MTAP BB Flashcards

1
Q

parental genes must separate randomly and equally into gametes during meiosis. no allele has an advantage over the other.

a. law of independent segregation
b. law of independent assortment
c. law of dominance

A

a. law of independent segregation

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2
Q

genes for different traits are inherited separately from each other. this allows for all possible combinations of genes to occur.

a. law of independent segregation
b. law of independent assortment
c. law of dominance

A

b. law of independent assortment

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3
Q

when two alleles of an inherited pair is heterozygous, the allele that is expressed is dominant, whereas the allele that is not expressed is recessive.

a. law of independent segregation
b. law of independent assortment
c. law of dominance

A

c. law of dominance

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4
Q

developed a mathematical formula that allowed the study of Mendelian inheritance in great detail.

a. G. Kohler & C. Milstein
b. G.H. Hardy & W. Weinberg
c. Rous & Turner

A

b. G.H. Hardy & W. Weinberg

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5
Q

one of the best tools for studying gene frequencies in human populations.

A

Hardy-Weinberg

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6
Q

genes are expressed equally.

A

codominant

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7
Q

50% of transfused RBCs should remain viable in the patient’s bloodstream for 24 hours.

true or false

A

false (75%)

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8
Q

requirement temperature for platelet concentrate and granulocyte concentrate.

A

20 - 24C

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9
Q

requirement temperature for FFP and cryoprecipitate.

A

-18C

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10
Q

requirement temperature if has red blood cell units

A

1 - 6C and 1 - 10C

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11
Q

decreased ATP level can cause damage to the cell membrane.

T or F

A

true

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12
Q

preservative of primary bags that has 35 days shelf life.

A

citrate-phosphate-adenine (CPDA1)

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13
Q

preservatives of primary bags that have/have 21 days shelf life. (3)

A
  1. acid-citrate-dextrose ACD
  2. citrate-phosphate-dextrose CPD
  3. citrate-phosphate-double dextrose CP2D
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14
Q

additive solutions prolong red cell survival up to ____ days.

A

42

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15
Q

additive solution:

isotonic.

A

saline

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16
Q

additive solution:

maintains ATP levels.

A

adenine

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17
Q

additive solution:

source of energy.

A

glucose

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18
Q

additive solution:

prevents storage-related hemolysis.

A

mannitol

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19
Q

can be added to expired RBC units and can extend up to 24 hours. (up to __ days after expiration)

A

rejuvenation solutions; 3 days

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20
Q

rejuvenation solution:

serves as buffer.

A

phosphate

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21
Q

rejuvenation solution:

Maintains 2,3-DPG levels.

A

Inosine and pyruvate

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22
Q

rejuvenation solution:

Maintains ATP levels.

A

adenine

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23
Q

it offers the longest shelf life (10 yrs.)

A

red cell freezing

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24
Q

red cell freezing requires what temperature.

A

-65C

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25
Q

cryoprotective agent.

A

glycerol

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26
Q

primarily used for autologous units and storage of rare blood types.

A

red cell freezing

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27
Q

blood group antigens:

inheritance is controlled by a gene or two closely linked genes.

a. system
b. collection
c. high incidence series
d. low incidence series

A

a. system

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28
Q

blood group antigens:

antigens demonstrate serologic relationship but no independent inheritance.

a. system
b. collection
c. high incidence series
d. low incidence series

A

b. collection

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29
Q

blood group antigens:

observed in > 90% of random population.

a. system
b. collection
c. high incidence series
d. low incidence series

A

c. high incidence series

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30
Q

blood group antigens:

observed in < 1% of random population.

a. system
b. collection
c. high incidence series
d. low incidence series

A

d. low incidence series

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31
Q

an antibody is clinically significant when it reacts to what temperature.

A

37C

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32
Q

antibody occurs even without exposure to antigens.

a. naturally occurring
b. immune antibodies

A

a. naturally occurring

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33
Q

antibody occurs after exposure to RBC antigens.

a. naturally occurring
b. immune antibodies

A

b. immune antibodies

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34
Q

antibody type is IgM.

a. naturally occurring
b. immune antibodies

A

a. naturally occurring

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35
Q

antibody type is IgG.

a. naturally occurring
b. immune antibodies

A

b. immune antibodies

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36
Q

temperature reactivity is 4-22C.

a. naturally occurring
b. immune antibodies

A

a. naturally occurring

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37
Q

temperature reactivity is 37C.

a. naturally occurring
b. immune antibodies

A

b. immune antibodies

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38
Q

IgM is ___.

a. warm reactive antibody
b. cold reactive antibody

A

b. cold reactive antibody

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39
Q

IgG is ____.

a. warm reactive antibody
b. cold reactive antibody

A

a. warm reactive antibody

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40
Q

positive sign of antigen-antibody rxn:

due to complement activation.

A

hemolysis

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41
Q

positive sign of antigen-antibody rxn:

most common.

A

hemagglutination

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42
Q

grading of agglutination reaction: tube method

one solid agglutinate; clear supernatant.

A

4+

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43
Q

grading of agglutination reaction: tube method

presence of minor population of agglutinated cells superimposed on a negative background.

A

mixed field

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44
Q

grading of agglutination reaction: tube method

several large agglutinates; clear supernatant.

A

3+

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45
Q

grading of agglutination reaction: tube method

no agglutination.

A

0

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46
Q

grading of agglutination reaction: tube method

medium-sized agglutinates; clear background.

A

2+

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47
Q

grading of agglutination reaction: tube method

small agglutinates; turbid background.

A

1+

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48
Q

grading of agglutination reaction: gel method

RBC agglutinates at the top of gel column.

A

4+

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49
Q

grading of agglutination reaction: gel method

RBC agglutinates at the upper half of gel column.

A

3+

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50
Q

grading of agglutination reaction: gel method

RBC agglutinates throughout the gel column.

A

2+

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51
Q

grading of agglutination reaction: gel method

RBC agglutinates at the lower half of gel column.

A

1+

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52
Q

grading of agglutination reaction: gel method

unagglutinated RBCs (pellet) at the bottom of gel.

A

0

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53
Q

grading of agglutination reaction: gel method

presence of layer of agglutinated RBCs on top of the gel accompanied by a pellet of unagglutinated cells at the bottom of the tube.

A

mixed field

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54
Q

what is the optimal pH for agglutination reaction?

A

neutral pH

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55
Q

immunoglobulin that is most efficient in agglutination.

A

IgM

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56
Q

immunoglobulin that is poor in agglutination.

A

IgG

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57
Q

blood groups that show dosage.

A

MNS, Duffy, Lutheran, Kidd, Rh (except D)

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58
Q

media that helps detects IgG antibodies.

A

enhancement media/potentiators

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59
Q

potentiators:

its advantage is shorter incubation time.

a. LISS
b. enzymes
c. AHG

A

a. LISS

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60
Q

potentiators:

Rh, Kidd, Lewis, I, P1

a. Enhances reaction
b. Destroys reaction

A

a. Enhances reaction

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61
Q

potentiators:

MNS, Duffy, Chido, Rodgers, Xg^a

a. Enhances reaction
b. Destroys reaction

A

b. Destroys reaction

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62
Q

immediate spin detects what immunoglobulin?

A

IgM

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63
Q

37C incubation detects what immunoglobulin?

A

IgG

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64
Q

Antiglobulin test detects what immunoglobulin?

A

IgG

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65
Q

Test mixture is centrifuged at room temperature.

a. immediate spin
b. 37C incubation
c. Antiglobulin test

A

a. immediate spin

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66
Q

Sensitization of red cells occurs.

a. immediate spin
b. 37C incubation
c. Antiglobulin test

A

b. 37C incubation

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67
Q

Contains antibodies that bind Fc portion of IgG, cross linking red cells

a. immediate spin
b. 37C incubation
c. Antiglobulin test

A

c. Antiglobulin test

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68
Q

visible result of immediate spin.

A

agglutination

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69
Q

visible result of 37C incubation.

A

hemolysis

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70
Q

visible result of Antiglobulin test.

A

agglutination

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71
Q

“coombs test”

a. immediate spin
b. 37C incubation
c. Antiglobulin test

A

c. Antiglobulin test

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72
Q

how to validate negative results in DAT and IAT?

A

check cells/ coombs’ control

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73
Q

detects bound antibodies to RBC (in vivo sensitization of RBC).

a. DAT
b. IAT

A

a. DAT

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74
Q

detects serum antibodies. (in vitro sensitization of RBC )

a. DAT
b. IAT

A

b. IAT

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75
Q

Specimen:
Patient’s washed RBC

a. DAT
b. IAT

A

a. DAT

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76
Q

Specimen:
Px’s serum + reagent red cells

a. DAT
b. IAT

A

b. IAT

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77
Q

does not require 37C incubation.

a. DAT
b. IAT

A

a. DAT

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78
Q

requires 37C incubation.

a. DAT
b. IAT

A

b. IAT

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79
Q

Ratio of serum to cells for antiglobulin test.

A

40:1

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80
Q

Inadequate washing of red cells causes ______ result.

A

false negative

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81
Q

Centrifugation required for antiglobulin test.

A

1000 RCF for 20 seconds

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82
Q

false results in AHG:

clotted specimen.

a. false positive
b. false negative

A

a. false positive

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83
Q

false results in AHG:

inadequate washing of cells.

a. false positive
b. false negative

A

b. false negative

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84
Q

false results in AHG:

bacterial contamination of cells.

a. false positive
b. false negative

A

a. false positive

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85
Q

false results in AHG:
inadequate incubation conditions.

a. false positive
b. false negative

A

b. false negative

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86
Q

false results in AHG:
metal contamination of saline.

a. false positive
b. false negative

A

a. false positive

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87
Q

false results in AHG:
old serum samples.

a. false positive
b. false negative

A

b. false negative

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88
Q

false results in AHG:
dirty glasswares.

a. false positive
b. false negative

A

a. false positive

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89
Q

false results in AHG:
serum/AHG is not added.

a. false positive
b. false negative

A

b. false negative

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90
Q

false results in AHG:
over centrifugation.

a. false positive
b. false negative

A

a. false positive

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91
Q

false results in AHG:
undercentrifugation.

a. false positive
b. false negative

A

b. false negative

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92
Q

false results in AHG:
overreading.

a. false positive
b. false negative

A

a. false positive

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93
Q

false results in AHG:
cell suspension too weak or too heavy

a. false positive
b. false negative

A

b. false negative

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94
Q

false results in AHG:
contaminated AHG.

a. false positive
b. false negative

A

a. false positive

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95
Q

false results in AHG:
non-reactive AHG.

a. false positive
b. false negative

A

b. false negative

96
Q

ABO gene in chromosome ___.

97
Q

H gene in chromosome __.

98
Q

Secretor gene in chromosome __.

99
Q

SeSe/Sese.

a. Secretor
b. Non secretor

A

a. Secretor

100
Q

sese.

a. Secretor
b. Non secretor

A

b. Non secretor

101
Q

N acetyl galactosamine.

a. A antigen
b. B antigen
c. H antigen

A

a. A antigen

102
Q

D galactose.

a. A antigen
b. B antigen
c. H antigen

A

b. B antigen

103
Q

L fucose.

a. A antigen
b. B antigen
c. H antigen

A

c. H antigen

104
Q

Formation: 37th day of fetal life.

a. antigen
b. antibody

A

a. antigen

105
Q

Formation: start: 3-6 months. Peak: 5-10 yrs old.

a. antigen
b. antibody

A

b. antibody

106
Q

Amorph or silent gene.

107
Q

identify the blood type:

Anti A = 4+
Anti B = 0

A1 cells = 0
B cells = 4+

108
Q

identify the blood type:

Anti A = 0
Anti B = 4+

A1 cells = 4+
B cells = 0

109
Q

identify the blood type:

Anti A = 4+
Anti B = 4+

A1 cells = 0
B cells = 0

110
Q

identify the blood type:

Anti A = 0
Anti B = 0

A1 cells = 4+
B cells = 4+

111
Q

identify the blood type:

AA, AO

112
Q

identify the blood type:

BB, BO

113
Q

identify the blood type:

OO

114
Q

identify the blood type:

AB

115
Q

Determines the possible genotypes of an offspring after mating.

A

Abo matings:

116
Q

determine the % of genotypes:

mother = AA
father = BO
A

50% chance type AB

50% chance type A

117
Q

Is there a possibility of 4 different ABO blood types among the offspring?

118
Q

determine the % of genotypes:

Mother = AO
Father = BO
A

25% chance for Type AB
25% chance for Type B
25% chance for Type A
25% chance for Type O

119
Q

A subgroup:

Antigens present: A and A1

a. A1
b. A

120
Q

A subgroup:

Antigens present: A

a. A1
b. A

121
Q

common antibody of A1 and A.

122
Q

Reaction with Anti A1 lectin of A1.

123
Q

Reaction with Anti A1 lectin of A.

124
Q

Source of Anti A1 lectin.

a. Ulex europaeus
b. Dolichos Biflorus

A

Dolichos Biflorus

125
Q

Seed extracts that can agglutinate human RBCs

126
Q

rarest blood type.

A

Bombay phenotype

127
Q

possible donor of Bombay phenotype.

A

only Bombay phenotype

128
Q

hh sese

a. Classical Bombay
b. Para-Bombay

A

a. Classical Bombay

129
Q

hh Se

a. Classical Bombay
b. Para-Bombay

A

b. Para-Bombay

130
Q

Source of Anti H lectin.

a. Ulex europaeus
b. Dolichos Biflorus

A

a. Ulex europaeus

131
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

missing/weakly reacting Antibody

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

a. group 1

132
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

missing/weakly reacting Antigen

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

b. group 2

133
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

plasma protein abnormality

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

c. group 3

134
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

miscellaneous

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

d. group 4

135
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

Newborns, elderly

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

a. group 1

136
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

Cold reactive ab

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

d. group 4

137
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

Leukemia, Hodgkin’s disease

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

b. group 2

138
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

Multiple myeloma

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

c. group 3

139
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

a. group 1

140
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

A/B subgroups

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

b. group 2

141
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

c. group 3

142
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

Unexpected Ab

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

d. group 4

143
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

cis-Ab

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

d. group 4

144
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

Inc. fibrinogen levels

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

c. group 3

145
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

Acquired B phenomenon

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

b. group 2

146
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

Hypogammaglobulinemia

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

a. group 1

147
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

Wharton’s jelly

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

c. group 3

148
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

Chimerism

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

a. group 1

149
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

Excessive amount of BgSS

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

b. group 2

150
Q

ABO typing discrepancies:

Excessive amount of BGSS

a. group 1
b. group 2
c. group 3
d. group 4

A

b. group 2

151
Q

occur when unexpected reactions are obtained in the forward and/or reverse grouping.

A

ABO discrepancies

152
Q
Anti a = 4+
Anti b = 2+
A1 cells = 0
B cells = 4+
O cells = 0
AC = 0

a. acquired B phenomenon
b. Missing or weakly reacting antigens
c. Missing or weakly reacting antibodies
d. Cold reactive antibodies
e. rouleaux formation

A

a. acquired B phenomenon

153
Q
Anti a = 0
Anti b = w
A1 cells = 4+
B cells = 0
O cells = 0
AC = 0

a. acquired B phenomenon
b. Missing or weakly reacting antigens
c. Missing or weakly reacting antibodies
d. Cold reactive antibodies
e. rouleaux formation

A

b. Missing or weakly reacting antigens

154
Q
Anti a = 4+
Anti b = 0
A1 cells = 0
B cells = 0
O cells = 0
AC = 0

a. acquired B phenomenon
b. Missing or weakly reacting antigens
c. Missing or weakly reacting antibodies
d. Cold reactive antibodies
e. rouleaux formation

A

c. Missing or weakly reacting antibodies

155
Q
Anti a = 2+
Anti b = 4+
A1 cells = 4+
B cells = 2+
O cells = 2+
AC = 2+

a. acquired B phenomenon
b. Missing or weakly reacting antigens
c. Missing or weakly reacting antibodies
d. Cold reactive antibodies
e. rouleaux formation

A

d. Cold reactive antibodies

156
Q
Anti a = R
Anti b = R
A1 cells = 4+
B cells = 4+
O cells = R
AC = R

a. acquired B phenomenon
b. Missing or weakly reacting antigens
c. Missing or weakly reacting antibodies
d. Cold reactive antibodies
e. rouleaux formation

A

e. rouleaux formation

157
Q

stack of coin appearance.

A

rouleaux formation

158
Q

blood group:

Also known as Rhesus factor since first experiment involved red cells of rhesus monkey.

A

Rh blood group

159
Q

RHD gene

a. Chromosome 1
b. Chromosome 6

A

a. Chromosome 1

160
Q

RHCE gene

a. Chromosome 1
b. Chromosome 6

A

a. Chromosome 1

161
Q

RHAG gene

a. Chromosome 1
b. Chromosome 6

A

b. Chromosome 6

162
Q

5 Fisher race antigens.

A

D, C, c, E, e

163
Q

Codes for production of D antigen.

a. D gene
b. d gene

164
Q

Does not code for the production of D antigen.

a. D gene
b. d gene

165
Q

convert wiener to fisher-race:

Ro

166
Q

convert wiener to fisher-race:

R1

167
Q

convert wiener to fisher-race:

R2

168
Q

convert wiener to fisher-race:

Rz

169
Q

convert wiener to fisher-race:

r

170
Q

convert wiener to fisher-race:

r’

171
Q

convert wiener to fisher-race:

r’’

172
Q

convert wiener to fisher-race:

r^y

173
Q

convert fisher-race to blood factors:

Dce

A

Rho hr’ hr’’

174
Q

convert fisher-race to blood factors:

DCe

A

Rho rh’ hr’’

175
Q

convert fisher-race to blood factors:

dce

A

hr’ hr’’

176
Q

convert fisher-race to blood factors:

dCe

A

h’ hr’’

177
Q

convert fisher-race to blood factors:

dcE

A

hr’ rh’’

178
Q

convert fisher-race to blood factors:

dCE

A

rh’ rh’’

179
Q

Rosenfield:

c

180
Q

Rosenfield:

D

181
Q

Rosenfield:

e

182
Q

Rosenfield:

C

183
Q

Rosenfield:

E

184
Q

Convert fisher race to rosenfield:

Dce = Rh: 1, -2, -3, 4, 5

A

Rh: 1, -2, -3, 4, 5

185
Q

Convert fisher race to Rosenfield:

Dce

A

Rh: 1, -2, -3, 4, 5

186
Q

convert to ISBT:

D

187
Q

convert to ISBT:

C

188
Q

convert to ISBT:

E

189
Q

convert to ISBT:

c

190
Q

convert to ISBT:

e

191
Q

Adopted a 6-digit number for each authenticated blood group specificity.

a. rosenfield
b. fisher race
c. ISBT

192
Q

symbol of weak D.

193
Q

Principle of weak D testing.

194
Q

D gene is in opposite direction to C gene

a. Genetic weak D
b. C trans
c. Partial D/D mosaic

A

b. C trans

195
Q

Missing portion of D antigen molecule

a. Genetic weak D
b. C trans
c. Partial D/D mosaic

A

c. Partial D/D mosaic

196
Q

Only few antigens present on RBC

a. Genetic weak D
b. C trans
c. Partial D/D mosaic

A

a. Genetic weak D

197
Q

Rh antibodies may cause ___ and ___.

A

HTR and HDN

198
Q

major Rh antigen and the most immunogenic.

199
Q

Rh antigen:

Most immunogenic to least immunogenic.

200
Q

unusual phenotypes of Rh:
Expressed on D+C+ red cells

a. Rh null syndrome (—/—)
b. Rh mod
c. Exalted D (D–/D–)
d. F
e. rh i
f. G

201
Q

unusual phenotypes of Rh:
Absence of C/c and E/e

a. Rh null syndrome (—/—)
b. Rh mod
c. Exalted D (D–/D–)
d. F
e. rh i
f. G

A

c. Exalted D (D–/D–)

202
Q

unusual phenotypes of Rh:
Partial suppression of Rh antigens

a. Rh null syndrome (—/—)
b. Rh mod
c. Exalted D (D–/D–)
d. F
e. rh i
f. G

203
Q

unusual phenotypes of Rh:
C+e

a. Rh null syndrome (—/—)
b. Rh mod
c. Exalted D (D–/D–)
d. F
e. rh i
f. G

204
Q

unusual phenotypes of Rh:
c+e

a. Rh null syndrome (—/—)
b. Rh mod
c. Exalted D (D–/D–)
d. F
e. rh i
f. G

205
Q

unusual phenotypes of Rh:
Absence of all Rh antigens

a. Rh null syndrome (—/—)
b. Rh mod
c. Exalted D (D–/D–)
d. F
e. rh i
f. G

A

a. Rh null syndrome (—/—)

206
Q

Le (a-b-)

a. Non secretor
b. Secretor
c. Secretor or nonsecretor

A

c. Secretor or nonsecretor

207
Q

Le (a+b-)

a. Non secretor
b. Secretor
c. Secretor or nonsecretor

A

a. Non secretor

208
Q

Le (a-b+)

a. Non secretor
b. Secretor
c. Secretor or nonsecretor

A

b. Secretor

209
Q

Le gene in chromosome ___.

A

chromosome 19

210
Q

MNS blood group system:
Mn antigens found on

a. Glycophorin A
b. glycophorin B

A

a. Glycophorin A

211
Q

MNS blood group system:
U antigen found on

a. Glycophorin A
b. glycophorin B

A

b. glycophorin B

212
Q

MNS blood group system:
Ss antigens found on

a. Glycophorin A
b. glycophorin B

A

a. Glycophorin A

213
Q

MNS blood group system:
Cold reactive/IgM (2 answers)

a. Anti-M
b. Anti-N
c. Anti-S/ Anti-s
d. Anti-U

214
Q

MNS blood group system:
Warm reactive/IgG (2 answers)

a. Anti-M
b. Anti-N
c. Anti-S/ Anti-s
d. Anti-U

215
Q

MNS blood group system:

which antibody is ph-dependent (prefers slightly acidic pH)?

a. Anti-M
b. Anti-N
c. Anti-S/ Anti-s
d. Anti-U

216
Q

MNS blood group system:

Common in S-s-U- individuals

a. Anti-M
b. Anti-N
c. Anti-S/ Anti-s
d. Anti-U

217
Q

MNS blood group system:

Common in S-s-U- individuals.

a. Anti-M
b. Anti-N
c. Anti-S/ Anti-s
d. Anti-U

218
Q

P blood group system:

what antigen deteriorates rapidly on storage of blood.

A

P1 antigen

219
Q

Other sources of P1 antigen:

A

Hyatid cyst fluid

Pigeon eggs

220
Q

Other sources of P1 antigen:

what is the source of one of the sources of P1 antigen?

A

Hyatid cyst fluid - E. granulosus
Pigeon eggs
common earth worm

221
Q

P blood group system: Antibodies

Most are cold reactive

a. Anti-P1
b. Anti-P P1 Pk/Anti-Tj^a
c. Auto Anti-P

A

a. Anti-P1

222
Q

P blood group system: Antibodies

Produced by “p” individuals

a. Anti-P1
b. Anti-P P1 Pk/Anti-Tj^a
c. Auto Anti-P

A

b. Anti-P P1 Pk/Anti-Tj^a

223
Q

P blood group system: Antibodies

Biphasic IgG (reacts at 30C and 37C)

a. Anti-P1
b. Anti-P P1 Pk/Anti-Tj^a
c. Auto Anti-P

A

c. Auto Anti-P

224
Q

P blood group system: Antibodies

Wide thermal range (IgM/IgG)

a. Anti-P1
b. Anti-P P1 Pk/Anti-Tj^a
c. Auto Anti-P

A

b. Anti-P P1 Pk/Anti-Tj^a

225
Q

P blood group system: Antibodies

Found in cases of Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria

a. Anti-P1
b. Anti-P P1 Pk/Anti-Tj^a
c. Auto Anti-P

A

c. Auto Anti-P

226
Q

I blood group system:
Rich in infant RBCs or cord cells

a. I antigen
b. i antigen

A

b. i antigen

227
Q

I blood group system:
Rich in adult RBCs

a. I antigen
b. i antigen

A

a. I antigen

228
Q

I blood group system:
Enhanced production in cases of M. pneumoniae infection.

a. Auto anti-I
b. anti-i

A

a. Auto anti-I

229
Q

I blood group system:
Associated with IM, myeloid leukemia, cirrhosis

a. Auto anti-I
b. anti-i

230
Q

I blood group system:
Auto anti-I

a. IgG/warm reactive
b. IgM/cold reactive

A

b. IgM/cold reactive

231
Q

I blood group system:
anti-i

a. IgG/warm reactive
b. IgM/cold reactive

A

b. IgM/cold reactive

232
Q

Top 3 immunogenic antigens:

A
  1. A, B
  2. Rh D
  3. Kell antigen
233
Q

Kell blood group system:
Rarely encountered

a. Anti-K
b. Anti-k

234
Q

Kell blood group system:
ost common antibody after ABO and Rh

a. Anti-K
b. Anti-k

235
Q

Duffy blood group system:
Resistant to malarial invasion.

a. Fy (a-b-)
b. Fy (a+b-)

A

a. Fy (a-b-)

236
Q

Duffy blood group system:
Common in chinese.

a. Fy (a-b-)
b. Fy (a+b-)

A

b. Fy (a+b-)

237
Q

Duffy blood group system:
Common in African-American black population.

a. Fy (a-b-)
b. Fy (a+b-)

A

a. Fy (a-b-)