Bronx Liquid Sword Round 1

Question 1

Question 38:
In ICS, the specific combinations of the same kind and type of resource with common communications under the supervision of an officer designated as leader is the definition of a ________.

A: Strike Team

B: Task Force

C: Sector

D: Group

Answer 1

Explanation:
ICS CHAPTER 1
A is Correct - Strike Team 4.3.1C

Question 2

Question 23:
Size-up begins with the receipt of the alarm and continues until the fire is under control. The following are factors that can be included in the size-up for engine and ladder companies operating at private dwellings. Which one is correct?

A: Inside ladder company operations are predicated on whether the roof is flat or peaked. This information must be transmitted with the signal 10-75, if this can be determined upon arrival.

B: Balloon frame construction lacks fire stopping between the floors on interior walls, allowing for rapid fire extension.

C: The lack of windows on the side of a PD combined with a secondary entrance on that side of the house with a stoop is indicative of a possible second floor apartment with the only entrance to the second floor from that side of the house.

D: Possible indications of attic occupancy may be: attic area with a dormer, adequate height (approximately six feet in the attic), air conditioner at attic level, and/or windows of fair size and normal appearance with curtains and drapes.

Answer 2

Explanation:
A. OUTSIDE ladder company operations…
B. …on EXTERIOR WALLS…
D. …(approximately SEVEN FEET in the attic)…

PD Chapter 2: 2.4; 2.6; 2.7

Question 3

Question 28:
At a high rise office building fire, the first arriving Ladder Company shall obtain as much information as possible from the fire safety director or his/her surrogate as to all of the following except?

A: Location of the fire.

B: Evacuation procedures that have been implemented

C: Status of elevators.

D: Ventilation fan status.

Answer 3

Explanation:
Access stairs serving the fire floor.
Acronym: LEASE
Location of fire
Evacuation implemented
Access stairs serving fire floor
Status of Elevators
HROB 8.3.1 A

Question 4

Question 18:
For fires involving the top floor and/or cockloft in tenements there are some key operational variations for the second arriving ladder company. Listed below are several of those variations. Which one is incorrect?

A: The inside team shall proceed to the top floor to assist the first Ladder Company in entry and search of all top floor apartments.

B: The LCC shall position in front if the fire building and if not needed there, proceed to the roof.

C: The OV shall vent the fire apartment from the fire escape. If the first OV has already vented the fire apartment, then the second OV will vent the adjoining apartment as ordered.

D: Prior to conducting any horizontal ventilation tactics from the exterior, the second OV shall request permission from their officer in order to coordinate ventilation tactics with interior operations.

Answer 4

Explanation:
D. …the second OV shall request permission from THE FIRST LADDER COMPANY OFFICER if it is the fire apt. If it’s an adjoining apartment, the 2nd OV shall contact the officer in the area to be vented

ODD THAT THE OV REQUESTS PERMISSION FROM ANOTHER COMPANY’S OFFICER.
KNOW THIS POINT

Ladders 3: 3.5.2

Question 5

Question 30:
The pump pressure gauge will read when the apparatus is at its lowest RPMs. With the engine set for volume, and the hydrant producing 50 psi, the pump pressure gauge will read which correct psi?

A: 105 psi

B: 160 psi

C: 110 psi

D: 50

Answer 5

Explanation:
Pump idle pressure when in volume mode is 55 psi…55 psi + 50 psi for the hydrant = 105 psi
Pump idle pressure when in pressure mode is 110 psi + 50 psi for the hydrant = 160 psi when in pump idle pressure
On a recent exam
Training Bulletins app P3 sec 1.2

Question 6

Question 13:
Which of the following choices is most correct regarding tool assignments for members going to the roof at a taxpayer fire operation?
1. When the member going to the roof is carrying the saw, a halligan must also be taken.
2. Members going to the roof subsequently should bring a hook with the saw if available.

A: Both choice 1 and 2

B: Neither choice 1 or 2

C: Only choice 1

D: Only choice 2

Answer 6

When the member going to the roof is carrying the saw, a HOOK must also be taken.
Members going to the roof subsequently should bring an AX or IRON with the saw if available.
Tarred over scuttles and skylights can be removed, and a full complement of tools will be available for use.
Note: Engine company personnel may use these if truck company members are at a premium.
Txpyr 8.4.3 C

Question 7

Question 36:
Hoisting a portable ladder to the roof is an important evolution that should be continuously practiced. A newly promoted officer should know which point below to be incorrect?

A: A bowline knot is tied 9 feet (one and one-half full arm lengths) from the end of the hoisting rope, with one foot end tail.

B: Extension ladders shall be raised and lowered in the nested position.

C: The first rung above center of portable ladders (bed ladder of extension ladders) is to be marked with two inch tape at both ends, one inch from the beams.

D: The second rung above center of portable ladders (bed ladder of extension ladders) is to be marked with one inch tape at the center of the rung.

Answer 7

Explanation:
The first rung above center of portable ladders (bed ladder of extension ladders) is to be marked with ONE INCH tape at both ends, TWO INCHES from the beams.
C an D Note: It is between these marked rungs that the rope is inserted. Additionally, the triangular configuration of the marks indicates the tip of the ladder.
Evol 18 Note 3, 5, 6

Question 8

Question 2:
The Systems Control Unit has a specialized task at an operation. Below are some of the procedures associated with the unit’s assignment to an incident. Which of the choices below is CORRECT?

A: The company officer will not be designated the Systems Control Unit Leader. A Chief Officer will be assigned this designation.

B: The Systems Control Unit will be assigned on all 1076’s, 10-77 2nd Alarms & 1077 Mega Hi-Rise responses.

C: The Communications Unit shall also take on the duties of the Systems Control Unit when directed by the IC.

D: The Systems Control Unit will report in to the Logistics Section Chief or directly to the Incident Commander if the Logistics Chief is not available.

Answer 8

Explanation:
SYSTEMS CONTROL UNIT – ICS ADDENDUM 6
A – The Officer will be designated the Systems Control Unit Leader – Sec 3
B – The IC may special call a designated unit as the Systems Control Unit. They are not automatically assigned to a box. – Section 3.
C – The Lobby Control Unit shall also take on the duties of the Systems Control Unit when directed by the IC – Sec 3.
D – 1.1

Question 9

Question 20:
Engine 99 lost their CFR status during the course of the day tour. Which of the following actions taken by the officer was MOST CORRECT?

A: The officer notified the dispatcher they were out of service and again at the change of tours when they were in service for CFR runs.

B: The officer notified the Battalion they were out of service for CFR runs.

C: The officer notified the Division they were out of service for CFR runs.

D: The officer entered the event in the company and office record journals.

Answer 9

CFR CHAPTER 2
A – Incorrect – At 0900 & 1800, unit status defaults to normal CFR status 1.8.1 Note.
B – Correct – Notify the Battalion 1.8
C – Incorrect – Companies only notify the Division when they are completely out of service. REGS CH 30
D – Incorrect – The event is only entered in the company journal. 1.8

Question 10

Question 27:
You are a new Lt. detailed to Engine 7, a communications unit for the day tour. As you compile your riding list for the tour, you ponder the following statements. Which choice below is your only CORRECT thought?

A: To be in service as a communications unit, three trained members including a trained officer must be working.

B: To be in service as a communications unit, three trained members, not including the officer must be working.

C: To be in service as a communications unit, two trained members, not including a trained officer must be working.

D: To be in service as a communications unit, three trained members and a trained officer must be working.

Answer 10

Explanation:
ICS ADDENDUM 2 ADDENDUM 3 – COMMUNICATIONS UNIT
B is correct – 2.2 Three trained members must be working for the unit to be in service. The officer is not required to be trained to be in service.

Question 11

Question 34:
The minimum safe distance when operating at a Con-Edison substation with the voltage known to be between 15,000V-38,000V, can be found in which correct choice?
A: 50 feet

B: 25 feet

C:✘18 feet

D:✔10 feet

Answer 11

Explanation:
18 feet for 345,000V
10 feet for 15,000V-38,000V
AUC 338 add 2 page-2

Question 12

Question 7:
For a taxpayer (Group M-Mercantile) constructed under the 2008 Building Code, when does an occupancy require a sprinkler, even if the full building does not?

A: The area exceeds 12,000 square feet.

B: The combined area on all floors, including mezzanines, exceeds 24,000 square feet.

C: Area of any size is located 3 stories above grade.

D: Storage of merchandise is in high-piled racks or rack storage arrays.

Answer 12

Explanation:
C) In this case only the “occupancy” requires sprinkler protection; not the full building.
Taxpayer 2.5.1

Question 13

Question 14:
In your first hour out of FLSTP, one of your firefighters walks into the officer to tell you about a criminal level hazing event that just occurred in quarters. Which of the following actions is MOST CORRECT for the new Lt to take?
A: Any reported hazing/bullying incident that would also be a crime will be reported directly to NYPD for investigation.

B: Alleged violations of this policy will be handled confidentially, however members cannot submit a hazing/bullying report anonymously to BITS or EEO.

C: Hazing or bullying that may also implicate or violate the department’s EEO policy is covered by reporting under the Anti Hazing/Anti Bullying policy.

D: Any incidents or allegations of hazing or bullying shall be reported by supervisory personnel in writing up the chain of command to the Chief of Department.

Answer 13

Explanation:
PA/ID 1/2013
A – DOI for investigation.
B – Can submit anonymously. Members are encouraged to provide one’s name and contact information. 4.2
C – Hazing/Bullying that violates EEO Policy shall be reported directly to EEO office in accordance with the EEO Policy. 4.6
D – 4.4.

Question 14

Question 19:
At lithium ion energy storage system incidents where members must establish an initial Danger Zone (to reduce explosion exposure risks), members should observe?

A: A minimum of 50 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Cabinets may not have exhaust systems.

B: A minimum of 50 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Containers may not have exhaust systems.

C: A minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Cabinets may not have exhaust systems.

D: A minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Containers may not have exhaust systems.

Answer 14

Explanation:
Members should observe:
Minimum of 50 ft radius from container(s)/cabinet(s).
Minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Cabinets may not have exhaust systems.
HM 19 p4

Question 15

Question 38:
At an operation where a 10-70 is transmitted, which of the following choices contains incorrect information?

A: Anytime the 1st due engine company is unable to secure a positive water source, a signal 10-70 should be transmitted.

B: 10-70 should be given over the department radio as a regular message, but as an URGENT handie-talkie transmission

C: The second due engine company will be designated the “Water Resource Unit” and will be responsible for ensuring a water source is secured.

D: If the 1st due engine finds their hydrant to be inoperative (or frozen), the ECC should immediately notify their officer that their primary hydrant is inoperative and attempt to find a nearby operable hydrant that can supply water.

Answer 15

Explanation:
B. This should be given by an URGENT handie-talkie transmission and also be transmitted as an URGENT message over the department radio
Eng Ops Ch 10 sec 2.2, 2.3

Question 16

Question 6:
Spare apparatus shall not be used for any service other than fire duty, except with the approval of the _________.
A: Chief of Fleet Services

B: Chief of Operations

C: Chief of Department

D: Fire Commissioner

Answer 16

C

Question 17

BACK LIST NEXT
Question 7:
Any member planning to perform “Ventilation for Search” at a structural fire should comply with each of the following except?

A: Once a decision has been made and approval has been granted to enter, the member should clear out the window for access and, before entering, reassess the smoke and heat conditions to determine if the area is tenable.

B: Upon reassessment after the window is cleared, if conditions now prevent access, immediately notify the Ladder Company Officer of this situation. However, if conditions are tenable, the member should reach in and probe the immediate area for potential victims.

C: After venting and entering, the priority action for the member is to isolate the area by closing a door before conducting the search (VEIS). Then search the room and locate any victim; if a victim is found, immediately transmit a 10-45, include your location and planned exit route.

D:✔If a victim is found prior to isolating the room, immediately remove the victim to a safe area and then isolate the room before proceeding with the rescue effort.

Answer 17

Explanation:
If a victim is found prior to isolating the room, the member shall isolate the room and proceed with the rescue effort.
Vent 12.6

Question 18

Question 34:
The ticket reads as follows: E100, E200, E300, E400, L99, TL500, L600F, B150, B200, D2…..All units are 10-84 and in position for a fire on the top floor of a 4 story OLT type rowframe. From the following choices, which unit/position carried out their duties correctly?

A: TL500 split the company and examined exposures for extension in the cockloft. The inside team operated in the most severely threatened exposure

B: L99 Roof FF accessed the roof via L99’s Aerial ladder and brought the Halligan tool and Saw (in place of hook)

C: TL500 LCC went to top floor of an exposure for examination when not needed in front of building

D: TL500 Roof FF accessed the roof via L99 Aerial Ladder with LSR and 6’ Halligan Hook

Answer 18

Explanation:
Firefighting Procedures/RowFrames
A- For Brownstone type. NOT OLT type…For OLT type, TL500 inside team went to top floor adjacent apartment…. p-41, 44
B- L99 OV FF does this (1st due)…..L99 Roof FF access roof via L99’s Aerial and brought Halligan tool, 6’ Halligan hook, and LSR…..p- 36, 38
C- This can be for OLT and Brownstone type when not needed in front of building and directed by officer…. p-41
D- TL500 Roof FF (2nd due) accesses the roof via L99’s Aerial Ladder (order of preference) with a Saw and 6’ Halligan hook….p-`5, 22, 43

Question 19

Question 37:
In the company journal, which entry/entries should be in blue or black ink?
1. The house watch records a visit to quarters by a non-member.
2. The officer records a member taking the remainder of the tour due to an injury.
3. The house watch records a member entering quarters, reporting for duty (RFD) on MSOT.
4. A member enters quarters to report for duty (RFD) and the unit is relocated. The members takes a mark, reporting for duty (RFD).

A: 1,3

B: 1 only

C: 1,2,4

D: 1,3,4

Answer 19

Explanation:
Entries by the “member on housewatch” shall be in blue or black ink. Entries by “other members” shall be in red ink. No line shall be left blank between entries. Each line shall be started at left in a uniform manner.
CJ 2.1

Question 20

Question 8:
Members of Ladder 99 were talking about The Collapse Rescue Plan and they could not agree on which phase is implemented when after all other methods have been employed and persons are still missing, and their location is unknown. Which choice below is CORRECT?
A: Reconnaissance

B: Searching Voids

C: Select Debris Removal and Tunneling

D: General Debris Removal

Answer 20

Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – COLLAPSE
D is Correct - After all other methods have been employed and persons are still missing, and their location is unknown, remove all rubble and systematically strip the area, without regard or preference for any particular location. GENERAL DEBRIS REMOVAL. 11.12

Question 21

Question 34:
Guidelines were written to aid the engine officer in making the decision between 1 3⁄4” and 2 1⁄2” hoselines. Which guideline is incorrectly written?

A: The 235 GPM flowrate provided by the 1 3⁄4” hoseline is sufficient to extinguish the majority of fires encountered.

B: When the 1 3⁄4” hoseline is supplied with 50 psi at the 15/16” tip, the nozzle reaction is 68 lbs. This is the force felt by the nozzle firefighter.

C: 1 3⁄4” hoseline is the primary attack line in the FDNY.

D: The increased speed and mobility of the 1 3⁄4” hoseline enables the nozzle firefighter to more effectively operate the hoseline and direct the water stream as needed.

Answer 21

Explanation:
Eng Ops Ch 4 sec 4.4, 4.5
The 180 GPM flowrate provided by the 1 3⁄4” hoseline is sufficient to extinguish the majority of fires encountered.
When supplied with a nozzle pressure of 40 psi, the 2 1⁄2” hoseline will provide a flowrate of 235 GPM and a nozzle reaction of 78 lbs. This is the force felt by the nozzle firefighter.

Question 22

Question 15:
The companies of Battalion 59 recently operated at the scene of a collapse of a vacant building where during the operation several squatters were removed from sections of the debris pile. The companies were back on the scene to do a critique of the operation and several markings were discovered. Which choice is CORRECT regarding the department’s policy for marking buildings?

A: A search assessment marking was visible on the building. It was a 2’x2’ marking that formed the letter X when completed.

B: A primary vacant building marking 2’x2’ remained visible alongside the front entrance.

C: A secondary vacant building marking depicting an X remained visible alongside the collapsed bulkhead.

D: A search assessment building marking depicting a large V, 2’ in height remained where a victim was confirmed

Answer 22

Explanation:
FFP COLLAPSE ADDENDUM 2 – CROSS REFERENCE VACANTS
A IS CORRECT 2.1
B – Primary vacant building markings are 18”x18”. Vacants 1.3.2
C – All vacant building markings must be identified with an X in a box. 1.3.1
D – Victim confirmed is depicted by an V with a circle around it. 5.3 addendum 2

Question 23

Question 1:
Units are operating at an advanced fire in the cellar of a 4-story old law tenement type rowframe building. Hoselines were deployed in the following manner. Which hoseline was stretched to the incorrect location?

A: The first hoseline was advanced through the front door, then to the cellar via the interior stairs.

B: After the cellar fire was controlled by the second hoseline, the first line was advanced to the top floor.

C: The first hoseline was used to cover the first floor public hall, so the second hoseline was immediately stretched to the cellar via the interior stairs.

D: The first hoseline was stretched to the cellar and the second hoseline was stretched as a backup line for the first line.

Answer 23

Explanation:
C. If the first hoseline is used to cover the first floor public hall, AND A BACKUP LINE IS NOT NEEDED, the second hoseline will be stretched into the cellar VIA THE OUTSIDE CELLAR ENTRANCE to extinguish the fire.

**NOTE: CROSS REF BROWSTONES 3.1: If the first line is used to cover the first floor, the second line is stretched to the cellar via the INTERIOR STAIRS.*

Question 24

Question 8:
Portable ladders may have to be used to assist with rescue of occupants at old law tenements and multiple dwellings with rear fire escapes. Which tactic below is described incorrectly?

A: Portable ladders may be used to rescue occupants in the event of a fire in a building constructed with party wall balcony fire escapes where the fire has spread to the adjoining building, thereby eliminating it as a second means of egress.

B: Because of its portability the 12’ hook ladder may be used to gain access to the various balcony levels by the roof or OV firefighters for search and rescue.

C: Portable ladders must, if possible be taken through the basement to the rear yard to effect rescue.

D: Overcrowding on the fire escape in the rear may be relieved by members assisting occupants to the roof via the gooseneck ladder.

Answer 24

Explanation:
C. Portable ladders must, if possible be taken through the FIRST FLOOR PUBLIC HALL, APARTMENTS OR STORE to the rear yard to effect rescue.

Portable Ladders Pg 16

Question 25

Question 15:
Many curb valves are old and require skill to shut to avoid breaking the valve. Newer plastic valves can also be easily broken if too much force is used. Which statement below concerning curb valves/service valves is incorrect?

A: If the curb valve/service valve on a low or medium pressure system becomes inoperative, mitigation of the leak will involve a utility company construction crew ripping up the street to isolate/repair the leak.

B: Although the FDNY is authorized to shut curb valves/service valves, it should only be done as a last resort and in consultation with the utility company.

C: If the curb valve/service valve of a high pressure distribution system becomes inoperative, mitigation of the leak will involve the utility company shutting the main valve.

D: The curb valve/service valve is usually found on the sidewalk side of the curb and shuts the natural gas supply to the entire building.

Answer 25

Explanation:
A. If the curb valve/service valve on a LOW PRESSURE SYSTEM ONLY becomes inoperative, mitigation of the leak will involve a utility company construction crew ripping up the street to isolate/repair the leak.

NOTE: THE “C” CHOICE ALSO APPLIES TO THE MEDIUM PRESSURE SYSTEM
Also: FDNY is NOT permitted to shut a main valve
Natural Gas Section 6 Pg 24

Question 26

Question 22:
The officers and members of Engine 296 and Ladder 196 were looking to get their hands on the audio recordings from a recent multiple alarm fatal fire. Which statement below regarding HT recordings is CORRECT?

A: Officers or units requesting handie-talkie audio must send an email from an FDNY email address to the HT Recorder unit at HT_Recorderunit@fdny.nyc.gov.

B: Incidents Involving serious injuries, fatalities, and high profile incidents will be made available only at the direction of the Chief of Department.

C: Company officers can only request recordings from incidents at which they operated.

D: Company and Chief Officers can request recordings of the primary tactical and command channels.

Answer 26

Explanation:
A IS CORRECT 8.1
B – Chief of Operations. 8.7
C – Unusual to request recordings for an incident at which an officer’s unit did not operate. Any such request considered by Operations and only granted if there are valid reasons justifying such request. 8.3.
D – Company officers – primary and secondary tactical. Chief officers can request any available channel. 8.2

Question 27

Question 5:
Which statement below regarding the potential blast zone at a major gas emergency is incorrect?

A: At major gas emergencies the potential blast zone shall be considered an exclusion zone for all personnel and shall only be entered for direct, life-saving purposes.

B: This zone will be determined by the IC and identified by red hazardous materials tape.

C: Tactics inside the potential blast zone shall be limited to rapid evacuation.

D: The size of the potential blast zone shall include the area likely to be affected by structural collapse.

Answer 27

Explanation:
B. This zone will be determined by the IC and identified by red “DANGER DO NOT ENTER” TAPE.

Natural Gas Section 9

Question 28

Question 20:
A sharp Captain encounters a construction crew using three 20 lb LPG cylinders. He is correct that the storage, use, or handling of more than _____ standard cubic feet of LPG requires an LPG permit.

A: 16.4

B: 40

C: 100

D: 400

Answer 28

Explanation:
AUC 5, CH 2, ADD 3
A,B,C,D-pg 9
NOTE: 400 (SCF) is about 46 lbs. so use of three 20 lb. cylinders requires a permit.

Question 29

Question 8:
Fires on the top floor of H-type multiple dwellings create the concern of fire extending to the cockloft. Which choice below about cockloft operations is CORRECT?

A: A trench may be opened simultaneously with a vent opening directly over the fire.

B: A trench should be cut about 20 feet from the initial vent hole. It should be cut at the narrowest, available roof section, taking advantage of bulkhead structures, outside walls, skylights and firewalls.

C: A charged line should be in position on the roof to protect personnel and the trench opening. This line may be operated into the trench in a brief, sweeping, side to side motion to prevent fire from reaching the trench opening.

D: Two or more inspection holes may be cut on the fire side of the trench. When, and if, the fire reaches the inspection holes, the precut trench is pulled.

Answer 29

Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS
D IS CORRECT – 5.9.9B
A - A trench may be cut, but should not be opened, until there is an adequate vent opening directly over the fire. 5.9.9A
B – Do not depend on firewalls constructed within the structure. 5.9.9E
C – A charged line should be in position to prevent fire from EXTENDING ACROSS the opening. 5.9.9H

Question 30

Question 16:
Ladder 199 was doing their annual subway inspection and the members began discussing use of the repeater system. Which is the only CORRECT statement made during the discussion?

A: Power backup for the repeater only provides for a maximum of 3 hours of continuous operation.

B: A full test of the repeater channel shall be made once the members reach the platform area.

C: Channel 15 may be used as the primary repeater H/T channel at a second operation in close proximity to the first operation.

D: If dead spots are encountered in repeater coverage, immediately abandon the use of the channel and return to a HT relay.

Answer 30

Explanation:
AUC 207 ADDENDUM 16 – REPEATER CHANNEL
C IS CORRECT 4.4#2
A – Power back-up provides for a minimum of 4 hours of continuous operation. 3.2
B – A test of the repeater is made at the street level. 4.4 #3
D – Prior to abandoning the use of the repeater channel, the team shall return to a safe location where previous communications were successful. If communications are successful, report the dead spot to the IC. 5.2 note.

Question 31

Question 27:
Which radio code is correctly described below?

A: 10-25 Code 1: Smoke has extended from a manhole, conduit, or transformer into a building.

B: 10-25 Code 2: Fire has blown one or more manhole covers.

C: 10-25 Code 3: Smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure.

D: 10-25 Code 4: Only when fire or smoke is coming from a transformer that is located in an occupied building.

Answer 31

Explanation:
10-25 - Manhole or Transformer Fire or Emergency. (Any type of manhole or transformer fire or emergency.)
Without Code: Situation other than as described in Codes 1, 2, 3, or 4.
Code 1: FIRE has extended from a manhole, conduit, or transformer into a building.
Code 2: Fire has blown one or more manhole covers, OR smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure.
Code 3: Smoke is SEEPING from a manhole.
Code 4: Fire or smoke condition from a transformer at ANY location (i.e., pole, vault, room, etc.)
Note: The Utility Company will dispatch an emergency crew immediately upon receipt of a Code 1 or Code 4 signal.
Acronym: BUST
10-25 Code 1: Building - fire extending
10-25 Code 2: Under pressure or blown
10-25 Code 3: Smoke seeping
10-25 Code 4: Transformer
Comm 8 p8

Question 32

Question 1:
The intent of the “Abandoned Infant Protection Act” is to provide a parent who has no other alternative with a safe place to abandon his/her infant. The fire unit must make a journal entry and forward a letterhead report, with endorsements, to the Chief of Fire Operations. These reports shall indicate all the following information except:
A: Date and time custody of the infant was assumed.

B: Precinct and shield numbers of the PD members assuming custody

C: How notified

D: Race and sex of infant.

Answer 32

Explanation:
AUC 7 sec 2.6.2
Unit designation and shield numbers of ambulance unit members assuming custody
The report also contains… Time custody of the infant was assumed by the ambulance crew.

Question 33

Question 35:
The term Collyer’s Mansion is no longer used and has been replaced with clutter. Which of the statements below CORRECTLY describes operations in medium clutter conditions?

A: Patient care in place and removal by normal means may be extremely challenging due to debris.

B: Smoke detectors will likely not be present or operating properly.

C: Maneuvering handlines will be more difficult. Fuel load may exceed capability of handlines.

D: Primary and secondary searches not affected.

Answer 33

Explanation:
SAFETY BULLETIN 7 ch 4
C IS CORRECT – Section 4 chart under Suppression
A – Heavy Clutter under EMS label
B - Heavy Clutter under Member Safety label
D – Light Clutter under Search label

Question 34

Question 30:
Prior to opening the door to the fire area for advancement of the hoseline, the _______ officer must assure that no firefighters will be exposed in the hallway or on the stairs above as the fire attack is initiated. This can be done _____________

A: ladder, via handie-talkie or in person.

B: engine, via handie-talkie or in person.

C: ladder, in person only.

D: engine, in person only

Answer 34

B

Question 35

Question 36:
Which feature of high-rise office buildings is correctly indicated below?

A: High Rise Office Buildings built after 1968 were constructed with a lack of compartmentation.

B: High Rise Office Buildings built before 1945 used construction techniques that resulted in buildings usually between 10 and 20 pounds per cubic foot.

C: High Rise Office Buildings built after 1968 had exterior walls substantially tied to all floors.

D: High Rise Office Buildings built between 1945 and 1968 had ceiling plenums that were extensive and lacked fire stopping.

Answer 35

Explanation:
B) High Rise Office Buildings built BETWEEN 1945 and 1968 used construction techniques that resulted in buildings usually between 10 and 20 pounds per cubic foot.
C) High Rise Office Buildings built BEFORE 1945 had exterior walls substantially tied to all floors.
D) High Rise Office Buildings built AFTER 1968 had ceiling plenums that were extensive and lacked fire stopping.
HROB 2

Question 36

Question 1:
Units are operating at a fully involved brownstone fire. The officer of one of the second alarm engine companies is ordered to stretch a third hoseline due to the heavy fire conditions. The third hosline may be stretched to all of the following locations except which one?
A: Stretched to supply a Tower Ladder.

B: Advanced into the fire building.

C: If fire is reported in an exposure, stretched to that exposure.

D: If there is no fire in the exposures, stretched through an exposure to the rear yard of the fire building.

Answer 36

Explanation:
Supplying a TL is not mentioned for a fully involved brownstone.

Brownstones 3.4

Question 37

Question 6:
The companies in the 13thdivision are involved in an operation involving a stalled Air Train on the guideway along the Van-Wyck Expressway. Which consideration regarding evacuation and removal was INCORRECT?

A: Evacuating passengers via the walkway to a nearby station might be a consideration based on the distance to the next station, weather conditions and the physical capabilities of the passengers.

B: The Primary method for evacuating passengers from an Air Train that is located between stations is to have Air Train personnel bring a rescue train to the front or rear and evacuate them through the front or rear doors of the train.

C: If immediate removal from an elevated area is required, the use of a Tower Ladder may be necessary. The primary means of accessing the guideway shall be via the nearest overpass.

D: When using the walkways to evacuate passengers, the Incident Commander must ensure that power is removed, and grounding straps are in place for the entire evacuation path prior to removing the passengers

Answer 37

Explanation:
AUC 207 ADDENDUM 12 – AIRTRAIN SYSTEM
B IS INCORRECT – Air Train Cars do not have front or rear doors – Section 3.
A – Section 10 PG 5 Bottom
C – Section 10 Pg 6 top
D – Section 10 Pg 5 Bottom

Question 38

Question 27:
The only correct safety procedure performed when operating at a tenement fire can be found in which choice?

A: No more than two members operated in a small room at an OLT fire

B: During the summer months, members performing overhaul operations shall dispense wearing the bunker coat as per the IC

C: Hanging ends of cable such as BX, telephone and coaxial television shall be pushed up out of the way

D: In order to overhaul a bathroom properly in an OLT, members must enter the bathroom to ensure its fully opened up, especially the plumbing wall

Answer 38

Explanation:
Ladders 3
A- sec 8.2
B- When performing overhaul operations, all members must wear their Department issued PPE including bunker coat, bunker pants, bunker boots, helmets, protective hoods and gloves…sec 8.4 new as of 3/2019
C- Secured near ceiling. Loops of cable hanging down shall be pushed up out of the way…..sec 8.10 (2005) Lts exam
D- Consider using the reach of the hook and standing outside the bathroom to open up the ceiling……sec 8.16

Question 39

Question 13:
EEO situations often come down to mediation. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding the mediation process?

A: The complainant or respondent may file a written request for mediation.

B: The EEO officer or designee shall attempt to mediate the dispute with the parties and reach an informal resolution within 90 working days of receipt of the request for mediation.

C: Mediation efforts to resolve the complaint shall not exceed 45 working days unless the time period is extended by the complainant and respondent.

D: The Chief of Department will make the final decision regarding the complaint.

Answer 39

Explanation:
PA/ID 1/77 – EEO COMPLAINT PROCESS
A IS CORRECT – 11.1
B – Within 45 days 11.2
C – Unless the time period is extended by the EEO Officer. 11.3
D – The Fire Commissioner will make the final decision. 12.3

Question 40

Question 17:
Alternate strategies are now applied at HRFPMD fires to decrease the likelihood of members suffering serious injuries during wind impacted events where the apartment door is left open. Which of the following is the CORRECT use of an alternate strategy?

A: Only the IC can approve of members entering the public hallway.

B: Only the Ladder Company Officer and inside team shall enter the public hallway to locate and gain control of the fire apartment door.

C: The Engine Officer will remain on the hallway side of the stairwell door for control and coordination

D: Once the Ladder Officer gains control of the fire apartment door, have the Engine Company advance the charged hoseline to the fire apartment door.

Answer 40

Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES
D IS CORRECT – 5.1E 4TH Bullet
A – IC, Operations Section Chief, Fire Sector Supervisor – 5.1E 1st Bullet
B – Only the Ladder Company Officer and ONE MEMBER OF THE INSIDE TEAM shall enter the public hall to locate the fire apartment door. The other member will remain at the attack stair door on the hallway side to ensure the hallway door remains closed. 5.1E 2nd Bullet. The entire inside team does not enter to locate the and gain control of the fire apartment door
C – The Engine Officer shall be responsible for control and coordination on the stairwell side of the door. 5.1E 3rd Bullet

Question 41

Question 20:
Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding fire pumps found in high rise office buildings?

A: The 1938 Building Code required a manual fire pump in buildings over 300 high. The 1968 Building Code required a manual fire pump to supplement the standpipe system in buildings over 250 feet high.

B: It always has been the responsibility of building engineers to start the building fire pump; however, some engineers have been assigned to other duties when a fire starts. There is also the possibility that the building engineer might not be on duty at the time of the fire.

C: The control cabinet for a 750 gallon fire pump will be in the shape of a large cube. It varies from 6’ x 6’ x 6’ to as large as 8’ x 8’ x 8’ in the older models.

D: When the pumps are started, check the pressure gauge on the discharge side of the fire pump located near the riser. This will ensure that the pressures called for are being maintained.

Answer 41

Explanation:
The 1938 Building Code required a manual fire pump in buildings over 250 FEET HIGH. The 1968 Building Code required a manual fire pump to supplement the standpipe system in buildings over 300 FEET HIGH.
HROB 4.1.1, 4.1.3, 4.1.6 B

Question 42

Question 23:
For a fire that originated in a taxpayer, how would you define the taxpayer occupancy that is three occupancies to the right of the main fire occupancy?

A: O2C

B: O4C

C: O2B

D: O4B

Answer 42

Explanation:
Comm 10 Add 2 Ills 2

Question 43

Question 24:
The notifications are different for the occasion where a member is bitten by a dog vs when a company’s dog bites a civilian. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding these situations?

A: In all cases, NYPD shall be notified.

B: In all cases, the medical officer shall be notified.

C: In all cases, the Animal Care Center shall be notified.

D:✔In all cases, the Board of Health / NYC Health Department shall be notified.

Answer 43

Explanation:
REGS CHAPTER 19 / TRAINING BULLETINS FIRES 2 – PROTECTION AGAINST DOGS
. D IS CORRECT – FIRES 3 4.13 – REGS 19.3.3
A – NYPD is not notified when a company’s dog bites a civilian 19.3.3
B – The medical officer is notified is a member is bitten by a don 4.13.5 Fires 2.
C – Animal Care is notified if a dog is a stray 4.13.4 Fires

Question 44

Question 9:
What code should be transmitted when your Engine Company performs CPR on a patient on a CFRD response?

A: 10-37 Code 1

B: 10-37 Code 2

C: 10-37 Code 3

D: 10-37 Code 4

Answer 44

Explanation:
10-37 - Medical Assignment Not Associated with Fire Operations
Code 1: Victim deceased.
Code 2: Victim/Patient is NOT breathing and requires resuscitation or may be suffering from a serious, apparently life threatening injury or illness.
Code 3: Victim/Patient IS breathing and suffering from a non-serious, apparently not life threatening injury or illness.
Code 4: Medical assignment where the unit is 10-84, has no patient contact and EMS is on-scene.
Comm 8 p11

Question 45

Question 15:
All members should be familiar with the characteristics of under river tubes infrastructure and equipment. Which feature below is described incorrectly?

A: Section valves for the standpipe system are located approximately 600 feet apart.

B: Crossover associated with emergency exits are usually one or more levels above the tracks, but they may be at track level.

C: Sound powered phone jacks are located at standpipe outlets in most of the tubes.

D: The emergency evacuation devices are located at the base of the emergency exit stairs nearest the under river tubes.

Answer 45

Explanation:
B. Crossover associated with emergency exits are usually AT TRACK LEVEL, BUT MAY BE ONE OR MORE LEVELS ABOVE THE TRACK LEVEL.

NOTE “C”: THE EXCEPTION IS THE JORALEMAN STREET TUBE

Under River Rails 2.6.2, 2.7.1, 2.7.2

Question 46

Question 27:
Ladder 199 was wrapping up operations at the scene of a water leak and prior to departing the scene, the officer is approached by the resident who claims a large sum of money has gone missing from the dresser in the rear bedroom where the flood occurred. She also claims the members are responsible. Which is the only CORRECT action taken by the officer following this revelation?

A: The officer ordered all members to exit the apartment and return to the apparatus.

B: The officer interviewed the resident attempting to ascertain the last location of the missing money.

C: The officer gathered all of the information necessary to complete the BF-26 form from the resident.

D: The officer notified the chauffeur to have PD respond to the location.

Answer 46

Explanation:
REGULATIONS CHAPTER 11
C IS CORRECT – 11.3.16
A - When allegations of lost, missing, or possibly stolen private property are received the Incident Commander must immediately direct a thorough search of the premises from which the property is missing. 11.3.16
B - The Incident Commander should not interview witnesses but must immediately make notifications when it is alleged that private property has been stolen or is missing from the scene of a Department operation. 11.3.16
D - If it is alleged that the property was taken by a Fire Department employee, notify the Inspector General’s office. 11.3.16A – PD if members not suspected. In all cases, have the dispatcher notify a Battalion Chief to respond.

Question 47

Question 30:
While responding to the scene of a surf rescue, the IC shall consider the following points. Which one is incorrect?
A: Request from the marine unit if the tide is incoming or outgoing.

B: Verify ETA of the marine unit.

C: Use of the 800 MHz radio.

D: Monitoring of the TAC-U Channel.

Answer 47

Explanation:
D. Monitoring of the NYPD SOD CHANNEL

CODE: “MUTE”

MONITOR NYPD SOD CHANNEL
USE OF 800 MHZ
TIDE
ETA OF MARINE UNIT

Water Rescue 4: 4.1

Question 48

Question 13:
Prior to operating, it is imperative that the Lobby Control Unit verify the location of the following. Which of the below posts is not listed?

A: Forward Triage Area

B: SAE Post

C: Forward Staging Area

D: Fire Sector

Answer 48

Explanation:
ICS MANUAL – CHAPTER 2 – ADDENDUM 4 – LOBBY CONTROL UNIT
A – 4.2
B – 4.2
C – 4.2
D – 4.2 – Fire Floor not Fire Sector

Question 49

Question 3:
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the wearing of department uniforms?

A: Shorts may be worn under bunker gear on responses only during the months of May 1 thru October 31.

B: Shorts may not be worn to Education Day or to Training at the Bureau of Training or for Complaint investigation.

C: Shorts shall not be worn for CFRD responses, ERS No Contact, or Class E alarms unless worn under bunker gear.

D: Shorts may be worn by Chief and Company officers, and firefighters.

Answer 49

Explanation:
REGULATIONS – CHAPTER 29
C IS CORRECT – 29.6.4
A – Shorts are an optional part of the uniform year round. 29.6.4
B – Units called to the Bureau of training and Satellite training locations may wear shorts. 29.6.4
D – Shorts may be worn by Company Officers and Firefighters. 29.6.4

Question 50

Question 8:
REHAB-MD 5-STY 20X60 CLASS-3 – 2 APT’S PER FLR – FRONT & REAR FIRE ESCAPES – NO EXT ENT TO CELLAR – GUARD DOGS IN CELLAR – RAZOR WIRE FENCE ON ROOF. There is a medium fire condition in the cellar of this multiple dwelling and the assigned companies will arrive on the scene. Which tactical choice is CORRECT regarding a fire in this building?

A: The first line shall be stretched to the interior cellar entrance stairs and advanced down into the cellar to extinguish the fire.

B: Initial vertical ventilation shall be coordinated and controlled by the Incident Commander.

C: The second line shall be stretched to the rear entrance and advanced into the cellar to extinguish the fire.

D: All horizontal ventilation of the cellar and first floor shall be controlled by the first arriving ladder company officer.

Answer 50

Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS
A IS CORRECT - The first line should not be advanced down the cellar stairs if there is an outside entrance to the cellar at the front or rear of the building, unless the fire is minor. 4.2.1 CIDS STATES NO EXTERIOR ENTRANCE
B – Initial vertical ventilation shall be coordinated and controlled by the ladder officer working in the fire area (fire floor). 4.2.2
C – There is no cellar entrance to the building.
D – All horizontal ventilation shall be coordinated and controlled by the ladder officer in the area to be vented (Fire Floor, Floor above, etc). IT’S NOT BOTH. 4.2.2

Question 51

Question 10:
Engine 399 and Ladder 199 are leaving quarters, 10-8 to head to multi-unit drill. Which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding MUD & their drill at a vacant building in their response area?

A: Prior to leaving quarters, the member on housewatch will make an entry for the company leaving quarters proceeding to MUD.

B: Multi-unit drills shall be of at least one and one-half hours duration and conducted between the hours of 0730 hours and 2000 hours.

C: Prior to conducting any training exercise on private property, a request for training form TR-1 and a letterhead report shall be forwarded through the chain of command to the Bureau of Operations, Planning.

D: Power take-offs on hydraulically operated aerial ladders and tower ladders shall not be operated for instruction purposes for periods exceeding sixty minutes.

Answer 51

Explanation:
REGULATIONS CROSS REFERENCE – CHAPTERS 22 & 13
A – Members record responses, all other movement is recorded by the officer 13.3.1 E.
B – Multi-unit drills shall be of at least one and one-half hours duration and will normally be conducted on the 9 x 6 tour.. 22.5.3
D – Power take-offs on hydraulically operated aerial ladders and tower ladders shall not be operated for instruction purposes for periods exceeding THIRTY minutes. 22.5.3

Question 52

Question 28:
What is the MAXIMUM Transportation Index (TI) you can expect on a “Yellow II” label?

A: 50 mR/hr

B: 1 mR/hr

C: 10 mR/hr

D: 0 mR/hr

Answer 52

Explanation:
White I - 0.5 mR/hr on surface; N/A TI
Yellow II - 50 mR/hr on surface; 1 mR/hr TI
Yellow III - 200 mR/hr on surface; 10 mR/hr TI
ERP Add 4 p33

Question 53

Question 39:
Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding communications between Fire and EMS?
A: When a CFR unit arrives at a CFR response and an EMS unit is on-scene, the Fire unit will initiate contact utilizing Fire HT Channel 1 with the unit designation (e.g. “Engine 200 to EMS”).

B: If the CFR unit is on-scene first, EMS will initiate contact with the CFR unit (e.g. “EMS 15 Adam to Engine 200”).

C: When Fire units are unable to contact EMS via HT Channel 1, information may be relayed through the FD dispatcher to the EMS unit assigned.

D: fire is classified as an MCI by EMS, and the assigned medical resources will typically switch to Ch 10 and respond on that channel

Answer 53

Explanation:
A fire is classified as an MCI by EMS, and the assigned medical resources will typically switch to EMS-CW1 and respond on that channel
Comm 14 Add 1 2.1-2.6

Question 54

Question 60:
Ladder Company operations can vary based on first and second due arrival as well as the type of apparatus and where the fire is. Which choice CORRECTLY describes the first option for ladder company operations in tenement buildings? (Another available member is always available as a second option)

A: At a fire on the 3rd floor front of a 5 story OLT w front and rear fire escapes, where the 1st arriving ladder is an aerial, the 1st and 2nd OV’s teamed up to VEIS the fire apartment off the front fire escape.

B: At a fire on the top floor of a 5 story OLT with a rear fire escape, where the first ladder is an aerial, the 1st roof and OV teamed up to VEIS the fire apartment off of the rear fire escape.

C: At a fire on the 3rd floor of a 5 story OLT with a rear fire escape, where the 1st ladder was a tower ladder, the 1st and 2nd roof firefighters teamed up to VEIS the floors above the fire apartment from the rear.

D: At a fire on the 4th floor front of a 5 story OLT with front and rear fire escapes where the 1st arriving ladder was a tower ladder, the 2nd OV and Chauffeur teamed up to VEIS the floor above via the front fire escape.

Answer 54

Explanation:
LADDERS 3
D IS CORRECT – 3.4.6 #4 PG 27 TOP
A – 1st OV & LCC team up to enter the fire apartment from the front fire escape. 3.2.5 #4 pg 12
B – 1st & 2nd OV’s team up to VEIS the fire apartment from the fire escape 3.2.5 #2 pg 12 top
C – 1st & 2nd roof FF’s team up to VEIS the fire apartment from the rear fire escape when 1st truck is TL. 3.3.5

Question 55

Question 76:
Conventional engine apparatus in the FDNY are equipped with a two-stage centrifugal pump. These apparatus’ have a total rated capacity of 2,000 GPM and a maximum pressure rating of ___ psi.

A: 700

B: 600

C: 500

D: 250

Answer 55

B

Question 56

Question 81:
Taxpayer fires can be some of the most challenging fires our members face, and proper line placement is critical to successful operations. Which of the following line placements described below is correct?

A: First hoseline must go through the front entrance

B: First hoseline at an advanced fire was stretched to protect the occupied exposure.

C: Second hoseline must back up the first hoseline without exception if heavy fire is encountered.

D: At a cockloft fire, the second line must immediately go to the most severe exposure.

Answer 56

B, In certain cases, particularly occupied exposures, the first hose line stretched may need to be stretched and operated to protect life or the property of the exposed structures. Large caliber streams may also need to be positioned early in the operation and utilized to protect life or the property of the exposed structures.
First Hoseline: Proper placement of the first hoseline requires a coordinated size-up and communication by the first Engine and Ladder Officer. After size-up, the first hoseline should be stretched through the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the fire.
B. Second Hoseline: Initially positioned and charged outside the fire building as a back-up for the first hoseline. When not needed to back-up the first hoseline, it can be used to extinguish any fire discovered in an adjoining store, in the cellar, or the upper floor of a 2-story taxpayer.
C. Third Hoseline: The use of a third line (and any additional hoselines) shall be directed by the IC to cover additional stores, exposures, the roof of the fire building, or to reinforce lines already in operation when necessary. IC’s must also be aware of the need to stretch a 3 ½” supply line to a Tower Ladder early in an operation when fire conditions indicate the potential need for an exterior attack.
Note: It is the responsibility of the 3rd arriving engine company to ensure a supply line is stretched and connected to the FDC when the fire area or potential fire area is protected by a sprinkler system.
Taxpayer 7.3.1

Question 57

B, In certain cases, particularly occupied exposures, the first hose line stretched may need to be stretched and operated to protect life or the property of the exposed structures. Large caliber streams may also need to be positioned early in the operation and utilized to protect life or the property of the exposed structures.
First Hoseline: Proper placement of the first hoseline requires a coordinated size-up and communication by the first Engine and Ladder Officer. After size-up, the first hoseline should be stretched through the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the fire.
B. Second Hoseline: Initially positioned and charged outside the fire building as a back-up for the first hoseline. When not needed to back-up the first hoseline, it can be used to extinguish any fire discovered in an adjoining store, in the cellar, or the upper floor of a 2-story taxpayer.
C. Third Hoseline: The use of a third line (and any additional hoselines) shall be directed by the IC to cover additional stores, exposures, the roof of the fire building, or to reinforce lines already in operation when necessary. IC’s must also be aware of the need to stretch a 3 ½” supply line to a Tower Ladder early in an operation when fire conditions indicate the potential need for an exterior attack.
Note: It is the responsibility of the 3rd arriving engine company to ensure a supply line is stretched and connected to the FDC when the fire area or potential fire area is protected by a sprinkler system.
Taxpayer 7.3.1

Answer 57

Dissect