire in the sub-cellar of a commercial building

D: 10-76 transmitted for fire on the 40th floor of a 60 story Commercial Building.

Answer 8

Explanation:
ICS CHAPTER 2 ADDENDUM 3 – COMMUNICATIONS UNIT
A – All 1060’s – 3.1
B – All 1066’s – 3.1
C – 1075’s for below grade incidents in facilities other than buildings. 3.1
D – All 1076’s – 3.1

Question 9

Question 23:
Tower Ladder 200 arrived second due to a fire on the first floor of a peaked roof private dwelling. Ladder 100 is already on-scene and operating as per department SOP’s. Members of TL200 took the following actions. Which one was incorrect?

A: The Roof/OV team took a 6’ halligan hook and a halligan for each member.

B: The Roof/OV team vented the roof as directed by their officer.

C: With the Roof/OV team utilizing the bucket for VEIS, the LCC remained on the turntable until the fire was controlled and members inside were not in immediate danger.

D: After determining that the second arriving apparatus would not be used, the LCC contacted the first arriving LCC to determine if assistance was required.

Answer 9

Explanation:
B. Vent the roof as directed by THE FIRST ARRIVING LADDER COMPANY OFFICER OPERATING INSIDE THE FIRE AREA.

Private Dwellings Ch 4: 5.8

Question 10

Question 23:
It is 0859 hrs and an ERS box comes in for the intersection of Truth Street & Justice Avenue. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding response policy for units on ERS boxes?

A: If there is no contact with the caller, there is no response for FD units.

B: If there is no contact with the caller, a single engine company will be assigned to respond to the box location.

C: A minimum of three engines, one ladder, and one battalion chief shall be dispatched on an alarm from an ERS box reporting smoke and/or fire in a structure.

D: If units are 1084 and a second source is received, the dispatcher will fill out box unless advised otherwise by units on the scene.

Answer 10

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 6 – ALARM RESPONSE
A IS CORRECT – Between the hours of 0800 & 2300 if there is no contact with the caller on an ERS box, there is no response. 6.2.4.
B – See A – Time is 0859 hrs.
C – A minimum of three engines, TWO LADDERS, and one Battalion Chief shall be dispatched on any alarm received from a single source (ERS & Telephone) reporting smoke and/or fire in a structure. 6.2.2 NOTE
D – If FD units are already on the scene and a second source is received, the dispatcher will notify the responding Battalion Chief and attempt to contact a unit on the scene. The box will NOT be fill out by the dispatcher unless requested to do so by the responding BC or the on-scene Incident Commander. 6.2.3

Question 11

Question 34:
When contemplating power removal at a major gas emergency when the leak location is known, if any readings display levels of ____ LEL or greater, the opportunity to cut power has expired.
A: 10

B: 20

C: 50

D: 80

Answer 11

Explanation:
NOTE: ALSO IF UNABLE TO LOCATE THE SOURCE OF THE LEAK, DO NOT SHUT POWER.

Question 12

Question 2:
Which of the following responses to a verbal alarm while assigned to another response is INCORRECT according to department policy?

A: While enroute to an electrical emergency, Engine 223 is flagged down on a verbal for a large rubbish fire that is extending to an unoccupied car. The officer advises the dispatcher of the verbal and stops to extinguish the extending fire.

B: While enroute to a first due gas leak, Engine 244 is flagged down on a verbal for a civilian hit by a bus. The officer advises the dispatcher of the verbal and stops to provide medical care to the injured civilian.

C: While enroute as the extra engine to a fire in an MD with reported people trapped, Engine 256 is flagged down on a verbal for fire coming from the windows of a PD. The officer advises the dispatcher of the verbal and stops to operate at the second structural fire.

D: While enroute to a difficulty breathing CFR response, Engine 269 is flagged down on a verbal for fire coming from the windows of an isolated vacant building where there is no life hazard. The officer advises the dispatcher of the verbal and continues onto the CFR response.

Answer 12

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 6 – ALARM RESPONSE
A IS INCORRECT – In the event the unit is responding to another alarm, and it is evident human life is NOT in jeopardy at the scene of the verbal alarm, the unit shall proceed to the original alarm after transmitting radio notification of a verbal alarm to dispatcher and receiving acknowledgement. 6.5.2
B – Until the unit stops to assess, it is unknown whether human life is in jeopardy.
C – Until the unit stops to assess, it is unknown whether human life is in jeopardy.
D – There is no life hazard. The unit is required to proceed to the original alarm.

Question 13

Question 30:
Oxygen in the air is the primary oxidizing agent in most fires. Normally, air consists of 20.8% oxygen. When oxygen falls below ________ %, the flaming combustion will diminish, causing combustion to continue in the non-flaming mode.

A: 15%

B: 16%

C: 17%

D: 18%

Answer 13

Explanation:
This means that below 15% there will not be visible flames, but because combustion continues in the non-flaming mode, heat and dense, fuel rich smoke will continue to be produced. If oxygen is introduced to this type of atmosphere, the fuel rich environment can ignite and be hazardous to FFs
Fire Dynamics ch 1 sec 2.6.1 (in Bold) May 2021

Question 14

BACK LIST NEXT
Question 39:
When refilling and pressurizing the water extinguisher members must take proper safety precautions. Which one is incorrect?

A: Always ensure all pressure is properly relieved from the extinguisher prior to attempting recharge.

B: Regulated extinguisher pressurization source should never be set higher than 125 PSI.

C: Never stand directly in front of the extinguisher gauge or stand over the valve during pressurization.

D: Never use the apparatus to recharge the extinguisher due to the risk of water entering the brake system.

Answer 14

Explanation:
D. THE APPARATUS HAS A ONE WAY VALVE IN THE AIRLINE TO PREVENT WATER FROM ENTERING THE BRAKE SYSTEM.
TB Tools 1 6.0

Question 15

BACK LIST NEXT
Question 7:
During company drill on portable ladder placement, one member of a busy Brooklyn Ladder Company made which incorrect comment?

A: For fire on the 2nd floor of a 5-story tenement without a front fire escape, portable ladders should only be raised to the 3rd and 4th floors.

B: For fire on the 2nd floor of a 6-story tenement with a front fire escape, a portable ladder should be raised to the first balcony at a point opposite the drop ladder if the fire escape is becoming crowded.

C: For fire on the 2nd floor of a 6-story tenement with a front fire escape, where a portable ladder has already been raised to the first balcony and more relief is required, another portable ladder should be raised to the second balcony.

D: If panic conditions reign on the fire escape, attempt to keep the ladders out of reach of the people while raising and positioning them.

Answer 15

Explanation:
A) For fire on the 2nd floor of a 5-story tenement without a front fire escape, portable ladders should be raised to the 3rd floor and adjacent to the fire on the 2nd floor.
A Note: In a tenement without a front fire escape, when fire is in the cellar, 1st floor and/or 2nd floor, raise portable ladders adjacent to and above the fire area, even if the aerial ladder will be required on the upper floors.
D Note: If a panic stricken victim interferes with the ladder raising procedure, members may lose control of the ladder and it may fall and cause injury.
Lad 1 10.1

Question 16

Question 12:
As the first arriving Ladder Company at a 6-story Old Law Tenement with fire on the 4th floor, which choice reflects the most correct tool assignment for the Roof Firefighter?
A: Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan tool, Axe/Maul, Life Saving Rope

B: Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan tool, 6`Hook, Life Saving Rope

C: Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan tool, 6`Halligan Hook, Life Saving Rope

D: Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan tool, 10`Hook, Utility Rope

Answer 16

C

Question 17

Question 16:
Safety is a priority when utilizing the aerial ladder. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: Before placing the aerial ladder into operation, the area immediately around the turntable should be designated a Danger Zone.

B: Before placing the aerial ladder into operation, the Danger Zone around the turntable should be clear of members, tools or any impediments before rotation of the aerial.

C: When placing the aerial ladder into operation, if a firefighter is to climb the aerial ladder, he or she shall climb onto the turntable after the aerial ladder is raised and rotated.

D: Always have the chauffeur remain close to the apparatus while the aerial is in use. For extended operations or when the turntable will be left unattended, disengage the power-take-off in order to prevent accidental movement of the ladder.

Answer 17

Explanation:
C) BEFORE placing the aerial ladder into operation, if a firefighter is to climb the aerial ladder at the start of an operation, he or she shall be in position on the turntable BEFORE the aerial ladder is to be raised and rotated.
Lad 2 8.17, 8.25

Question 18

Question 23:
At a 2nd floor fire in a 4-story Brownstone, the first arriving Ladder Company brought in a number of tools. Which member did not come equipped with the correct tool assignment?

A: The Extinguisher Firefighter brought the 6’ hook, pressurized water extinguisher, Flashlight and HT.

B: The Forcible Entry Firefighter brought the Maul, Halligan, rabbit tool, Flashlight and HT.

C: The OV Firefighter brought the 6’ hook, Halligan, Flashlight and HT.

D: The Roof Firefighter brought the 6’ Halligan Hook, Flashlight, HT and Life Saving Rope (LSR).

Answer 18

Explanation:
D) The Roof Firefighter brought the HALLIGAN, 6’ Halligan Hook, Flashlight, HT and Life Saving Rope (LSR).
B Note: Instead of the Maul, this member could have brought the Axe.
C Note: For top floor fires, the saw is taken in place of the hook.
BS/RF 2.6

Question 19

Question 7:
At a 2nd alarm structural fire, who is considered the Water Resource Officer if the delivery of water is a problem?

A: 2nd arriving Engine officer

B: 3rd arriving Engine officer

C: Squad officer

D: Satellite officer

Answer 19

Explanation:
Prior to a 2nd alarm the Water Resource Officer is the 2nd arriving engine officer….Engine Operations ch 4 sec 11.2
*The 2nd eng off is the water resource officer until the satellite arrives
At a 2nd alarm (that’s when a Satellite Unit is assigned to structural fires) the Water Resource Officer is the Satellite Unit Officer (1st arriving Satellite Unit)….AUC 274 sec 1.2.4 and Comm ch 7 p-23

Question 20

Question 9:
The probationary firefighter of Ladder 200 had to drill more on aerial ladder operations after making which error when discussing climbing the aerial ladder with tools?]

A: Hand rails are generally used when climbing the ladder with a tool.

B: At steep angles, greater safety is achieved by using the rungs when climbing the ladder with a tool.

C: The 6’ hook need not be carried on the ladder. The hook is extended arm’s length overhead and hooked on a rung.

D: When on a rung, the hook is not touched again until the member has climbed to a position where the top of the hook is about waist level.

Answer 20

Explanation:
D) The hook is not touched until the member has climbed to a position where the top of the hook is about KNEE level.
Lad 2 7.15

Question 21

Question 18:
Engine 256 and Ladder 171 are just returning from an ERS Box and the Officers are discussing the ERS response policy. Which choice regarding the policy is CORRECT? **1 – Between the hours of 0800 & 2300, if there is no contact with the caller, there is no response. ***2 – Between the hours of 2300 & 0800, if there is no contact with the caller, there is no response. ***3 – Between the hours of 0800 & 2300, if there is no contact with the caller, one engine is required to respond. **4 – Between the hours of 2300 & 0800, if there is no contact with the caller, one engine is required to respond.

A: 1 & 2 are Correct

B: 2 & 3 are Correct

C: 1 & 4 are Correct

D: 3 & 4 are Correct

Answer 21

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 6
C IS CORRECT 6.2.4 – If there is no contact with the caller on an ERS box between 0800 & 2300 hours, there is no response. If there is no contact between 2300 & 0800 hours, one engine is required to respond.

Question 22

Question 22:
The members of Engine 256 were discussing manhole emergencies and response tickets. Which of the following choices reflects INCORRECT information regarding these responses?
A:✔A Purple K unit is assigned to the box. They are indicated by a P after the associated engine company..

B: A Fire Ice unit is assigned to the box. They are indicated by a I after the associated engine company.

C:✘Signal 10-25 code 2 is transmitted for smoke issuing from a manhole under pressure.

D: Signal 10-25 codes 1 & 4 will result in the utility company immediately dispatching an emergency crew.

Answer 22

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 2 & 8
A IS INCORRECT – The P for purple K is a PREFIX – Unit ID will be P296 Chapter 2 pg 2-17
B – Chapter 2 pg 2-17
C – Fire has blown one or more manhole covers, or smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure. pg 8-9
D – 8-9 bottom

Question 23

Question 29:
As an Engine Company assigned on the 3rd alarm for a fire in a high rise office building, you are expected to bring certain tools to the lobby area. Your unit should bring each of the following except?

A: SCBAs

B: Spare SCBA cylinders

C: Forcible Entry tools

D: Rolled up lengths

Answer 23

Explanation: c
If not required for their specific use, such equipment will be added to Forward Staging Area supply for future use by units engaged in actual firefighting operations.
HROB 9.6.2

Question 24

Question 31:
The study of fire dynamics should be a part of the curriculum of every major Fire Department. Of the following choices, which is correct?

A: A combustible liquid is a liquid that has a flash point below 100’F while a flammable liquid is a liquid that has a flash point equal to or greater than 100’F.

B: A flammable liquid is a liquid that has a flash point below 100’F while a combustible liquid is a liquid that has a flash point equal to or greater than 100’F.

C: A combustible liquid is a liquid that has a flash point below 200’F while a flammable liquid is a liquid that has a flash point equal to or greater than 200’F.

D: A flammable liquid is a liquid that has a flash point below 100’F while a combustible liquid is a liquid that has a flash point equal to or greater than 200’F.

Answer 24

B

Question 25

Question 32:
At a structural collapse operation, certain tools are required to be used under specific conditions. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Jackhammers, concrete cutting saws and torches are required for Class 1 buildings.

B: Chainsaws are appropriate at most buildings with wooden floors and roofs.

C: Heavy demolition equipment (cranes, bulldozers, etc.) are required during the Selected Debris Removal stage.

D: Tools that produce no exhaust fumes, such as battery or electrically powered tools, are preferable to gasoline driven units.

Answer 25

Explanation:
C) Heavy demolition equipment (cranes, bulldozers, etc.) ARE FORBIDDEN during the Selected Debris Removal stage.
D Note: Besides emitting no fumes, electric tools are easier to put down and pick up again without the hassle of having to shut them off and restart them; moreover, they lack the noise of a gas engine.
Collapse 11.13.2, 11.13.4

Question 26

Question 38:
Which gas valve(s) mentioned below can only be shut down by FDNY members in consultation with the utility company?

A: Curb Valve only

B: Curb Valve & Main Valve

C: Head of Service Valve & Curb Valve

D: Main Valve only

Answer 26

Explanation:
NO MENTION OF CONSULTING WITH UTILITY FOR HEAD OF SERVICE VALVE

FDNY MEMBERS ARE NOT PERMITTED TO SHUT THE MAIN VALVE

THE CURB VALVE CAN BE SHUT BY FDNY MEMBERS AS A LAST RESORT AND IN CONSULTATION WITH THE UTILITY COMPANY

Natural Gas 6.7.3 #5, #6, #7

Question 27

Question 29:
The incorrect operation/tactic for line units during civil disorder can be found in which choice?

A: Members are to avoid personal engagement or confrontation with civilians. Where doubt exists, as to the ability of the FDNY to proceed safely, members should wait for NYPD force protection and support

B: The Task Force convoy consists 1 BC, 2 Engines, 1 Ladder, and EMS. In the event of an apparatus breakdown, the Task Force convoy should remain intact until assistance arrives

C: All warning lights are to be “on” for daytime as well as nighttime

D: Air horns are not to be used during Task Force response unless directed by Task Force Force Leader

E: Task Force preliminary reports via radio shall be plain speak. No coded signals

Answer 27

E

Question 28

Question 33:
In order for FDNY members to operate inside the warm zone during an Active Shooter Incident (Aggressive Deadly Behavior), members must seek approval by whom?
A: Company Officer

B: Battalion Chief

C: Deputy Chief

D: Staff Chief

Answer 28

Explanation:c
FDNY members shall only operate inside the warm zone when requested by the NYPD. This operation must be approved by a FDNY Deputy Chief, unless the NYPD IC requests entry for immediate life-saving medical intervention
ERP add 3A sec 7.5

Question 29

Question 36:
Your unit, an Aerial Ladder Company, is dispatched to the scene of a structural collapse of a 4-story row frame as a SOC Support Ladder. Where should your apparatus be positioned?

A: In front of the building, with your second piece located near your main apparatus.

B: In front of the building, with your second piece kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area (unless needed for specific rescue purposes).

C: Kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area (unless needed for specific rescue purposes) with your second piece located near your main apparatus.

D: Kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area (unless needed for specific rescue purposes) with your second piece located in front of the building.

Answer 29

Explanation:
Aerial ladders should be kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area unless needed for specific rescue purposes. SOC Support Ladder Companies shall position the same as other ladder apparatus, with their second pieces located near the main apparatus. Personnel can carry equipment, tools, etc., to scene.
Collapse 5.4

Question 30

Question 39:
When operating at a gas emergency, which of the following letters stamped on a tag near the service meter indicates there is no curb valve or service valve?
A: NCV”

B: “NSV”

C: NC”

D: “NS”

Answer 30

C

Question 31

Question 18:
For a member in distress, air may be supplied to the member through the use of the low pressure system by one of the following methods: 1) Via the Universal Air Connection 2) FAST Pak regulator with the member’s facepiece 3) Hansen fitting of the low pressure hose 4) FAST Pak facepiece and regulator. Which methods are correct?

A: 1, 2, 3, 4

B: 1, 2, 3 only

C: 2, 3, 4 only

D: 1, 2, 4 only

Answer 31

Explanation:
THE USE OF THE UNIVERSAL AIR CONNECTION IS A HIGH PRESSURE METHOD

Managing Members in Distress Ch 2 7.5, TB SCBA 9.1

Question 32

Question 24:
Which of the following building classifications is CORRECT?

A: A 150x150 Non-Fireproof MD that was renovated using metal C joist is classified as CL3LW.

B: A 25x60 Wood Frame PD that was renovated using metal C joist is classified as CL2LW.

C: A 80x80 15sty Fire Protected MD that was renovated using C joist is classified at CL2R.

D: A 200x200 Heavy Timber structure that was renovated using Mass Timber engineered products should be classified as CL6HT

Answer 32

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 4 – CIDS – NEW MATERIAL 3/22
A IS CORRECT – 4.5.3 Ciii – A Non-Fireproof structure which is constructed, renovated, repaired, using any type of structural light-weight materials should be classified as CL3LW.
B – CL4LW
C – CL2LW
D – CL6MT – Constructed, renovated, repaired

Question 33

Question 40:
Laddering a Brownstone with portable ladders presents specific challenges to operating members. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Placing a portable ladder at the window of the small room over the front entrance door will be difficult because of the long, high stoop, which may interfere with firefighting operations. Consider placing the ladder at the adjoining window to gain entrance to this small room.

B: There may be 2 doors to the small room over the front entrance door; one from the interior hall and one from a larger adjoining bedroom. If there is no door leading into the small room from the large bedroom and hallway fire conditions prevent normal entry into the small room, access may be gained by breaking through the lath and plaster partition between the two rooms.

C: Some Brownstones have small, elevated or depressed courts in the front of the building, adjacent to the stoop. They generally have a small wall or iron railing around them, creating additional obstacles.

D: In most cases, taking the ladder through the second floor (parlor floor) of an adjoining brownstone and passing it out the rear window to another member in the yard below is faster than using the fire building. It is important to take the ladder through with the tip facing the rear of the building.

Answer 33

Explanation:
D) In most cases, taking the ladder through the second floor (parlor floor) of an adjoining brownstone and passing it out the rear window to another member in the yard below is faster than using the fire building. It is important to take the ladder through with the BUTT facing the rear of the building.
Note: In a row frame, transporting a ladder through the interior of the building to the rear is generally less complicated because there are front and rear doors or window entries at ground level.
Lad 1 10.2

Question 34

BACK LIST NEXT
Question 35:
Sidewalk Vaults may be found in Older Cast-Iron Lofts. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding these vaults?

A: They are three-wall enclosures located under the front sidewalk.

B: The vault can extend downward to all sub-levels of the building and may extend the full width of the sidewalk. An indicator of a “full” vault is a large piece of granite stone covering the sidewalk to the curb line.

C: The ceiling of the vault was originally constructed of a brick arch design with cubed glass for natural light to enter.

D: The frame can span the entire width of the building and extend from the building wall to the street.

Answer 34

Explanation:
C) The ceiling of the vault was originally constructed of a wrought-iron or cast-iron frame with small segmented fixed glass orbs (deadlights) to allow natural light to enter.
C Note: Today, the glass may have been totally or partially replaced with diamond plate, cubed-glass, granite, stone, or concrete.
B Note: Vaulted sidewalks are generally supported by wrought-iron I-beams or cast-iron structural members.
Lofts 5.1.1 c

Question 35

Question 1:
During a Positive Pressure Fan operation the ventilation group supervisor shall instruct ventilation group members to survey the attack stairs below the fire to verify that doors in the stair enclosure are maintained closed, unless operating hoselines are stretched through the door. Which companies shall verify that stair doors are maintained closed above the fire?

A: 2nd and 3rd Ladder companies

B: 3rd and 4th Ladder companies

C: 3rd Ladder company only

D: Rescue and Squad companies

Answer 35

AUC 349 sec 7.3. Bbb

Question 36

Question 19:
Which Brownstone feature is described incorrectly?

A: A stoop may be present which provides access to the 2nd floor, but can interfere with laddering of the 3rd floor. Some stoops have been removed to modernize the front.

B: In the front of the building, a grate over the vent hole often has wooden cover, which can be removed for ventilation.

C: A coal chute with a metal cover is often found in the street or sunken court. It provides ventilation for basement fires.

D: As a rule, a brick parapet is carried above the roof 8” or higher. Generally, there is no parapet on the back wall of the roof.

Answer 36

Explanation:
C) A coal chute with a metal cover is often found in the street or sunken court. It provides ventilation for CELLAR fires.
BS/RF Add 1 p3

Question 37

Question 27:
When using a portable ladder to stretch a hoseline, the line may be stretched dry and charged once in position, or it may be advanced up the ladder while charged. When advancing while charged, each of the following procedures should be followed with the exception of which choice?

A: When a charged hoseline is advanced up a portable ladder, the nozzle firefighter should carry the hose in their left hand.

B: When a charged hoseline is advanced up a portable ladder, the hose should be maintained on the left side of the ladder.

C: When the nozzle firefighter is to operate the hoseline from a position on the portable ladder, they should clip the hook of their personal harness to the rail of the ladder.

D: When the nozzle firefighter is to operate the hoseline from a position on the portable ladder, the base of the ladder must be secured.

Answer 37

Explanation:
C) When the nozzle firefighter is to operate the hoseline from a position on the portable ladder, they should clip the hook of their personal harness to a RUNG of the ladder.
Eng Ch 7 10.8, 10.9

Question 38

Question 30:
The second due ladder company officer is operating on the floor above the fire in a multiple dwelling. Upon arrival at the doorway to the apartment on the floor above, the officer shall take all but which of the following actions?

A: Control, communicate and coordinate any required horizontal ventilation.

B: Evaluate the ventilation profile, paying particular attention to the air being pulled in.

C: Determine if fire has extended to this area and request a hoseline if needed.

D: If the ladder company officer determines the fire has communicated to the floor above, limited ventilation is justifiable if it facilitates search operations, with the understanding of potentially pulling to that location.

Answer 38

Question 30:
The second due ladder company officer is operating on the floor above the fire in a multiple dwelling. Upon arrival at the doorway to the apartment on the floor above, the officer shall take all but which of the following actions?

A: Control, communicate and coordinate any required horizontal ventilation.

B: Evaluate the ventilation profile, paying particular attention to the air being pulled in.

C: Determine if fire has extended to this area and request a hoseline if needed.

D: If the ladder company officer determines the fire has communicated to the floor above, limited ventilation is justifiable if it facilitates search operations, with the understanding of potentially pulling to that location.

Question 39

Question 36:
During company drill on elevator operations in high rise fireproof multiple dwellings, FF Red made an incorrect comment. Indicate the incorrect comment.

A: Elevators equipped with Fire Service shall be operated by a firefighter and personnel shall exit at least two floors below the fire.

B: After members disembark the elevator car, the firefighter operating the elevator shall place the elevator on “Hold” at the location. When an elevator not equipped with Fire Service is used, it shall be returned to the lobby unstaffed.

C: Doors to elevator machinery rooms at the roof level should not be used for ventilation purposes until the fire is under control. When under control, these doors can be vented by opening them to the exterior, as long as wind will not force smoke back into the building.

D: Overloading of elevators must be avoided as a stalled elevator car is an elevator car out of service. Look for maximum load signs and consider each member and their equipment to be greater than 275 pounds.

Answer 39

B) After members disembark the elevator car, the firefighter operating the elevator shall RETURN TO THE LOBBY WITH THE ELEVATOR. When an elevator not equipped with Fire Service is used, it shall be returned to the lobby unstaffed.
A Note: Before proceeding to the fire floor, members shall survey the layout of the stairs, hallway, and apartment below the fire apartment.
MD Ch 2 5.1, 5.3, 5.5

Question 40

Question 1:
Which choice demonstrates the CORRECT use of the 1031 Code?

A: Companies respond on a box to evaluate the structural stability of a building under construction.

B: An Engine is assigned to assist EMS on a highway box by blocking traffic.

C: Companies are assigned to a box where they remove an uninjured worker from a stalled scaffold.

D: An Engine company gets flagged down on a verbal for several abandoned propane cylinders.

Answer 40

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
B IS CORRECT – All calls for assistance other than medical assignments, including a unit assigned to protect EMS by diverting or blocking traffic at a highway incident, good intention calls, calls handled by other agencies, any type of investigation, searches and complaints, and lock outs.
A, C, D – The 1031 signal shall not be utilized for any incident/emergency involving evaluation of structural stability, any operation involving a rescue or mitigation effort, or any type of hazardous condition.

Question 41

Question 8:
While conducting Building Inspection, you and your firefighters discover numerous violations warranting a Violation Order (VO) to be written. Several of the violations need to be corrected forthwith, and several violations can be corrected at a later date (compliance date). The most correct way to to issue the above violations can be found in which choice?

A: Forthwith orders and with one other compliance date may be written on the same VO

B: Under no circumstances will a forthwith order and an order with a compliance date be issued on the same VO

C: A separate VO shall always be issued for each violation found

D: In the case where multiple violations are found companies shall issue a FDNY summons instead of a VO

Answer 41

NON-REFERENCE
If the different compliance times are confusing to the person receiving the order, then the inspector should issue separate VO’s for each compliance date. The recommendation is to use separate orders. Write as many orders as required to enforce all of the items in violation
AUC 5 ch 3 add 2 sec 8

Question 42

Question 35:
At some fires in nonfireproof tenements, members of the 1st Ladder may face unique challenges. One situation that may arise is the obvious need to use the aerial for the roof firefighter but at the same time there is an apparent need to remove an occupant. Of the following factors to be considered in reaching this decision, which is incorrectly described?

A: Emotional state of the occupant - An agitated, frightened occupant or one threatening to jump should be removed first.

B: Fire/Smoke in the immediate vicinity of the occupant - The occupant must receive instant attention if he/she would be endangered or seriously disturbed by any delay in his/her removal.

C: Location and severity of the fire - A rear first floor fire will not normally require immediate removal of occupants from the 3rd, 4th, or higher floors in the front of the building. Conversely, a fire on the upper floors rarely requires removal operations on lower floors.

D: Time Element - When the aerial ladder is needed both for removal and roof access, roof access can be given priority if the person to be removed is in no immediate danger or if there is doubt as to whether or not the person would be in danger.

Answer 42

Explanation:
D) Time Element - When the aerial ladder is needed both for removal and roof access, roof access can be given priority if the person to be removed is in no immediate danger. If ANY DOUBT exists REMOVE THE OCCUPANT FIRST.
Note: After roof access has been attained, the aerial ladder may be used for the removal, keeping in mind that the ladder must be repositioned as quickly as possible to avoid endangering the roof firefighter should the roof position become untenable.
Lad 3 3.2.4

Question 43

Question 7:
Which of the following conditions is indicative of a major gas emergency?

A: 20% LEL inside or outside.

B: 10% LEL in an unvented subsurface structure.

C: Gas present on one or more subsurface structures.

D: Indications of gas migrating into a building from an inside source.

Answer 43

Explanation:
B. 20% LEL OR GREATER in an unvented subsurface structure.

C. Gas present on TWO OR MORE subsurface structures.

D. Indications of gas migrating into a building from an OUTSIDE SOURCE.

NOTE “A” IS CORRECT AS WRITTEN. Its 10% OR GREATER inside or outside.

Natural Gas 5.0 Pg 15

Question 44

Question 21:
Which choice below correctly describes what FDNY considers to be a “PCB Transformer”

A: A transformer labeled 0-49 ppm

B: A transformer labeled 50-499 ppm

C: A transformer labeled 500 ppm and higher

D: Choices A,B,C, are considered PCB transformers

Answer 44

Explanation:
NYC Fire Department considers a transformer with any amount of PCBs as a “PCB Transformer”
AUC 266 add 3 sec 1.5.5.Note1

Question 45

Question 24:
Tower Ladder maintenance is important to ensuring the overall operating efficiency of these units. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: At the start of every tour verify the platform control switch on the pedestal is engaged.

B: The condition of safety belts installed in the bucket shall be inspected daily.

C: During Multi-Unit-Drill, at operations or in quarters, a visual check of the compression and tension bolts at the turntable “5th wheel” shall be made for missing or sheared bolts. A hand check for tightness of those bolts that are accessible shall be made.

D: During bleeding of the air brake tanks, a visual check of the hydraulic lines to the main reservoir shall be made, noting any developing cuts or other signs of possible failure of these lines. In addition, a visual check for broken spring sections shall be made.

Answer 45

Explanation:
A) At the start of every tour verify the platform control switch on the pedestal is NOT engaged, as this will deactivate the bucket controls.
TL Ch 7

Question 46

Question 37:
Which tactic implemented for a store fire on the 1st floor of an H-type building was not in accordance with Department procedures?

A: The first line was stretched into the store to extinguish the fire. Water was directed into all known and suspected vertical and horizontal openings.

B: The second line was advanced to the floor above the fire when it was obvious that the first line was able to control the store fire.

C: The first ladder forced entry into the store, checked the rear of the store for possible extension into public areas of the building, and quickly opened ceilings and voids.

D: The second ladder went to the cellar to search for life and extension, and the shut utilities.

Answer 46

Explanation:
D) The second ladder went to the floor above for forcible entry and search for life and extension.
D Note: Areas larger than the actual size of the store must be checked due to the possibility of horizontal travel of fire and smoke. These buildings have a peculiarity, in that many times a fire will bypass intermediate areas both vertically and horizontally and then, when an obstruction is met, will set fire to the surrounding material.
B Note: If two lines are needed in the store, the third line shall be stretched to the floor above.
MD Ch 1 4.7.2

Question 47

Question 32:
In addition to the standpipe hose maintained in roll-ups and hose carried in the hosebeds, additional hose is required to be carried on the Engine apparatus. Descriptions of what is required are accurately portrayed below in all choices except?
A: At least 3 lengths of 1 ¾” hose shall be carried, rolled or arranged in a roll-up, for use as an additional length in a hose stretch. One of these 1 ¾” hose lengths should be maintained with a nozzle attached.

B: Two lengths of 1 ¾” hose to be used as a “booster line”. This hose should be maintained with a fog nozzle attached to one length and is intended to be used on outside fires, such as rubbish fires or car fires.

C: In an emergency, the “booster line” can be used to apply water from the exterior of the fire building.

D: Hose used as a “booster line” should be maintained pre-connected to a discharge outlet. It may also be maintained pre-connected to a gated wye attached to a discharge outlet.

Answer 47

Explanation:
A) At least 4 LENGTHS of 1 ¾” hose shall be carried, rolled or arranged in a roll-up, for use as an additional length in a hose stretch. One of these 1 ¾” hose lengths should be maintained with a nozzle attached.
D Note: This hose may be maintained either rolled or folded. Generally, it is stored on the front bumper of the apparatus.
Eng Ch 2 12.1

Question 48

Question 34:
Which choice is most correct when describing the M2 Rail cars found on the New Haven line of the Metro North?

A: M2 cars operate in pairs, one “A” car (an even numbered car) having a pantograph is coupled to a “B” car (odd numbered car) having no pantograph. A PCB transformer will be found on the “A” car only

B: M2 cars operate in pairs, one “A” car (an odd numbered car) having a pantograph is coupled to a “B” car (even numbered car) having no pantograph. A PCB transformer will be found on both cars

C: M2 cars operate in pairs, one “A” car (an even numbered car) having a pantograph is coupled to a “B” car (odd numbered car) having a pantograph. A PCB transformer will be found on both cars

D: M2 cars operate in pairs, one “A” car (an even numbered car) having a pantograph is coupled to a “B” car (odd numbered car) having no pantograph. A PCB transformer will be found on both cars

Answer 48

Explanation:
AUC 266 add 2 sec 3
M2 cars have Orange Stripes
This section has been used on several Lieutenants exams

Question 49

Question 23:
The 10-foot scissor ladder is a useful tool for the OV firefighter at a brownstone fire and can be used in a variety of manners. Which choice below is not a practical use of this tool?

A: Used in a closed position for venting.

B: Used to access the 2nd floor for VEIS.

C: Used to access the roof of a 1 story setback.

D: Used to access the 3rd or 4th floor from the roof of a setback for ventilation.

Answer 49

Explanation:
D) Used to access the 3RD FLOOR from the roof of a setback for ventilation.
Note: Prior to VEIS, the OV shall be teamed up with another available member.
Note: This tool can also provide means of climbing fences.
BS/RF 2.6 E, B

Question 50

Question 29:
While searching a plane crash site on JFK property, you discovered a flight data recorder, which was rectangular. The correct color of this rectangular flight data recorder can be found in which choice?
A: International Orange

B: International Red

C: Bright Yellow

D: Bright Orange

Answer 50

Explanation:
As a general rule, the voice and flight data recorders are located in the rear of the fuselage. Spherical recorders are painted bright yellow, while rectangular recorders are red or international orange. Once located and secured, the recorders must not be opened or tampered with
AUC 325 sec 4.2.3

Question 51

Question 31:
Engine officers should develop a physical communication system with the nozzle firefighter for use when voice communications cannot be heard. Of the following touch signals indicated in Department publications, which one is correct?\

A: Open or close the nozzle – one or two slaps on the SCBA.

B: Direction of stream – tap on the arm or nozzle, either left or right.

C: Advance hoseline – steady push on back or SCBA. Stop line advance – pull back on shoulder, bunker coat, or SCBA.

D: Emergency withdrawal – 3 slaps on the shoulder and pull in direction of retreat.

Answer 51

Explanation:
A) Open or close the nozzle – one or two slaps on the BACK or SHOULDER.
B) Direction of stream – TUG on the arm or nozzle, either left or right.
D) Emergency withdrawal – 4 SLAPS on the shoulder and pull in direction of retreat.
Note: These touch signals can be used in conjunction with verbal commands to relay orders.
Eng Ch 4 9.7

Question 52

Question 36:
Fire extension is always a possibility when fighting a fire in an H-type building. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: The most probable point for vertical fire extension will be the vertical steel channels (in buildings that have steel frame construction). These columns have no specific location and many are completely hidden. Any boxed out area, if involved in fire, must be opened up and examined.

B: Closets are a very probable point of vertical extension. At times the vertical steel columns are located in the walls of these closets.

C: Always examine walls in the vicinity of the bathroom for the large void enclosing the waste pipe.

D: In renovated and/or rehabilitated buildings, the boxed out interior shafts for plumbing, electrical, steam, etc., must be checked as they may be open from basement to cockloft. These large shafts are generally found behind kitchens and bathrooms and are discernible by unusually thin partition walls, which readily blend in with features of the previous structure.

Answer 52

Explanation:
D) In renovated and/or rehabilitated buildings, the boxed out interior shafts for plumbing, electrical, steam, etc., must be checked as they may be open from basement to cockloft. These large shafts are generally found behind kitchens and bathrooms and are discernible by UNUSUALLY THICK partition walls, which are INCONSISTENT with previous structures.
Note: Other vertical voids to examine would be pipe recesses and shafts of any type, such as elevator, dumbwaiter, vents etc. Any time fire enters a vertical void, the top and bottom must be checked for extension.
Note: Fires in channel rails necessitate opening up above and at the top floor ceiling to check for extension into the cockloft.
MD Ch 1 4.10.1, 4.10.2

Question 53

Question 38:
Hi-Ex foam is best suited for use in confined areas on Class “A” fires. Several features of Hi-Ex foam are outlined below. Which one is correct?

A: Hi-Ex is effective at suppressing or minimizing the release of toxic or flammable vapors including Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG).

B: Fresh or salt water can be used to develop Hi-Ex foam.

C: Maintain between 150 PSI and 200 PSI a the inlet of the educator to deliver sufficient water under proper pressure to the foam generator.

D: The eductor may be placed one length from the pumper or at the generator; at the generator is the recommended position for most fire situations

Answer 53

Explanation:
A. Hi-Ex is effective at suppressing or minimizing the release of toxic or flammable vapors WITH THE EXCEPTION OF Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG).

C. Maintain between 200 PSI AND 220 PSI a the inlet of the educator to deliver sufficient water under proper pressure to the foam generator.

D. The eductor may be placed one length from the pumper or at the generator; ONE LENGTH FROM THE PUMPER is the recommended position for most fire situations.

TB Foam 13.2, 13.8, 13.9, 13.10

Question 54

Question 40:
Members who work in certain areas of NYC should be familiar with “Segmental Arch Floors.” Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding these construction features?

A: Segmental Arch Floors are found in newer Cast-iron loft buildings as well as some Mill construction.

B: Segmental Arch Floors were used to span the gap between cast-iron or wrought iron I-beams.

C: All parts of a floor arch system are in compression. Wrought-iron rods run from beam to beam to counter the outward thrust of the arch, which was exerted on the beams.

D: Segmental Arch Floors should be carefully breached, when required for ventilation or to check for extension.

Answer 54

Explanation:
D) Segmental Arch Floors should NOT be breached for fear of causing a general floor collapse spanning a wide area.
Loft 5.2.1

Question 55

Question 4:
Managing line placement is a high priority for engine officers. Which of the following choices CORRECTLY describes line placement by engine companies?\

A: After confirming with the 1st engine officer, the 2nd engine can stretch a second line when it is a short stretch before confirming the 1st engine has a positive water source.

B: If there is an immediate need for a 2nd hoseline to address fire extension or a life hazard, the IC (Chief officer or Engine Officer) may order the 2nd engine in any situation to immediately stretch a second line for any purpose.

C: If the 2nd arriving engine has already begun stretching the 2nd hoseline, the 3rd arriving engine should team up with the 2nd arriving engine and assist in the operation of the 2nd hoseline.

D: The 3rd arriving engine should only stretch a 3rd hoseline when ordered by the incident commander.

Answer 55

Explanation:
ENGINE OPERATIONS – CHAPTER 4 – COMPANY OFFICER
D IS CORRECT – 3.6.3
A – The first arriving engine must have secured a positive water source. 3.5.1
B – Chief officer or Acting Chief officer 3.5.4 Note
C – 3rd arriving engine must team up with the 1ST ARRIVING ENGINE and assist in the operation of the 1ST HOSELINE. 3.6

Question 56

Question 38:
First alarm units are operating at the scene of a mass casualty improvised explosive device detonation in the subway. Which one procedure is the only one in accordance with FDNY SOPs?

A: The first arriving engine properly positioned the apparatus, established a water supply, and stretched a 1 3/4 hoseline to knockdown fire threatening victims.

B: The second arriving engine removed meters, skeds and CFR equipment from the apparatus and reported to the point of impact.

C: The first arriving ladder company used skeds to remove critical victims from the point of impact to the triage transfer point.

D: The second arriving ladder company conducted reconnaissance of the point of impact.

Answer 56

Explanation:
A. The first arriving engine properly positioned the apparatus, established a water supply, and stretched a 2 1/2 HOSELINE to knockdown fire threatening victims.

B. The second arriving engine removed meters, skeds and CFR equipment from the apparatus and reported to THE TRIAGE TRANSFER POINT.

C. The first arriving ladder company SET UP THE CORE RELAY.

THE QUESTIONS STATED THE EXPLOSION WAS IN THE SUBWAY, THEREFORE THE FIRST TRUCK ESTABLISHES THE CORE RELAY WITH THE SECOND DUE LADDER FULLFILLING THE RESPONSIBILTY FOR OPERATIONS AT THE POINT OF IMPACT.

AT OTHER THAN A SUBWAY THE FIRST TRUCK WOULD OPERATE AT THE POINT OF IMPACT WITH THE SECOND TRUCK REPORTING TO THE TRIAGE TRANSFER POINT.

ERP Addendum 3 5.3.1, 5.3.2, 5.3.4, 5.3.5

Question 57

Question 44:
You are a covering officer working in Ladder 177 and a member comes into your office upset and looking to discuss making an EEO complaint. You assist by taking the following actions. Which is the only CORRECT action taken?

A: You have the member complete a confidential EEO Incident Report.

B: You submit the incident report directly to the EEO officer in a sealed envelope after obtaining endorsements from the BC & DC on duty.

C: You interrogate the individuals involved in the incident after being requested to do so by the EEO Officer.

D: You leave a note in the pass along book regarding the incident and filing of an EEO Complaint.

Answer 57

Explanation:
PA/ID 8 - CHAPTER 2 – EEO COMPLAINT PROCESS
C IS CORRECT – 6.7 The officer/supervisor shall not interrogate any individual involved in the alleged incident, or initiate an investigation into the alleged incident, except if requested to do so by the EEO Officer, or Bureau of Investigations and Trials.
A – The officer/supervisor is required to complete a confidential EEO Incident Report. 6.3
B – No intermediate endorsements. 6.4
D – No company journal/log entries shall be entered with regard to any EEO complaints 6.9

Question 58

Question 57:
There are certain procedures when the PSS/Personal Harness is damaged or being placed OOS. The correct procedure can be found in which choice?

A: When the PSS bag needs replacement (damaged) the officer shall contact the Battalion for replacement

B: When the PSS bag and rope have been grossly contaminated with fireground contamination they shall be placed OOS. Officer shall call Division for replacement

C: When the Personal Harness is damage the officer shall call the Battalion for replacement

D: When the Personal Harness becomes contaminated from fireground contaminants, the Personal Harness shall be decontaminated in quarters using a sponge and water

Answer 58

Explanation:
A- When the PSS bag needs replacement (damaged) the officer shall contact the DIVISION for replacement
B- When the PSS bag and rope have been grossly contaminated with OTHER THAN fireground contamination they shall be placed OOS. Fax EDR-1 to DSU. Officer shall call Division for replacement
C- When the Personal Harness is damage the officer shall call the DIVISION for replacement
Rope 4 add 1