Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Patho past qs > MT open qs 3 > Flashcards

MT open qs 3 Flashcards

1
Q

True of False?

Perosis is for Mg deficiencies

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does brucella cause in bones in swine?

A

Rarefaction + ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pic of the enlarged vulva of a piglet. What could cause this?

A

F2 toxicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

A medical condition in which the bones become brittle and fragile from loss of tissue, typically as a result of hormonal changes, or deficiency of calcium or vitamin D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is amyelia?

A

Congenital absence of the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does fibrosis stand for?

A

Irreversible regressive change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which one causes haemorrhages in the urinary bladder:

a) distemper
b) swine fever
c) ethylene glycol toxicosis
d) none of the above

A

?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pic of fibrous pnemounia: which stain is used?

A

Weigert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is poliomyelitis?

A

Inflammation of the grey matter of the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which one cause embryonic malformation during embryonic phase?
BVD, brucellosis, listeria, all of the above

A

All of the above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which bacteria can lead to meningitis (in eq)

A

Actinomyces, Klebsiella, and Streptococcus species are sporadic causes of meningitis in horses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Osteodystrophea fibrosa frequesntly occurs in which bone?

A

Frequently in facial bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Oregon disease?

A

Green muscle disease of chicken and turkey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following leads to osteopetrosis in birds?

a. Retrovirus
b. Manganese deficiency
c. Manganese toxicity
d. Hypoparathyroidism

A

a. Retrovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Coronavirus targets dogs of what age?

A

< 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Specific disease caused by coronavirus in cats?

A

Feline infectious peritonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Enterotoxaemic E coli causes?

A

Edema disease of swine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

EPEC causes what?

A

Coli septicaemia and effacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which E. coli adheres to mucosa?

A

Enteropathogenic (EPEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pigs with ETEC have what symptoms?

A

Post weaning diarrhea - (usually thin yellowish diarrhea, exciccation & emaciation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Enterotoxigenic E coli causes?

Consequence of this?

A

Enterosorption

Consequence can be neonatal diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The heat stable enterotoxin in pigs has what action?

A

STa –> incr. cGMP - inhibits absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Enterotoxigenic E coli produces what enterotoxin in calves?

A

Heat labile (LT) –> incr. cAMP - promotes secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List the 4 types of E. coli

A

Entero-toxigenic, -pathogenic, -toxaemic, & invasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What occurs in the kidney of cattle due to adenovirus?

A
  • Virus multiplication in tubular epithelium
  • Necrosis - detachment of epithelium
  • Proteinuria
  • Focal interstitial nephritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What can occur in the lung of cattle due to adenovirus ?

A
  • Intralobular interstital pneumonia
  • Necrotizing microbronchitis
  • Obturation of bronchi
  • Lobular atalectasy
  • 2ry bonchoaveolar pneumonia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Specific disease caused by adenovirus in cattle?

A

Bovine adenoviral pneumoenteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Adenovirus in cattle targets what age?

A

4 weeks to 4 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Adenovirus infection of cattle begins in which organ ?

A

Pharyngeal lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Rotavirus targets cattle of which age?

A

< 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Clinical sings of rotavirus in cattle?

A

Fluid filled bowel loops, watery yellow diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Rotavirus targets swine of what age?

A

< 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which is not a cause of gastritis?

a. Erosion
b. Ileus
c. Trauma
d. Parasites/bacteria

A

a. Erosion

34
Q

Amount of area affected by parasitic gastritis?

A

Focal

35
Q

Type of gastritis caused by parasites or allergies?

A

Eosinophilic

36
Q

Tuberculosis causes what type of gastritis?

A

granulomatous

37
Q

Which type of gastritis is caused by fungi?

A

mycotic gastritis (abomasitis)

38
Q

Which is not affected by Vit A?

a. Vision
b. Steroid synthesis
c. Calcification
d. Development of epithelium

A

c. Calcification

39
Q

What is the main cause of xeropthalmia?

A

Vit A deficiency

40
Q

Which is not a cause of stenosis in the esophagus?

a. Constriction (?)
b. Obturation
c. Spasms of muscles
d. Dilation

A

d. Dilation

41
Q

Most common lesion in sheep due to stachybotryotoxicosis?

A

loss of wool

42
Q

What is not a common lesion in Eq in case of stachybotryotoxicosis?

a. Necrotic dermatitis nose + lips
b. bleeding of intestines
c. Necrotic stomatitis oral cavity
d. Liver dystrophy

A

b. bleeding of intestines

43
Q

Main source of infection of stachybotryotoxiccosis?

A

contamination of hay & straw in wet/humid conditions

44
Q

What does the Ncp strain of BVD cause?

A

immunotolerance, seropositivity

45
Q

What does the cp strain of BVD cause?

A

diarrhea, respiratory signs, abortion, developmental anomalies, immunosuppression (2ry infections)

46
Q

What does atresia mean?

A

not fully developed lumen of hollow organ / failure of opening of the tubules/ductules

47
Q

What does Fusobacterium necrophorum cause?

A

oral necrobacillosis

48
Q

2 types of fibrinous gastritis?

A

Croupous and diphteric

49
Q

What does Clostridium septicum cause?

A

Acute gastritis, malignant edema

50
Q

Which species is affected by Bradsot?

A

sheep, wild small ruminants

51
Q

Symptoms of Koves disease?

A

necrosis, edema, emphysema

52
Q

Symptoms of chronic superficial gastritis?

A

mild lymphoplasmocytic infiltration (follicular gastritis)

53
Q

Symptoms of chronic hypertrophic gastritis?

A

deep sulci, edema, thickened mm, cystic dilation of gl.

54
Q

Swine fever symptoms are an example of?

A

Haemorrhagic gastritis

55
Q

What is not a common lesion in Eq in case of stachybotryotoxicosis?

a. Necrotic dermatitis nose + lips
b. Bleeding of intestines
c. Necrotic stomatitis oral cavity
d. Liver dystrophy

A

b. Bleeding of intestines (in calves not eq)

56
Q

Which is not a cause of stenosis in the esophagus?

a. Constriction
b. Obturation
c. Spasms of muscles
d. Dilation

A

d. Dilation

57
Q

Which is not a consequence of lesions of continuity in forestomaches?

a. Peritonitis
b. Edema
c. Metastatic abscesses
d. Pericarditis

A

b. Edema

58
Q

a) Age of lesions if there is granulation tissue?
b) What characterizes a lesion of 5-7 days?
c) What characterizes a lesion of 4 weeks (28days)?
d) What characterizes a lesion of 6 weeks?

A

a) 2 weeks (10-14 days)
b) first collagen fibres
c) first appearance of elastic fibres
d) 2-3 cm of CT

59
Q

What is the main cause of xeropthalmia?

A

Vit A deficiency

60
Q

Which is not affected by Vit. A?

a. Vision
b. Steroid synthesis
c. Calcification
d. Development of epithelium

A

c. Calcification

61
Q

What are the pathological changes to the skin due to Vit A deficiency?

A

Hyper/parakeratosis, hair follicle degeneration

62
Q

Another term for primary tympany of rumen?

A

Frothy bloat

63
Q

Which is not a common PM finding after primary tympany?

a. Hypertrophy
b. Black line in esophagus
c. Dark, poorly clotted blood
d. Hemorrhages

A

a. Hypertrophy

64
Q

Another term for secondary tympany, and what is the main cause of it?

A

Free gas bloat – physical or functional defect in eructation

65
Q

What is affected in anteroventral perforation?

A

Diaphragm and pericardia

66
Q

What causes ventral perforation?

A

Abscesses at xiphoid (Acute local fibrinous peritonitis?)

67
Q

Which of the following changes can develop in the bones of pigs during brucellosis?

A

Rarefying and ossification osteitis

68
Q

In which direction does the vertebral column bend in case of scoliosis?

A

Lateral

69
Q

In which of the following cases is there a decreased osteoid margin formation in the trabeculae of the bones?

A

Calcium deficiency

70
Q

In which species and age group can spondylosis deformans cervicospinalis be observed?

A

Young horses

71
Q

Which endocrine organ has a major role in the ossification process?

A

Parathyroid gland

72
Q

Beside the muscular pathology, what other changes can be observed in the birds in case of Vit. E and selenium deficiency?

A

Exudative diathesis and encephalomalacia

73
Q

Which of the following changes is characteristic for rickets?

A

Uncalcified cartilage and osteoid tissue in the growing zone

74
Q

What is one inner criteria leading to the development of constitutional myopathy?

A

Anaerobic glycolysis

75
Q

Arthrosis can be defined as?

A

Regressive changes in the joint cartilage

76
Q

What type of cells are found in pustules?

A

Inflammatory cells – Neutrophils (less often eosinophils, could be a mix of the two)

77
Q

Which processes are not fused in hare lip?

A

Failure of fusion of the frontal-nasal processes (cheiloschisis superior media)

78
Q

Causative agent of bovine viral diarrhoea (BVD)?

A

Family Flaviviridae and genus pestivirus

79
Q

Secondary lesions of FMD found where?

A

(From lectures: other gross lesions)

  1. vesicular dermatitis (interdigital cleft, coronary band, teats, vulva)
  2. myocarditis – zenkers disease (in young animals)
80
Q

Definition of attrition?

A

Type of teeth wear caused by tooth to tooth contact – results in loss of tooth

81
Q

Stachybotryotoxicosis lesions in horse?

A

In the horse specifically:

  • Necrotic dermatitis on nares and lips
  • Necrotic stomatitis (lips, tongue , buccal surface)
  • Deep necrosis of tonsils
  • Liver dystrophy
  • Agranulocytosis
  • Lymphocytopenia
  • Hamorrhages (stomach brain)
82
Q

Primary lesions of FMD are found where?

A

(from lectures: gross lesions)

  • Small clear fluid filled vesicles – lips, buccal mucosa, tongue, nasal mucosa, oesophagus, conjunctivitis (rumen)
  • Enlarge - create bullae and ulcerate – irregular red patches, denuded submucosa erosions (ulcers)

Patho past qs (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions