MTAP 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Each kidney contains approximately how many nephrons

A

1 - 1.5 million nephrons

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2
Q

The kidneys receive approximately how many percent of blood from the heart.

A

25%

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3
Q

Carries blood TO the glomerulus

A

Afferent arteriole

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4
Q

Carries blood FROM the glomerulus

A

Efferent arteriole

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5
Q

Surrounds the PCT and DCT

A

Peritubular capillaries

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6
Q

Located adjacent to the Loops of Henle in the Juxtamedullary Nephrons

A

Vasa recta

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7
Q

TOTAL RENAL BLOOD FLOW

A

1200 mL/minute

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8
Q

TOTAL RENAL PLASMA FLOW

A

600-700 mL/minute/kidney

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9
Q

High Hydrostatic Pressure enhances

A

Glomerular Filtration

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10
Q

Location of Juxtaglomerular cells

A

Afferent arterioles

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11
Q

Location of Macula densa cells

A

Distal convoluted tubules

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12
Q

Stimulus of Juxtaglomerular cells

A

Low Blood Pressure

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13
Q

Stimulus of Macula densa cells

A

Low Plasma Sodium

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14
Q

Mechanisms of action of Angiotensin II to increase BP

A

Vasodilation of afferent arterioles and vasoconstriction of efferent arterioles

Stimulates reabsorption of Sodium in the PCT

Triggers the release of aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone

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15
Q

Removing the substances from the filtrate back to the blood

A

TUBULAR REABSORPTION

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16
Q

MAJOR SITE OF REABSORPTION

A

Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)

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17
Q

Substances that are part of active transport

A

Glucose
Amino acid
Salts
Chloride
Sodium

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18
Q

Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) reabsorbs what substances

A

Glucose
Amino acids
Salts

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19
Q

Ascending Loop of Henle reabsorbs what substance

A

Chloride

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20
Q

Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT) reabsorbs what substance

A

Sodium

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21
Q

It uses carrier protein

A

Active transport

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22
Q

It uses a concentration gradient

A

Passive transport

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23
Q

GLUCOSE RENAL THRESHOLD

A

160-180mg/dL

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24
Q

what is the Ultrafiltrate specific gravity

A

SG: 1.010

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25
Q

Urine Concentration begins in

A

Descending and Ascending Loop of Henle

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26
Q

responds to the body’s need for sodium

produced and released from the adrenal cortex

promotes sodium reabsorption in the DCT and potassium secretion

A

Aldosterone

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27
Q

responds to the body’s state of hydration

produced in the hypothalamus

released by posterior pituitary gland

A

Anti-diuretic hormone/ADH/Vasopressin

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28
Q

Passage of substances from the blood to the filtrate for excretion

A

Tubular secretion

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29
Q

Major site of secretion

A

Proximal Convoluted Tubules (PCT)

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30
Q

Standard test used to measure the filtering capacity of the glomeruli by measuring the rate at which the kidneys are able to clear a filterable substance from the blood.

A

Clearance Test

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31
Q

In passive transport all parts of the nephron EXCEPT for Ascending Loop of Henle reabsorbs what substance

A

Water

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32
Q

In passive transport PCT and Ascending Loop of Henle reabsorbs what substance

A

Urea

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33
Q

In passive transport Ascending Loop of Henle reabsorbes what substance

A

Sodium

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34
Q

Medications that may cause a false increase in creatinine clearance

A

Gentamicin
Cephalosporin
Cimetidine (Tagamet)

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35
Q

Originally the reference method for clearance tests

Reference research method

A

Inulin clearance test

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36
Q

Is a polymer of fructose which is extremely stable.

A

Inulin

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37
Q

Other substances that may be used for clearance tests:

A

B2-macroglobulin
Cystatin C
Radioisotopes

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38
Q

The most frequently used formula for eGFR

A

Cockroi and Gault Formula

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39
Q

Cockroi and Gault Formula variables

A

Weight
Age
Sex

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40
Q

Modifica>on of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) System Formula variables

A

Albumin
BUN
Ethnicity

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41
Q

An advantage of using eGFR is its capability to be computed even without

A

Urine creatinine value

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42
Q

What are the 2 water deprivation test

A

Fishberg test
Mosenthal test

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43
Q

Normal SG and Osmolarity in Water Deprivation Test

A

> 1.025
800 mOsm

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44
Q

A test where a patient is deprived of fluid for 24 hours

A

Fishberg test

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45
Q

Has no importance to the evaluation
of renal concentration ability

A

Urea

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46
Q

Glomerular Filtration Test

A

Clearance Tests
Calculated GFR Estimates (eGFR)

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47
Q

Tubular Reabsorption and Concentration Tests

A

Fishberg
Mosenthal
Specific Gravity
Osmolarity

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48
Q

Tubular Secretion and Renal Blood Flow Tests:

A

PSP
PAH

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49
Q

60-90%: MAJOR ORGANIC component

A

Urea

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50
Q

MAJOR INORGANIC component

A

Chloride

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51
Q

Electrolytes concentration

A

Chloride>Sodium>Potassium

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52
Q

To verify that a specimen is a urine, test for the (organic contents).

A

Urea
Creatinine

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53
Q

Urine container volume for routine analysis

A

50mL

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54
Q

Urine volume on the container for routine analysis

A

12mL

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55
Q

Normal daily urine output

A

600 - 2000mL

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56
Q

Average urine output

A

1200 - 1500mLG

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57
Q

SG of random specimen

A

1.003 - 1.035

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58
Q

SG of 24 hour

A

1.015 - 1.025

59
Q

Normal odor of urine

A

Aromatic

60
Q

pH of random urine specimen

A

4.5 - 8.0

61
Q

pH of first-morning urine specimen

A

5.0 - 6.0

62
Q

pH of urine specimen normal protein diet

A

4.5 - 6.5

63
Q

Normal urine protein

A

<10mg/dL or 100 mg/dL/24 hours

64
Q

Normal urine glucose

A

15 mg/dL

65
Q

Normal urine glucose (fasting)

A

2-20 mg/dL per 100mL of urine

66
Q

Normal urobilinogen glucose

A

<1 mg/dL

67
Q

Urine sample must be sent to the laboratory and tested within

A

2 hours

68
Q

IF NOT PROPERLY PRESERVED, what parameters increases

A

pH
Bacteria
Odor
Nitrite

69
Q

Most routinely used method of preservation

A

Refrigeration

70
Q

PRESERVATION method that causes precipita>on of amorphous phosphates (white) and amorphous urates (pink)

A

Refrigeration

71
Q

preserves glucose and sediments well

A

Thymol

72
Q

preserves protein and formed elements wells. Can be used for culture transport.

A

Boric acid

73
Q

Excellent sediment preservative. Preservative for Addis count

A

Formalin/formaldehyde

74
Q

A preservative that does not interfere with routine tests and is not effective against bacteria

A

Toluene

75
Q

prevents glycolysis; good preserva>ve for drug analysis

A

Sodium fluoride

76
Q

causes an odor change

A

Phenol

77
Q

preserves cellular elements, hence, used for cytologic studies

A

Saccomanno fixative

78
Q

used on automated instruments

A

Yellow Plain UA tube

79
Q

decreases pH. Sample is stable at room temperature for 48 hours.

Preservative is sodium propionate.

A

Gray C and S tube

80
Q

stable for 72 hours at room temperature

A

Cherry red/yellow top tube

81
Q

TYPES OF URINE SPECIMEN for routine testing

A

Random

82
Q

Ideal specimen for routine UA and pregnancy test (hCG)

Most concentrated; most acidic: for cell preservation of cells and casts

For evaluation of orthostatic proteinuria

A

First morning

83
Q

For glucose determination

A

Fasting

84
Q

For diabetic screening/monitoring

A

2 hour postprandial

85
Q

Optional with blood samples in glucose tolerance test

A

Glucose tolerance

86
Q

For routine screening and bacterial culture

A

Midstream Clean Catch

87
Q

For bacterial culture

A

Catheterized

88
Q

Most sterile

Bladder urine for anaerobic bacterial culture and urine cytology

A

Suprapubic Aspiration

89
Q

Use of soft, clear plastic bag with adhesive

A

Pediatric Specimen

90
Q

For nitrite determination

A

4 hour timed specimen

91
Q

Alkaline tide happens at what time

A

2-4pm

92
Q

Specimen for addis count

A

12 hour timed specimen

93
Q

Volume of Urine Specimen for Drug Analysis

A

30-45mL

94
Q

temperature of Urine Specimen for Drug Analysis

A

32.5 – 37.7C

95
Q

32.5 – 37.7C is taken within

A

4 minutes

96
Q

Oliguria on Infant

A

<1mL/kg/hr

97
Q

Oliguria on Children

A

<0.5mL/kg/hr

98
Q

Oliguria on Adult

A

<400mL/kg/hr

99
Q

Color orange urine is associated to what medication

A

bilirubin
acriflavine
pyridium,
nitrofurantoin

100
Q

Pyridium can be mistaken as

A

Bilirubin

101
Q

Method for Specific gravity

A

Direct method
Indirect method

102
Q

Direct method for specific gravity

A

Urinometer/Hydrometer
Harmonic Oscillation Densitometry

103
Q

Urinometer/Hydrometer sample volume

A

10-15mL

104
Q

Refractometer/ Total Solid Meter sample volume

A

1-2 qtts

105
Q

Seldom of clinical significance; not
part of routine urinalysis

A

Odor

106
Q

Foul, Ammonia-like

A

bacterial decomposition, UTI

107
Q

*Fruity, Sweet odor

A

Ketones (DM, starvation, vomiting)

108
Q

Maple syrup odor

A

MSUD

109
Q

Mousy odor

A

PKU

110
Q

Rancid odor

A

Tyrosinemia

111
Q

Sweaty Feet odor

A

Isovoleric acidemia

112
Q

Cabbage odor

A

Methionine malabsorption

113
Q

Rotting fish odor

A

Trimethylaminuria

114
Q

Bleach

A

Contamination

115
Q

Unusual or Pungent

A

Ingestion of onion, garlic,
asparagus

116
Q

Lack of odor in urine from patients with Acute Kidney Injury suggests

A

Acute Tubular Necrosis

117
Q

pH 9 suggests

A

Unpreserved urine

118
Q

MOST INDICATIVE OF RENAL DISEASE

A

Protein

119
Q

major serum protein
found in urine

A

Albumin

120
Q

Produced by the renal tubules and forms matrix of all types of casts.

A

Tamm-Horsfall Protein

121
Q

Clinical Proteinuria level of protein

A

> 30-300 mg/dL

122
Q

Bence-Jones Protein precipitates at

A

40-60C

123
Q

Bence-Jones Protein disappears at

A

100C

124
Q

Undetected by reagent strips

A

Microalbuminuria

125
Q

Methods for microalbuminuria

A

Micral test
Immunodip
Quantitative (24 hours urine)

126
Q

Micral test sensitivity

A

0-10 mg/dL

127
Q

Immunodip sensitivity

A

1.2-8 mg/dL

128
Q

Reference method for albumin test

A

Heat and acetic acid test

129
Q

A test with a principle where urine is coagulated by heat and precipitated by acetic acid (5-10%) and the
degree of turbidity produced is proportional to the amount of protein present

A

Heat and acetic acid test

130
Q

SSA (+) and Rgt. Strip (+) =

A

presence of albumin

131
Q

SSA (+) and Rgt. Strip (-) =

A

presence of proteins other than albumin

132
Q

General test for glucose and other reducing sugars

A

Benedict’s test

133
Q

Non-specific for glucose

A

Copper Reduction Method/Clinitest Tablet

134
Q

Compositions: Crystal violet and Safranin O
Delineates structure and contrasting colors of the nucleus and cytoplasm

A

Sternheimer-Malbin

135
Q

Enhances nuclear details

A

Toluidine
blue

136
Q

Triglycerides and neutral fats: Orange-Red

A

LIPID STAINS: Oil Red O and Sudan III

137
Q

Differentiates Gram (+) and Gram (-) bacteria

A

Gram Stain

138
Q

Compositions: eosin y and methylene blue

Stains eosinophilic granules

A

Hansel stain

139
Q

Stains structures containing iron

A

Prussian blue

140
Q

Lyses RBCs and enhances WBC nuclei

A

2% acetic acid

141
Q

Normal Acidic Crystals

A

Hippuric acid
Uric Acid
Calcium oxalate
Amorphous urates
Monosodium urates

142
Q

Normal Alkaline Crystals

A

Amorphous phosphates
Calcium carbonate
Calcium phosphate
Ammonium biurate
Triple phosphate

143
Q

Phenylalanine-Tyrosine Disorders

A

Melanuria
Tyrosyluria
Alkaptonuria
Phenylketonuria

144
Q
A