MTAP ISBB Flashcards by Kimberly Perez

Q

Immunologic response of innate/nonspecific immunity.

a. immediate
b. slow

A

a. immediate

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Q

Immunologic response of acquired/specific immunity.

a. immediate
b. slow

A

b. slow

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Q

Immunologic memory of innate/nonspecific immunity.

a. present
b. absent

A

b. absent

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Q

Immunologic memory of acquired/specific immunity.

a. present
b. absent

A

a. present

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Q

Lines of defense of innate/nonspecific immunity.

a. first
b. second
c. third
d. a and b
e. b and c
f. a and c

A

d. a and b (first and second)

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Q

Lines of defense of acquired/specific immunity.

a. first
b. second
c. third
d. a and b
e. b and c
f. a and c

A

c. third

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Q

consists of anatomical barriers.

a. first line of defense
b. second line of defense
c. third line of defense

A

a. first line of defense

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Q

cellular defense and humoral defense.

a. first line of defense
b. second line of defense
c. third line of defense

A

b. second line of defense

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Q

made up of soluble factors/proteins.

a. cellular defense
b. humoral defense

A

b. humoral defense

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Q

first responders. it takes up to 30-60 minutes to respond.

a. neutrophils
b. monocytes/macrophages
c. eosinophils

A

a. neutrophils

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Q

slow responders. it takes up to 16-58 hours to respond; the motility is slow.

a. neutrophils
b. monocytes/macrophages
c. eosinophils

A

b. monocytes

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Q

less efficient phagocyte.

a. neutrophils
b. monocytes/macrophages
c. eosinophils

A

c. eosinophils

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Q

most efficient phagocyte.

a. neutrophils
b. monocytes/macrophages
c. eosinophils

A

a. neutrophils

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Q

has a role in killing parasites/helminths.

a. neutrophils
b. monocytes/macrophages
c. eosinophils

A

c. eosinophils

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Q

their main function is to phagocytize antigen and present it to helper T lymphocytes.

a. antigen-presenting cells
b. natural killer cells

A

a. antigen-presenting cells

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Q

primarily cytotoxic; kills virus-infected cells and tumor cells.

a. antigen-presenting cells
b. natural killer cells

A

b. natural killer cells

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Q

kupffer cells.

a. liver
b. lymph nodes
c. placenta

A

a. liver

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Q

alveolar macrophages/duct cells.

a. brain
b. lungs
c. bones

A

b. lungs

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Q

microglial cells.

a. brain
b. kidneys
c. spleen

A

a. brain

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Q

histiocytes.

a. lymph nodes
b. skin
c. connective tissue

A

c. connective tissue

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Q

Langerhans cells.

a. lymph nodes
b. skin
c. connective tissue

A

b. skin

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Q

splenic macrophage.

a. brain
b. kidneys
c. spleen

A

c. spleen

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Q

littoral cells.

a. liver
b. lymph nodes
c. placenta

A

b. lymph nodes

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Q

Hofbauer cells.

a. liver
b. lymph nodes
c. placenta

A

c. placenta

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osteoclasts. a. brain b. lungs c. bones

c. bones

mesangial cells. a. skin b. connective tissue c. kidneys

c. kidneys

stages of phagocytosis: toll-like receptors; recognize molecular patterns of pathogen. a. initiation b. diapedesis c. engulfment d. digestion

a. initiation

chemotaxis a. initiation b. diapedesis c. engulfment d. digestion

b. diapedesis

formation of phagosome. a. initiation b. diapedesis c. engulfment d. digestion

c. engulfment

respiratory/oxidative burst that kills the ingested organism. a. initiation b. diapedesis c. engulfment d. digestion

d. digestion

present on the surface of the phagocytes. a. enzyme-linked receptors b. toll-like receptors c. ion channel receptors

b. toll-like receptors

this is the migration of phagocytes from blood vessels to the tissue. a. diapedesis b. chemotaxis

a. diapedesis

Chemokines are a family of cytokines that enhance motility and promote migration of many types of white blood cells (WBCs) toward the chemokine source via a process known as _______. a. diapedesis b. chemotaxis

b. chemotaxis

substances that coat antigens to enhance phagocytosis. a. acute phase reactants b. ceruloplasmin c. opsonins

c. opsonins

the source is the liver; if increased, means there is inflammation. a. antibodies b. acute phase reactants c. opsonins

b. acute phase reactants

the host synthesizes its own antibodies. a. active immunity b. passive immunity

a. active immunity

the host received antibodies derived from other sources. a. active immunity b. passive immunity

b. passive immunity

infection. a. natural active b. artificial active

a. natural active

vaccination a. natural active b. artificial active

b. artificial active

placental transfer of IgG. a. natural passive b. artificial passive

a. natural passive

infusion of plasma/serum. a. natural passive b. artificial passive

b. artificial passive

this is known as null cells, large granular lymphocyte, and third population lymphocyte. a. T cells b. B cells c. NK cells

c. NK cells

this is used to differentiate T cells, B cells, and NK cells because they have the same morphology. a. granules b. cluster of differentiation (CDs) c. nucleus

b. cluster of differentiation (CDs)

what are the primary lymphoid organs?

thymus and bone marrow

primary lymphoid organ where T cells develop. a. thymus b. bone marrow

a. thymus

primary lymphoid organ where B cells develop. a. thymus b. bone marrow

b. bone marrow

the largest among the secondary lymphoid organs. a. lymph nodes b. spleen c. tonsils

b. spleen

``` size: 8-10 um eccentric nucleus cartwheel-like chromatin perinuclear hof (+) CD38 and CD138 ``` a. plasma cell b. T helper cell

a. plasma cell

what is the normal CD4:CD8 ratio? a. 1:1 b. 2:1 c. 3:1

b. 2:1

CD4+ helper T cell population. a. 50% b. 60% c. 70%

b. 60%

CD8+ cytotoxic T cell population. a. 30% b. 40% c. 50%

a. 30%

subpopulation of CD4+ T cells: activates phagocytes, enhances MHC antigen presentation, stimulates Ab production. a. Th1 cells b. Th2 cells c. Treg cells

a. Th1 cells

subpopulation of CD4+ T cells: stimulates the production of other antibodies (ex. IgE) a. Th1 cells b. Th2 cells c. Treg cells

b. Th2 cells

subpopulation of CD4+ T cells: suppressive activity on B cells. a. Th1 cells b. Th2 cells c. Treg cells

c. Treg cells

used for enumeration of lymphocytes. (2)

flow cytometry and rosette technique

a part of flow cytometry that measures the cell size. a. forward light scatter b. side/90* light scatter c. fluorescent detector

a. forward light scatter

a part of flow cytometry that measures the cell internal complexity. a. forward light scatter b. side/90* light scatter c. fluorescent detector

b. side/90* light scatter

a part of flow cytometry that quantifies cell subpopulation. a. forward light scatter b. side/90* light scatter c. fluorescent detector

c. fluorescent detector

uses sheep RBCs as reagent. a. flow cytometry b. rosette technique

b. rosette technique

sheep RBCs attach to the ____. a. CD1 antigen b. CD2 antigen c. CD3 antigen

b. CD2 antigen

an antigen that is only present on T cells. a. CD1 antigen b. CD2 antigen c. CD3 antigen

b. CD2 antigen

genes coding for the MHC molecules in humans are found in the (1) ____ of (2) _____ 1. a. short arm b. long arm 2. a. chromosome 3 b. chromosome 6 c. chromosome 9

a. short arm, b. chromosome 6

HLA-B27 a. good pasture syndrome b. ankylosing spondylitis c. SLE

b. ankylosing spondylitis

HLA-DR2 a. good pasture syndrome b. ankylosing spondylitis c. SLE

a. good pasture syndrome

HLA-DR4 a. RA b. celiac disease c. behcet's disease

a. RA

HLA-DQ2,DQ8 a. behcet's disease b. myasthenia gravis c. celiac disease

c. celiac disease

HLA-B51 a. behcet's disease b. myasthenia gravis c. celiac disease

a. behcet's disease

HLA-B8 a. myasthenia gravis b. multiple sclerosis, Type 1 DM c. RA

a. myasthenia gravis

HLA-DR,DQ a. myasthenia gravis b. multiple sclerosis, Type 1 DM c. RA

b. multiple sclerosis, Type 1 DM

also termed as Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA).

Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)

MHC: genetic loci: HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C a. class I b. class II c. class III

a. class I

MHC: genetic loci: HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR a. class I b. class II c. class III

b. class II

MHC: genetic loci: C2, C4, factor B, TNF a. class I b. class II c. class III

c. class III

MHC: chain structure: a - chain B2 - microglobulin a. class I b. class II

a. class I

MHC: chain structure: a - chain B - chain a. class I b. class II

b. class II

MHC: cell distribution: all nucleated cells a. class I b. class II

a. class I

MHC: cell distribution: B Cells and APC (antigen-presenting cells) a. class I b. class II

b. class II

MHC: presents antigen to: CD8+ cells a. class I b. class II

a. class I

MHC: presents antigen to: CD4+ cells a. class I b. class II

b. class II

glycoproteins found in the serum portion of the blood. a. ceruloplasmin b. transferrins c. immunoglobulins

c. immunoglobulins

major humoral component of adaptive immune response. a. ceruloplasmin b. transferrins c. immunoglobulins

c. immunoglobulins

the immunoglobulin migrates at the _____. a. alpha region b. beta region c. gamma region

c. gamma region

connects the chain together of the immunoglobulin. a. disulfide bond b. covalent bond c. hydrogen bond

a. disulfide bond

flexible part of an antibody, located between CH1 and CH2, rich in amino acid proline. a. heavy chain b. light chain c. hinge region

c. hinge region

Papain. a. 2 fragments b. 3 fragments

b. 3 fragments

pepsin. a. 2 fragments b. 3 fragments

a. 2 fragments

dimer. a. IgA b. IgA2 c. IgM

b. IgA2

pentamer. a. IgA b. IgA2 c. IgM

c. IgM

IgG that crosses placenta.

IgG 1, IgG 3, and IgG 4

phylogenetically the most primitive among Igs.

IgM

Immunoglobulin that is most efficient in agglutination and complement fixation.

IgM

IgA that is found in serum; monomer

IgA1

type of IgA that is found in serum; monomer

IgA1

type of IgA that is found in body secretions; dimer

IgA2

Immunoglobulin that is used for immunoregulation; one of the surface Ig on B cells

IgD

Immunoglobulin that is reaginic (has affinity to mast cells (type 1 hypersensitivity))

IgE

Immunoglobulin that is heat labile (destroyed at 56*C for 30 mins.)

IgE

4 phases of Ab synthesis: no antibody is produced. a. lag phase b. log phase c. plateau d. decline

a. lag phase

4 phases of Ab synthesis: exponential phase; increase in Ab production. a. lag phase b. log phase c. plateau d. decline

b. log phase

4 phases of Ab synthesis: antibody production equals antibody degradation. a. lag phase b. log phase c. plateau d. decline

c. plateau

4 phases of Ab synthesis: increased antibody degradation: a. lag phase b. log phase c. plateau d. decline

d. decline

major Ab is IgM. a. primary immune response b. secondary immune response

a. primary immune response

major Ab is IgG. a. primary immune response b. secondary immune response

b. secondary immune response

lag period is longer. a. primary immune response b. secondary immune response

a. primary immune response

lag period is shorter. a. primary immune response b. secondary immune response

b. secondary immune response

antibody level is high but not 10x higher. a. primary immune response b. secondary immune response

a. primary immune response

antibody level is 10x higher. a. primary immune response b. secondary immune response

b. secondary immune response

endogenous pyrogen and promotes inflammation. a. IL-1 b. IL-6 c. chemokines

a. IL-1

promotes inflammation. a. IL-1 b. IL-6 c. chemokines

b. IL-6

promotes motility of WBC. a. IL-1 b. IL-6 c. chemokines

c. chemokines

blocks viral replication. a. chemokines b. interferon c. TNF-alpha

b. interferon

promotes inflammation triggered by gram (-) bacteria. a. chemokines b. interferon c. TNF-alpha

c. TNF-alpha

T cell growth factor. a. IL-2 b. INF-gamma c. IL-4 and IL-5

a. IL-2

enhances antigen presentation by MHC. a. IL-10 b. IL-4 and IL-5 c. INF-gamma

c. INF-gamma

antibody synthesis (ex. IgE). a. IL-2 b. INF-gamma c. IL-4 and IL-5

c. IL-4 and IL-5

suppressive effects of Th1 cells. a. IL-10 b. IL-4 and IL-5 c. INF-gamma

a. IL-10

leukocyte interferon (INF). a. INF-alpha b. INF-beta c. INF-gamma

a. INF-alpha

fibroepithelial interferon (INF). a. INF-alpha b. INF-beta c. INF-gamma

b. INF-beta

cytotoxic reaction is through cell lysis.

complement

activation is Ag-Ab complex (IgM and IgG). a. classical b. alternative c. lectin

a. classical

activation is bacterial polysaccharide/ IgA binding. a. classical b. alternative c. lectin

b. alternative

activation is mannose sugar in the cell wall. a. classical b. alternative c. lectin

c. lectin

C3 conv: C4b2a a. classical b. alternative c. lectin

a. classical

C3 conv: C3bBb a. classical b. alternative c. lectin

b. alternative

C5 conv: C4b2a3b a. classical b. alternative c. lectin

a. classical

C5 conv: C3bBb3b a. classical b. alternative c. lectin

b. alternative

complement: central convergence points of all 3 pathways.

C3

complement: highest concentration in plasma (1,200 ug/mL)

C3

complement: highest molecular weight. (410,000 daltons)

C1q

complement: anaphylatoxins.

C3a, C4a, C5a

complement: opsonin.

C3b

complement: chemotaxin.

C5a

deficiency in C1, C2, and C4. a. severe recurrent infections b. Neisseria infections. c. lupus-like syndrome

c. lupus-like syndrome

deficiency in C3. a. severe recurrent infections b. Neisseria infections c. lupus-like syndrome

a. severe recurrent infections

deficiency in C5-C8. a. PNH b. Neisseria infections c. no known disease association

b. Neisseria infections

deficiency in C9. a. PNH b. Neisseria infections c. no known disease association

c. no known disease association

deficiency in C1 INH. a. hereditary angioedema b. recurrent bacterial infections c. PNH

a. hereditary angioedema

deficiency in Decay Accelerating Factor. a. PNH b. Neisseria infections c. no known disease association

a. PNH

deficiency in Membrane Inhibitor of Reactive Lysis. a. PNH b. Neisseria infections c. no known disease association

a. PNH

deficiency in Factor H and Factor I. a. hereditary angioedema b. recurrent bacterial infections c. PNH

b. recurrent bacterial infections

deficiency in MDL and Properdin. a. severe recurrent infections b. Neisseria infections c. lupus-like syndrome

b. Neisseria infections

measured commonly by Radial Immunodiffusion or Nephelometry.

C3/C4 measurement

good screening test for genetic deficiency of complement components. a. CH50 hemolytic assay b. complement fixation test

a. CH50 hemolytic assay

measures the amount of patient serum required to lyse 50% of a standardized concentration of antibody-sensitized RBC. a. CH50 hemolytic assay b. complement fixation test

a. CH50 hemolytic assay

the complement itself can actually be used as a reagent to indicate the presence of either a specific antigen or antibody. a. CH50 hemolytic assay b. complement fixation test

b. complement fixation test

Immediate hypersensitivity. a. Type I b. Type II c. type III b. type IV

a. Type I

antibody-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity. a. Type I b. Type II c. type III b. type IV

b. Type II

immune complex hypersensitivity. a. Type I b. Type II c. type III b. type IV

c. type III

cell-mediated/delayed hypersensitivity. a. Type I b. Type II c. type III b. type IV

b. type IV

represents the ratio of concentrated or stock material to the total final volume of a solution. a. ratio b. dilution

b. dilution

Ab + soluble Ag = insoluble complexes. a. precipitation b. agglutination

a. precipitation

Ab + particulate Ag = cellular aggregates. a. precipitation b. agglutination

b. agglutination

initial attraction between the single fab + single epitope. a. affinity b. avidity

a. affinity

initial attraction between the single fab + single epitope. a. affinity b. avidity

a. affinity

sum total of attraction between multivalent Ag and Ab a. affinity b. avidity

b. avidity

the number of multivalent sites of antigen and antibody are approximately equal. a. zone of equivalence b. pro zone c. post zone

zone of equivalence

excess in antibodies. a. zone of equivalence b. pro zone c. post zone

b. pro zone

excess in antigens. a. zone of equivalence b. pro zone c. post zone

c. post zone

phases of agglutination: initial binding Ag-Ab. a. sensitization b. lattice formation

a. sensitization

phases of agglutination: visible agglutination. a. sensitization b. lattice formation

b. latice formation

stages of syphilis: presence of hard chancre (initial lesion) between 10 and 30 days after infection. a. primary b. secondary c. latent d. tertiary

a. primary

stages of syphilis: head ache, sore throat, low-grade fever, nasal discharge. Patients may develop Condyloma Lata (falt lesions resembling warts). a. primary b. secondary c. latent d. tertiary

b. secondary

stages of syphilis: - characterized by lack of clinical symptoms - non-infectious stage in which diagnosis can be made only by serologic methods. a. primary b. secondary c. latent d. tertiary

c. latent

stages of syphilis: - development of gummas - can lead to neurosyphilis a. primary b. secondary c. latent d. tertiary

d. tertiary

lab tests for syphilis: detects antibodies directed against the T. pallidum organism or against specific treponemal antigens. a. non-treponemal test b. treponemal test

b. treponemal test

lab tests for syphilis: detects presence of REAGIN antibodies. a. non-treponemal test b. treponemal test

a. non-treponemal test

lab tests for syphilis: used to screen syphilis because of their high sensitivity and ease for performance. a. non-treponemal test b. treponemal test

a. non-treponemal test

lab tests for syphilis: usually utilized as confirmatory test. a. non-treponemal test b. treponemal test

b. treponemal test

what are the target cells of Infectious mononucleosis? give the specific CD.

B cells (CD 21)

what is the causative agent of Infectious mononucleosis?

Epstein Barr virus

serological test for heterophile antibodies: uses sheep RBCs as reagent. a. Davidsohn differential test b. Paul-Bunnel test

b. Paul-Bunnel test

serological test for heterophile antibodies: uses a technique of absorption with guinea pig kidney cells and beef cells. a. Davidsohn differential test b. Paul-Bunnel test

a. Davidsohn differential test

causative agent of Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS).

HIV

a unique enzyme of HIV that transcribes RNA to DNA.

reverse transcriptase

what is the prime target cell of HIV?

CD4+ Helper T cells

HIV infection: - flu-like symptoms, fever, lymphadenopathy, sore throat, arthralgia, myalgia, fatigue, rash, weight loss - symptoms usually appear 3-6 weeks after infection a. primary infection b. clinical latency c. AIDS

a. primary infection

HIV infection: - decreased viral load - absence of clinical symptoms a. primary infection b. clinical latency c. AIDS

b. clinical latency

HIV infection: - there is profound immunosuppression - appearance of life-threatening infections - CD4+ cell count is less than 200/uL a. primary infection b. clinical latency c. AIDS

c. AIDS

lab tests for HIV: gold standard for enumerating CD4+ T cells is immunophenotyping by ________. a. western blot b. ELISA c. flow cytometry

c. flow cytometry

lab tests for HIV: screening test. a. western blot b. ELISA c. flow cytometry

b. ELISA

lab tests for HIV: confirmatory test. a. western blot b. ELISA c. flow cytometry

a. western blot

lab tests for HIV: confirmatory test. a. western blot b. ELISA c. flow cytometry

a. western blot

lab tests for HIV: amplifies complimentary DNA generated from HIV RNA. a. flow cytometry b. reverse transcriptase PCR

b. reverse transcriptase PCR