MTAP 1 MAJOR Flashcards
The color of urine containing porphyrins will be:
a. yellow-brown
b. green
c. orange
d. port wine
port wine
Urine production of less than 400 ml/day is:
a. Consistent with normal renal function and h2O balance
b. Termed isosthenuria
c. Defined as oliguria
d. Associated with diabetes mellitus
Defined as oliguria
A strong odor of ammonia in urine specimen could indicate:
a. Ketones
b. Normalcy
c. Phenylketonuria
d. An old specimen
An old specimen
Leaving excess urine on the reagent strip after removing it from the specimen will:
a. Cause run-over between reagent pads
b. Alter the color of the specimen
c. Cause reagents to leach from the pads
Cause run-over between reagent pads
The principle of the reagent strip test for bilirubin is the:
a. Diazo reaction
b. Ehrlich reaction
c. Greiss reaction
d. Peroxidase reactiom
Diazo reaction
Quality control of reagent strips is performed:
a. Using positive and negative controls
b. When results are questionable
c. at least once every 24 hrs
d. All of the above
All of the above
An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen is indicative of:
a. Cirrhosis of the liver
b. Hemolytic disease
c. Hepatitis
d. Biliary obstruction
Biliary obstruction
The principle of the reagent test strip test for the pH:
a. Protein error of indicators
b. Greiss reaction
c. Dissociation of a polyelectrolyte
d. Double indicatir reaction
Double indicatir reaction
In the laboratory, a primary consideration associated with ph is:
a. Identifying urinary crystals
b. Monitoring vegetarian diets
c. Determining specimen acceptability
d. Both A and C
Both A and C
A speckled pattern on the blood pad of the reagent strip indicates:
a. Hematuria
b. Hemoglobinuria
c. Myoglobinuria
d. All of the above
Hematuria
The reagent in the multistix reaction for urobilinogen is:
a. A diazonium salt
b. Tetramethylbenzidine
c. p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
d. Hoesch reagent
p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
A patient with a 2+ protein reading in the afternoon is asked to submit a first morning specimen. The second specimen has a negative protein reading. This patient is:
a. Positive for orthostatic proteinuria
b. Negative for orthostatic proteinuria
c. Positive for Bence Jones protein
d. Negative for clinical proteinuria
Positive for orthostatic proteinuria
The primary reagent in the reagent strip test for ketones is:
a. Glycine
B. Lactose
c. Sodium hydroxide
d. Sodium nitroprusside
Sodium nitroprusside
The principle of the reagent strip test for blood is based on the:
a. binding of heme and a chromogenic dye
b. peroxidase activity of heme
c. reaction of peroxide and chromogen
d. Excess conjugated bilirubin
peroxidase activity of heme
The primary cause of false negative bilirubin reaction is:
a. Highly pigmented urine
b. Specimen contamination
c. Specimen exposure to light
d. Excess conjugated bilirubin
Specimen exposure to light
Ketonuria may be caused by all of the ff except:
a. Bacterial infections
b. Diabetic acidosis
c. Starvation
d. Vomiting
Bacterial infections
The three intermediate products of fat metabolism include all of the ff except:
a. Acetoacetic acid
b. Ketoacetic acid
c. B-hydroxybutyric acid
d. Acetone
Ketoacetic acid
The normal threshold for glucose is:
a. 70-85 mg/dl
b. 100-115 mg/dl
c. 130-145 mg/dl
d. 165-180 mg/dl
165-180 mg/dl
Screening tests for urinary infection combine the leukocyte esterase test with the test for:
a. pH
b. Nitrite
c. Protein
d.Blood
Nitrite
Which of the ff statements regarding wbc in urinary sediment is true?
a. Glitter cells seen in the urinary sediment are a sign of renal disease
b. Bacteriuria in the absence of WBCs indicates lower urinary tract infection
c. WBCs other than PMNs are not found in urinary sediment
WBCs other than PMNs are not found in urinary sediment
Variations in the microscopic analysis off urine include all of the ff except:
a. preparation of the urine sediment
b. amount of sediment analyzed
c. method of reporting
d. identification of formed elements
identification of formed elements
Which of the ff statements regarding rbcs in the urinary sediment is true?
a. Yeast cells will lyse in dilute acetic acid but RBCs will not
b. RBCs are often swollen in hypertonic urine
c. RBCs of glomerular origin often appear dysmorphic
d. Yeast cells will tumble when the cover glass is touched but RBCs will not
RBCs of glomerular origin often appear dysmorphic
When using glass slide and cover slip method, which of the ff might be missed if the cover slip is overflowed?
a. Casts
b. RBCs
c. WBCs
d. Bacteria
Casts
Initial screening of the urine sediment is performed using an objective power of:
a. 4x
b. 10x
c. 40x
d. 100x
10x
Which of the ff are reported as number per lpf
a. rbcs
b. wbcs
c. crystals
d. casts
casts
Oval fat bodies are seen in:
a. Chronic glomerulonephritis
b. nephrotic syndrome
c. acute tubular nephrosis
d. renal failure of any cause
nephrotic syndrome
The mucoprotein that forms the matrix of a hyaline cast is called:
a. bence jones protein
b. b-microglobulin
c. tamm-horsfall protein
d. arginine-rich glycoprotein
tamm-horsfall protein
The CSF tube labeled 2 is sent to:
a. Serology section
b. Micriobiology section
c. Hematology section
d. chemistry section
Micriobiology section
The presence of oligoclonal bands in the CSF and not in the serum is associated with:
a. multiple sclerosis
b. cns malignancy
c. viral infections
d. Multiple myeloma
multiple sclerosis
What disorder is usually associated with increased levels of glutamine in the CSF?
a. Reiter’s syndrome
b. Astrocytomas
c. Guillain-barre syndrome
d. Reye syndrome
Reye syndrome
Grade 2 motility means:
a. rapid, straight line motility
b. Slow, forward progression with noticeable lateral movement
c. No movement
d. No forward progression
Slow, forward progression with noticeable lateral movement
Grade 4 motility means:
a. Rapid, straight line motility
b. Slow forward progression with noticeable lateral movement
c. No movement
d. No forward progression
Rapid, straight line motility
Decreased sperm viability may be suspected if there is:
a. Normal sperm concentration
b. decreased motility
c. Increased motility
d. A and B
A and B
What is associated with abnormal head morphology?
a. poor ovum penetration
b. decreased motility
c. both
d. neither
poor ovum penetration
The primary reason to dilute a semen specimen before performing a sperm concentration is to:
a. Immobilize the sperm
b. decrease tye viscosity
c. facilitate the chamber count
d. Stain the sperm
Immobilize the sperm
