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mtap hema2 Flashcards

1
Q

Where are the coagulation factors produced?

A

LIVER

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2
Q

The only 2 coag factors not produced in the liver

A

3, 4

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3
Q

vWF is made by _____ & _____

A

Megakaryocytes

Endothelial cells

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4
Q

True or False:

Factor VIII has the shortest half-life

A

FALSE

Factor VII = 6 hours

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5
Q

2 coag factors transmitted as X-linked recessive

A

8, 9

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6
Q

All deficiencies of coag factors are transmitted as: ____

A

Autosomal recessive

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7
Q

The most concentrated of all the plasma procoagulants

A

Factor I - Fibrinogen

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8
Q

Deficiency of GP IIb/IIIa

A

Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

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9
Q

Why is there no such thing as Factor III deficiency?

A

It comes from the tissues

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10
Q

Factor IV is chelated by ____ & _____

A

EDTA

Sodium citrate

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11
Q

Mutant Factor V

A

Factor V Leiden

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12
Q

Factor V names (3)

A

Proaccelerin
Labile Factor
Thrombogen

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13
Q

True or False:

Factor V Leiden is not inactivated by protein C-protein S complex

A

True

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14
Q

Factor V deficiency

A

Owren’s disease / Parahemophilia

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15
Q

First clotting factor affected by WARFARIN therapy

A

Factor VII

Proconvertin / Stable factor

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16
Q

Factor VIII names (2)

A

Antihemophilic Factor A

Antihemophilic Globulin

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17
Q

Factor VIII def.

A

Hemophilia A

Classic hemophilia

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18
Q

Refers to the Procoagulant portion of Factor VIII

A

VIII:C

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19
Q

Refers to the antigenic properties of Factor VIII

A

VIII:Ag

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20
Q

RCo in Factor VIII means:

A

Ristocetin cofactor

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21
Q

True or False:

vWF is required for normal platelet aggregation

A

False

Adhesion

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22
Q

vWF has receptor sites for both _____ & ______

A

Collagen

Platelets

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23
Q

Largest molecule in the human plasma

A

vWF

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24
Q

Platelet surface receptor for vWF

A

GP Ib/IX/V

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25
Q

Plasma Thromboplastin Component is Factor ___?

A

9

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26
Q

Factor IX def.

A

Hemophilia B

Christmas disease

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27
Q

Stuart-Prower Factor is factor ___?

A

10

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28
Q

Plasma thromboplastin antecedent is what factor?

A

11

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29
Q

Factor XI def.

A

Hemophilia C

Rosenthal syndrome

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30
Q

This deficiency is seen in ASHKENAZI JEWS

A

Hemophilia C (factor 11)

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31
Q

has no bleeding tendency, but with thrombotic tendency

A

Factor 12

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32
Q

Factor XII names (3)

A

Hageman Factor
Glass factor
Contact factor

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33
Q

Prekallikrein is also known as

A

Fletcher factor

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34
Q

HMWK names (4)

A

Reid
Williams
Fitzgerald
Flaujeac

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35
Q

Zymogens are?

A

coag factor enzymes that circulate in an inactive form

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36
Q

7 Serine proteases

A

2, 7, 9, 10, 11, 12, PK

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37
Q

coag factors that function as Cofactors (4)

A

3, 5, 8, HMWK

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38
Q

8 coag factor zymogens

A

2, 7, 9, 10, 11, 12, PK, 13

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39
Q

Intrinsic pathway (4)

A

12, 11, 9, 8

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40
Q

Extrinsic pathway (2)

A

3, 7

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41
Q

Common pathway (4)

A

10, 5, 2, 1

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42
Q

Fibrinogen group is also known as ____

A

Thrombin sensitive group

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43
Q

Coag factors in FIBRINOGEN group (4)

A

1, 5, 8, 13

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44
Q

Coag factors in PROTHROMBIN group (4)

A

2, 7, 9, 10

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45
Q

Coag factors in CONTACT group (4)

A

12, 11, PK, HMWK

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46
Q

Factor XIII names (3)

A

Fibrin stabilizing factor
Fibrinase
Laki-Lorand factor

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47
Q

Test used in Factor XIII def

A

5M Urea Clot Solubility Test / Duckert’s test

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48
Q

True or False:

If clot is INSOLUBLE to 5M urea = there is factor XIII def

A

False

Soluble

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49
Q

Vit K independent

Calcium dependent

A

Fibrinogen group

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50
Q

Fibrinogen group is in increased in ___, ____, ____, ____

A

Pregnancy
Inflammation
Stress
Oral contraceptive

51
Q

Vit K dependent

Calcium dependent

A

Prothrombin group

52
Q

The only group that cannot be made by the liver without Vit K

A

Prothrombin group

53
Q

Vitamin K independent

Calcium independent

A

Contact group

54
Q

Prothrombin group is adsorb from plasma using:

  1. ______
  2. ______
A

Barium sulfate

Aluminum hydroxide

55
Q

2 phases of IN VIVO coagulation

A

Initiation

Propagation

56
Q

Where does the Initiation phase occur?

A

Tissue factor-bearing cells

57
Q

Where does the Propagation phase occur?

A

Platelets

58
Q

True or False:

Calcium is involved in all phases of coagulation except in CONTACT phase

A

TRUE

59
Q

ref range for APTT

A

35-45 seconds

60
Q

What does it mean when you say “ACTIVATED” PTT

A

negatively charged activators are added

61
Q

Examples of activators: (5)

A 
Silica
Kaolin
Celite
Bentonite
Soluble activator (Ellagic acid)
62
Q

Common test used for monitoring heparin therapy

A

APTT

63
Q

APTT detects deficiencies in what pathway? (2)

A

Common

Intrinsic

64
Q

How much Platelet-poor plasma is added to the APTT reagent?
A. 0.01 mL
B. 1.00 mL
C. 0.1 mL

A

C. 0.1 mL

65
Q

This test has a ref range of 10-13 seconds

A

PT

66
Q

This test is used for monitoring Warfarin therapy

A

PT

67
Q

Prothrombin time detects deficiencies in what pathway? (2)

A

Common

Extrinsic

68
Q

Standardized way of reporting PT

A

INR

69
Q

PT of patient divided by the mean of ref range multiplied by 100

A

Prothrombin ratio

70
Q

Meaning of WARF

A

Wisconsin Alumni Research Foundation

71
Q

Warfarin inhibits the synthesis of what coag factors (4)

A

2, 7, 9, 10

72
Q

It neutralizes the effect of Vitamin K

A

Warfarin

73
Q

Used for overdosage of Heparin

A

Protamin sulfate

74
Q

It is a common intravenous anticoag

A

Heparin

75
Q

It is routinely used in cardiac surgery

A

UFH

76
Q

A point of care assay used in clinics, bedside, cardiac catheterization, surgical suite

A

ACT - activated coagulation time

77
Q

It has a lower incidence of heparin induced thrombocytopenia compared with UFH

A

LMWH

78
Q

Coagulation instrumentation (5 principles)

A 
Mechanical/Electromechanical
Turbidometric (Photo-optical)
Nephelometric
Chromogenic
Immunologic
79
Q

This principle detects a change in plasma optical density

A

Trubidometric (photo-optical)

80
Q

This principle uses synthetic oligopeptide substrate conjugated to a chromophore

A

Chromogenic

81
Q

Contains all coagulation factors

Except: 5, 8

A

Aged plasma

82
Q

Contains all coagulation factors

Except: 1, 5, 8, 13, 2

A

Aged serum

83
Q

Contains all coagulation factors

Except: 2, 7, 9, 10

A

Adsorbed plasma

84
Q

Russel’s viper venom time is also known as

A

Stypven time

85
Q

This test is used to detect lupus anticoag

A

Dilute Russel’s viper venom time

86
Q

ref range for stypven time

A

20-25 seconds

87
Q

2 tests used for fibrinogen deficiency

A

Thrombin time

Reptilase time

88
Q

This test uses the venom of Bothrops atrax

A

Reptilase time

89
Q

True or False:

Thrombin time is unaffected by heparin

A

FALSE

Reptilase time

90
Q

True or False:

Heparin therapy is prolonged in Thrombin time

A

TRUE

91
Q

2 Methods of Clotting time

A

Slide/Drop method

Lee and White/Whole blood clotting time

92
Q

This test has a ref range of 2-4 minutes

A

Slide/Drop method

93
Q

PT: Prolonged
APTT: Normal
TT: Normal
PLT: Normal

A. Factor XIII def
B. Liver disease
C. Proconvertin def
D. DIC

A

C. Proconvertin def (factor 7)

94
Q

PT: Normal
APTT: Normal
TT: Normal
PLT: Decreased

A. Fibrinogen def
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Hemophilia A

A

B. Thrombocytopenia

95
Q

This drug shortens APTT

A. Isoniazid
B. DDAVP
C. Penicillin G

A

B. DDAVP

1-desamino-8- D-arginine vasopressin

96
Q

This drug enhances the effect of Warfarin (2 answers)

A. Phenylbutazone
B. Streptomycin
C. Aspirin
D. Metronidazole

A

A. Phenylbutazone

D. Metronidazole

97
Q

Stimulates formation of inhibitors to Labile factor

A. Isoniazid
B. Streptomycin
C. Metronidazole

A

B. Streptomycin

Labile factor = factor 5

98
Q

This drug weakens interaction of vWF with platelets

A. Penicillin G
B. Aspirin
C. Phenothiazines

A

A. Penicillin G

99
Q

Stimulates the production of a lupus anticoag

A. Streptomycin
B. Phenothiazines
C. Isoniazid

A

B. Phenothiazines

100
Q

Can produce thombocytopenia

A. Isoniazid
B. Aspirin
C. DDAVP

A

A. Isoniazid

101
Q

These are acquired inhibitors of coagulation

A

Circulating anticoag/inhibitors

102
Q

Most common Specific inhibitors

A

Factor 8,9

103
Q

Examples of Non-specific inhibitors (3)

A

Lupus anticoag
Paraproteins
Fibrinogen degradation products

104
Q

Main serine protease inhibitor

A

Antithrombin

105
Q

2 Major anticoag in the body

A

Protein C/Protein S System

Plasma Serine Protease Inhibitor System

106
Q

Final stage of coagulation and is the dissolution of clot

A

Fibrinolysis

107
Q

2 activators of fibrinolysis released during inflammation and coagulation

A

TPA - Tissue plasminogen activator

UPA - Urokinase plasminogen activator

108
Q

Proteins that accumulate into fibrin clot (5)

A 
Plasminogen
TPA
UPA
PAI-1
TAFI
A2-Antiplasmin
109
Q

Plasma zymogen

A

Plasminogen

110
Q

Plasminogen is stored and transported by what cells

A

Eosinophils

111
Q

May cause a potentially deadly primary fibrinolysis

A

Free Plasmin

112
Q

Activates plasminogen

A

TPA - Tissue plasminogen activator

113
Q

UPA is secreted by what cells (3)

A

Urinary tract epithelial cells
Monocytes
Macrophages

114
Q

Principal inhibitor of plasminogen activation

A

PAI-1 - Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor

115
Q

Primary inhibitor of free plasmin

A

A2-antiplasmin

116
Q

TAFI stands for

A

Thrombin-Activatable Fibrinolysis Inhibitor

117
Q

TAFI is activated by what complex?

A

Thrombin-thrombomodulin complex

118
Q

2 tests for Fibrinolysis

A

D-dimer

Euglobulin lysis time

119
Q

It indicates that a stable fibrin clot has been lysed

A

D-dimer

120
Q

FDP: +

D-dimer: -

A

Pathological fibrinolysis

121
Q

FDP: +

D-dimer: +

A

DIC - disseminated intravascular coagulation

122
Q

Proteins that precipitate when plasma is

diluted with water and acidified

A

Euglobulin

123
Q

Normal value for Euglobulin lysis time

A

> 2 hours

124
Q

Euglobulin is acidified using

A

1% acetic acid

HEMA (3 decks)

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