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Patho past qs > Exam 15.05.20 > Flashcards

Exam 15.05.20 Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement is true for lesions caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum?

a) Bacteria can penetrate the intact skin and cause lymphohaematogenous metastasis
b) Causes necrotic lesions only in certain age groups
c) Cause of necrosis is bacterial toxins
d) Case of omphalogenic infections, the site of metastasis is usually the lung

A

c) Cause of necrosis is bacterial toxins

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2
Q

What kind of virus can cause enamel hypoplasia in dogs?

a) canine distemper v
b) canine parvo v
c) canine herpes v
d) canine retro v

A

a) canine distemper v

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3
Q

Which statement is true for necrotizing enteritis of piglets?

a) lesions are in LI
b) caused by Cl Perf B
c) animals lose weight slowly and fail to thrive
d) affects 1-2 week old piglets

A

d) affects 1-2 week old piglets

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4
Q

Primary lesions in Porcine Proliferative Enteropathy (PPE)

a) cecum
b) duodenum
c) rectum
d) ileum

A

d) ileum

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5
Q

True for actinobacillosis

a) obligate pathogen
b) pathogens are inhaled to the deepest airways
c) causes septicemia
d) pathogen needs a port of entry in oral mucosa

A

d) pathogen needs a port of entry in oral mucosa

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6
Q

Why are newborn piglets sensitive to Cl Perf C?

a) beta toxin is sensitive to trypsin
b) newborn animals produce small amounts of trypsin
c) there are trypsin inhibitors in colostrum
d) all answers are correct

A

d) all answers are correct

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7
Q

How to differentiate CSF and ASF during necropsy?

a) location of lesions
b) extent of bleeding
c) intestine involvement
d) cannot be

A

d) cannot be

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8
Q

How does necrotizing enteritis in piglets look like during necropsy?

a) lesions in colon
b) severe hepatitis
c) intestinal mucosa almost black
d) necrotic lesions in small intestine

A

d) necrotic lesions in small intestine

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9
Q

How long for cell poor granulation tissue to develop

a) 1 week
b) 2 week (10-14 days)
c) min 3 weeks
d) 4 weeks

A

b) 2 week (10-14 days)

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10
Q

What leads to fatty liver syndrome in Bo?

a) positive energy balance of food
b) Vit A def
c) lack of carbs
d) Pregnancy

A

d) Pregnancy

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11
Q

Which layer of stomach ruptures first

a) serous membrane
b) muscle layer
c) mucus membrane
d) supplying blood vessels

A

b) muscle layer

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12
Q

Which pathogens induce hepatosis dietetica in Su

a) infectious agents
b) nutritional problems
c) mycotoxins
d) hereditary factors

A

b) nutritional problems

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13
Q

What is the common consequence of deep inflammation of forestomach?

a) circumscribed peritonitis
b) reticulitis
c) septicemia
d) liver abscess

A

d) liver abscess

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14
Q

The bile duct coccidiosis

a) is a disease of hare
b) results in chronic purulent cholangitis
c) causes atrophy of bile duct epithelial cells
d) induces liver carcinoma

A

a) is a disease of hare

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15
Q

What causes death of animal after dilation of forestomachs

a) rupture of forestomach
b) suffocation
c) shock
d) obstruction of forestomach

A

b) suffocation

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16
Q

What is typical for necrobiotic/macrovesicular fatty infil of liver?

a) accum of fat droplets and nuclear changes
b) reduced glycogen and degeneration
c) activation of MPS system
d) fatty degeneration w/o nuclear changes

A

a) accum of fat droplets and nuclear changes

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17
Q

Which pneum type in a bronchopneumonia

a) embolic metastasis
b) catarrhal
c) granulomatous
d) interstitial

A

b) catarrhal

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18
Q

What can cause necrotic myocarditis?

a) parvo v
b) toxocara larvae
c) fusobacterium necrophorum
d) ptridium chauvoei

A

c) fusobacterium necrophorum

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19
Q

Which can cause fibrinous pericarditis in Bo?

a) sporadic Bo encephalomyelitis
b) actinobacillus pleuopneumoniae
c) coxiella burneti
d) bordetella bronchiseptica

A

a) sporadic Bo encephalomyelitis

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20
Q

Which one is a primary lesion in tetralogy of fallot

a) pulmonary stenosis
b) aortic stenosis
c) RV hypertrophy
d) LV hypertrophy

A

a) pulmonary stenosis

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21
Q

Subaortic stenosis can lead to

a) concentric LV hypertrophy
b) eccentric LV hypertrophy
c) concentric RV hypertrophy
d) eccentric RV hypertrophy

A

a) concentric LV hypertrophy

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22
Q

How to recognize catarrhal bronchopneumonia during necropsy?

a) CV location, greyish red color, glandular like textures, mucopurulent content on cut surface
b) CV location, greyish red color, liver like textures, dry cut surface
c) Dorsal areas affected, firm textures, sever crepitation upon incision
d) all answers are correct

A

a) CV location, greyish red color, glandular like textures, mucopurulent content on cut surface

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23
Q

Hemangiosarcoma can lead to this kind of lesion

a) hydropericardium
b) hemopericardium
c) aortic rupture
d) Pyopericardium

A

c) aortic rupture

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24
Q

True for interstitial pneumonia?

a) always affects CranioV lobes
b) always affects CaudoD lobes
c) affected area has a liver like texture
d) it can be caused by viral infections

A

d) it can be caused by viral infections

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25
Q

Which one of the following microbes is involved in atrophic rhinitis of Su

a) Pateurella dagmatis
b) Bordetella bronchiseptica
c) porcine cytomegalovirus
d) actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

A

b) Bordetella bronchiseptica

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26
Q

How do you recognise atelectasis during necropsy?

a) affected area is swollen
b) affected area is paler
c) affected area does not crepitate upon incision
d) all answers are correct

A

c) affected area does not crepitate upon incision

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27
Q

Which statement is true for haemotropic mycoplasma?

a) live in RBCs
b) only relevant in su
c) can cause icterus
d) mycoplasma cati occurs in cats

A

c) can cause icterus

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28
Q

Which statement is true for aleutian disease of minks?

a) caused by picorna virus
b) causative agent infects humans too
c) caused by arbovirus
d) virus infects minks, weasels, ferrets

A

d) virus infects minks, weasels, ferrets

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29
Q

True for FIP

a) mutant virus uses lymphocytes to spread
b) dry form goes with perivascular pyogranuloma formation
c) wet form can only lead to ascites
d) only cellular immunity has a role in the disease

A

b) dry form goes with perivascular pyogranuloma formation

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30
Q

Tumor of mesothel cells

a) fibroma
b) mesothelioma
c) lipoma
d) melanoma

A

b) mesothelioma

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31
Q

Which kind of lymphoid hyperplasia goes with proliferation of T cells

a) Follicular
b) parafollicular
c) sinus histiocytosis
d) suprafollicular

A

b) parafollicular

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32
Q

What can lead to splenomegaly

a) passive congestion
b) leukemia
c) inflammation
d) all of them

A

d) all of them

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33
Q

Which can cause purulent lymphadenitis?

a) streptococcus equi
b) fusobacterium necrophorum
c) toxolasma gondii
d) baciullus antrachis

A

a) streptococcus equi

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34
Q

What can lead to splenomegaly

a) hemolysis
b) intrapulpar diffuse hemorrhages
c) amyloidosis
d) all of them

A

d) all of them

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35
Q

Which can cause exogenous hemolytic anemia in dogs

a) malaria
b) plasmodiodosis
c) mycoplasma suis
d) babesia species

A

d) babesia species

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36
Q

Which statement is true for streptococcus infection of piglets

a) caused by obligate pathogens
b) mainly caused by streptococcus suis
c) mainly caused by streptococcus suis ssp zooepidemicus
d) mostly affects older animals

A

b) mainly caused by streptococcus suis

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37
Q

What are the histological features in case of chronic interstitial nephritis ?

a) Infiltration by neutrophil granulocytes
b) Infiltration by lymphocytes and plasma cells
c) Infiltration by langhans type giant cells
d) All of these are present

A

b) Infiltration by lymphocytes and plasma cells

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38
Q

What leads to constitutional acquired myopathies in Su

a) endogenous intra and extra muscular factors
b) exogenous factors (overcrowding, nutritional problems)
c) stress
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

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39
Q

What can be seen in case of chondrodystrophia fetalis

a) extreme longitudinal growth of bones
b) hindered longitudinal growth of bones
c) abnormal cartilage production
d) abnormal ossification of the bones

A

b) hindered longitudinal growth of bones

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40
Q

What exactly is the rickets

a) reconstruction of bones
b) disturbed mineralization
c) result of hyperparathyroidism
d) disturbance of bone tissue destruction

A

b) disturbed mineralization

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41
Q

what does pseudohypertrophia lipomatosa musculorum mean

a) enlargement of muscle due to fat accum
b) enlargement of muscle due to increased workload of obese animal
c) decreased size of muscle in obese animal
d) accomodation of muscle due to increased pressure

A

a) enlargement of muscle due to fat accum

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42
Q

what is the cause of nutritional muscle dystrophy

a) lack of se
b) lack of vit e
c) lack of methionine and cysteine
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

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43
Q

where does the osteodystrophia fibrosa frequently occur

a) in long bones
b) in vertebrae
c) in facial bones
d) anywhere in skeletal system

A

c) in facial bones

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44
Q

which pathogen can cause rarefier and ossifying osteitis?

a) TB
b) actinomycosis
c) glanders
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

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45
Q

hematogenous nephritis is

a) ascending
b) descending
c) same as urinogenic
d) always GN

A

b) descending

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46
Q

in which bones do we check of rickets in mammals

a) distal epiphysis of tibia
b) prox epiphysis of tibia
c) distal epiphysis of femur
d) prox epiphysis of femur

A

c) distal epiphysis of femur

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47
Q

True for swine parakeratosis dietetica

a) only skin can have lesions
b) zn deficiency is the cause
c) dermal glands function normally
d) starts on the head

A

b) zn deficiency is the cause

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48
Q

what is the primary cell type in meningeal inflamm

a) eosinophils
b) lymphocytes
c) neutrophils
d) macrophages

A

c) neutrophils

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49
Q

causative agent of aujeszky disease

a) suid herpesvirus 1
b) porcine repro and resp v
c) atypical porcine pestiv
d) porcine teschov

A

a) suid herpesvirus 1

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50
Q

what is the cause of canine distemper

a) morbilliv
b) lyssav
c) adenov
d) herpesv

A

a) morbilliv

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51
Q

not dysautonomia

a) EGS (Equine grass sickness)
b) key gaskell syndrome
c) ERE
d) simmonds disease

A

d) simmonds disease ?

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52
Q

had been described as a cause of adrenal failure

a) severe lasting infectious disease
b) mild resp dis
c) long starvation
d) feeding plants of brassicales order

A

a) severe lasting infectious disease ?

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53
Q

true for listeria monocytogenes inf of Ru

a) causes thromboembolic meningoencephalitis
b) causes severe endocarditis thromboulcerosa
c) reaches brain via n trigeminus
d) all above

A

c) reaches brain via n trigeminus

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54
Q

true for dysautonomia

a) disorders of vegetative nerve system
b) always comes w glia cell proliferation
c) not important in rabbits
d) unknown in horses

A

a) disorders of vegetative nerve system

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55
Q

true for thyreoid colloide

a) hematoxillin stains it
b) found between follicles
c) eosin stains it vividly
d) amount does not change with age

A

c) eosin stains it vividly

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56
Q

exclusively side to side movement of jaw can lead to this

a) saw mouth
b) exsuperantia dentis
c) shear mouth
d) dorsalis curvature/frown

A

a) saw mouth

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57
Q

hare lip is physiological in this breed

a) gsd
b) afghan greyhound
c) english bulldog
d) rottweiler

A

c) english bulldog

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58
Q

True for developmental anomalies of BVD

a) cerebral hypoplasia is quite common
b) congenital hydrocephalus doesnt cause skull enlargement
c) ankylosis can appear
d) bones of skull are never affected

A

c) ankylosis can appear

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59
Q

What statement is true for stachybotrytoxicosis?

a) In horses, necrotic dermatitis typically occurs on lips and nares
b) There is no time for the development of secondary infections
c) There is no mitostatic effect in horses
d) Only the neutrophil count decreases in horses

A

a) In horses, necrotic dermatitis typically occurs on lips and nares

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60
Q

true for BVD

a) only affects Bo
b) every virus strain is equally virulent
c) can cause transplacental inf
d) virus belongs to picornaviridae

A

c) can cause transplacental inf

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61
Q

Which statement is true for stachybotrytoxicosis?

a. The toxins induce epithelial proliferation
b. The local effect of the toxins is necrosis
c. Only the number of leukocytes and thrombocytes decreases
d. The liver is never affected

A

b. The local effect of the toxins is necrosis

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62
Q

brachydont

a) dog
b) eq
c) goat
d) bo

A

a) dog

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63
Q

What kind of structures will become erosions in foot and mouth disease?

a. Papula
b. Erythema
c. Macula
d. Vesicular

A

d) Vesicular

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64
Q

How is ASF spreading through Europe now

a) infected soft ticks
b) contaminated food and infected wild boars
c) infected semen transport
d) mosquitos

A

b) contaminated food and infected wild boars

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65
Q

Histopath basis for actinobacillosis?

a) tophus
b) pyogranuloma
c) tb
d) foreign body type granuloma

A

b) pyogranuloma

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66
Q

Actual cause of edema in oedema disease

a) stx2e toxemia
b) septicemia caused by invasive e coli strains
c) protein losing enteropathy
d) all

A

a) stx2e toxemia

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67
Q

what disease causes mesenteric lnn enlargement in su

a) ETEC inf
b) salmonella typhimurium enterocolitis
c) lawsonia IC enteropathy
d) brachyspira hyodystenteriae

A

b) salmonella typhimurium enterocolitis

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68
Q

Kind of abnormal incisor wear can appear in case of prognathia inferior

a) saw mouth
b) exsuperantia dentis
c) shear mouth
d) curvature/frown

A

d) curvature/frown

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69
Q

vascular anomaly ligates esophagus

a) dextroposition of aortic arch
b) sinistroposition of aortic arch
c) dorsoposition of aortic arch
d) ventroposition of aortic arch

A

a) dextroposition of aortic arch

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70
Q

fumonisin B1 toxicosis in Su causes

a) purulent hepatitis
b) lung edema
c) leucoencephalomalatia
d) all

A

b) lung edema

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71
Q

true for bacillus anthracis

a) doesnt infect human
b) gr -
c) spore forming
d) coccus

A

c) spore forming

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72
Q

kind of peritonitis can lead to autointoxication

a) acute circumscribed
b) chronic circumscribed
c) acute diffuse
d) chronic diffuse

A

c) acute diffuse

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73
Q

The virus of foot and mouth disease (FMD) does not infect this species

a. Goat
b. Cattle
c. Horse
d. Pig

A

c. Horse

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74
Q

What are the predilection sites for vesicular dermatitis in foot and mouth disease?

a. Coronary bands and teat
b. Tail and back
c. Stomach and neck
d. Ears

A

a. Coronary bands and teat

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75
Q

What kind of pigment is stored in the tubular epithelial cells?

a. Haemoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Bilirubin

A

?

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76
Q

How do you recognise alveolar emphysema?

a. The affected area is shrunken
b. The affected area is paler
c. The affected area does not crepitate upon incision
d. All answers are correct

A

b. The affected area is paler

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77
Q

Which species is usually affected by encephalomyocarditis virus (EMCV)

a. Dog
b. Cat
c. Swine
d. Cattle

A

c. Swine

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78
Q

Which species is the source of infection of malignant catarrhal fever of the cattle?

a. Sheep
b. Dog
c. Pig
d. Mouse

A

a. Sheep

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79
Q

What is true for myocardial necrosis caused by foot and mouth disease?

a. Only occurs in older animals
b. Is diffuse in calves
c. Only occurs in calves
d. Doesn’t affect the heart

A

b. Is diffuse in calves

80
Q

In which area of the stomach do ulcers frequently occur in dogs?

a. Pars oesophagia
b. Cardia
c. Fundus
d. Pylorus

A

d. Pylorus

81
Q

In which case can the tubular epithelial cells regenerate

a. If the basement membrane is intact
b. If there are enough cells for replacement
c. If the cause is removed
d. All three is needed

A

d. All three is needed

82
Q

Which can lead to hyperemic (congested) spleen?

a. Anthrax
b. Leukemia
c. Spleen edema
d. None of them

A

a. Anthrax

83
Q

What kind of disease is formed by Erysipelax rhusiopathiae in pigs?

a. Acute septicemic erysipelas
b. Diamond skin disease
c. Chronic erysipelas
d. All of them

A

d. All of them

84
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. The causative agent of swine dysentery cannot be demonstrated by histopathological techniques
b. Dysentery strands are diffuse subacute catarrhal colitis
c. In case of swine dysentery mucosal necrosis can be observed
d. In case of swine dysentery in the wall of the intestine granuloma formation

A

c. In case of swine dysentery mucosal necrosis can be observed

85
Q

Osteomalatia, osteoporosis and osteodystrophia fibrosa are

a. Inflammatory changes of the bones
b. Diseases of young animals
c. Osteopathies
d. None of the above

A

c. Osteopathies

86
Q

Where can we find the patent ductus arteriosus?
Between the aorta and vena cava
Between the vena cava and the vena portae
Between the pulmonary artery and aorta
Between the pumonary artery and vena cava

A

Between the pulmonary artery and aorta

87
Q 
What kind of anomaly a supernumerary valve is? 
Endocaritis  
Endocardiosis  
Valvular dysplasia  
Valvular polyploidy
A

Valvular polyploidy

88
Q 
In which species can interstitial emphysema be observed more frequently? 
Cattle  
Dog  
Cat  
horse
A

Cattle

89
Q 
What is the “bradzot”? 
Accute catarrhal gastritis  
Stomach ulceration of pigs  
Abnormal content of forestomachs  
Malignant edema of abomasum
A

Malignant edema of abomasum

90
Q 
What type of exudatve inflammation does NOT develop in the forestomachs? 
Serous  
Catharral  
Purulent  
Haemorrhagic
A

Catharral

91
Q

What are the main characteristics of the salmonella cholerasuis septicaemia?

a) Affects newborn piglets only
b) the clinical signs are mild
c) High fever is typical
d) It causes rectal stricture due to chronic proctitis (this is in salmonella enterocolitis)

A

c) High fever is typical

92
Q

What is true for pulpy kidney disease of sheep and goat?

a) The toxin absorbed from the intestine can damage the tubular epithelial cells
b) Hypomotility of the intestine causes clostridial overgrowth
c) The E-toxin produced by the bacterium is activated by trypsin
d) All answers are correct

A

d) All answers are correct

93
Q

Characteristic lesions in case of classical swine fever?
Bleedings in the intestinal mucosa
Haemorrhagic infiltration in the lymph nodes
Non suppurative encephalitis
All above are correct

A

All above are correct

94
Q 
What lesion can be caused by hepatic cirrhosis? 
Ascites 
Pericariditis  
Mesothelioma 
Compression of the ductus thoracicus
A

Ascites

95
Q

What is true for rabies?
The viraemia is developing after a long incubation time
It spreads via the peripheral nerves
It causes severe purulent leukoencephalitis
All are correct

A

It spreads via the peripheral nerves

96
Q

True for swine erysipelas

a) Every case and every stage has dermal lesions
b) It has a viral origin
c) In acute case deep rhomboid ulcers form on the skin – diamond skin disease
d) In acute case thin reddish brown squares can be seen on the skin – diamond skin disease

A

a) Every case and every stage has dermal lesions?

97
Q 
Which statement is true for myocarditis? 
Always visible macroscopically 
Infectious causes are rare 
Causes pale areas in the heart 
Always leads to serious consequences
A

Causes pale areas in the heart

98
Q

What can cause lympho-hystiocytic myocarditis?

a) Parvo
b) Toxocara larvae
c) Fusobacterium necrophorum
d) Clostridium chauvoei

A

a) Parvo ?

99
Q 
What is true for erosion? 
Trauma is obligatory for it  
There are always degenerative changes in the subcutis  
It can’t develop from a papula  
Vesicles often precede it
A

Vesicles often precede it ?

100
Q 
What is the latin name of the inflammation of the rumen? 
Ruminitis 
Reticulitis  
Omasitis  
Abomasitis
A

Ruminitis

101
Q 
True for myxomatosis:  
Only insect vectors can spread it  
Parapoxvirus is the cause  
Ortopoxvirus is the cause  
Myxomas are most commonly seen on the ears and eyelids
A

Myxomas are most commonly seen on the ears and eyelids

102
Q

How do necrotizing enteritis of piglets look like during necropsy?
Lesions are seen in the colon
There is severe hepatitis
The intestinal mucosa is almost black
Necrotic lesions are seen in the small intestine

A

Necrotic lesions are seen in the small intestine

103
Q

Why are the newborn piglets sensitive for clostridium perfringens C infection?
The beta toxins is sensitive for trypsin
Newborn animal produce small amounts of trypsin
There are trypsin inhibitors on the colostrum
All answer are correct

A

All answer are correct

104
Q 
Which kind of developmental abnormality is seen in the central nervous system due to intrauterine BVDV infection?  
Spina bifida  
Cerebellar hypoplasia  
Meningoencephalokele  
Cholesterol granuloma formation
A

Cerebellar hypoplasia

105
Q 
In general the absence of counterpressure on the teeth leads to this?  
Saw mouth  
Exsuperantia dentis  
Shear mouth  
Dorsal curvature/frown
A

Exsuperantia dentis

106
Q 
How do we call the abnormal facial fissures with only soft tissue involvement?  
Cheiloschisis  
Cheliognathoschisis  
Brachygnatha  
Prognatha
A

Cheiloschisis

107
Q 
In which organs system are autonomous nerve originated tumors well known in dogs?  
Digestive  
Respiratory 
Urogenital  
Skeletal
A

Digestive

108
Q 
What kind of pleuritis is caused by Trueperella pyogenes?  
Serous  
Serous- Fibrinous  
Purulent  
Ichorous
A

Purulent

109
Q

Which statement is true for pneumothorax?
Always caused by trauma
The lung expands because of it
Leads to the compression of the blood vessels and hearts
Always leads to death

A

Leads to the compression of the blood vessels and hearts

110
Q 
How do we call the peripheral neuropathy when both the nerve and the sheath are damages ?  
Neuropathia 
Neuronopathia  
Myelinopathia 
Axonopathia
A

Neuronopathia

111
Q 
True for toxoplasma  
Cats are the final hosts  
Pregnant women are in high risk 
It can cause non suppurative meningoencephalitis  
All answer are correct
A

All answer are correct

112
Q 
Not a common consequences of dermal ulcer 
Endocarditis  
Nephritis  
Autointoxication  
Bacteramia
A

Autointoxication ?

113
Q 
What kind of abnormal wearing can appear, if the animal doesn’t chew on one side?  
Saw mouth  
Exsuperentia dentis  
Shear mouth  
Dorsal curvature/ frown
A

Shear mouth

114
Q 
Which pneumonia type in a bronchopneumonia?  
Embolic metastasis  
Interstitial  
Granulomatous  
Kroupous
A

Kroupous

115
Q

True for metabolic embolic pneumonia
The pathogen is distributed via the circulation
Multiple nodules are seen in the lungs
The nodules are distributed randomly in the lungs
All answer are correct

A

All answer are correct

116
Q 
What can be the cause of pulmonary atelectasis?  
Obstructive bronchiolitis  
Pneumothorax  
Hydrothorax  
All answer are correct
A

All answer are correct

117
Q 
What is bone usuration? 
A regressive change  
A proliferative change  
An inflammatory change  
A bone tumor
A

A regressive change

118
Q

Which one is true for gestational BVD infection?

a) It is very rare
b) Cytopathic strains can cause immunotolerance if they infect 180 days after fertilisation
c) The pregnant cow is always asymptomatic
d) Non-cytopathic can hurt the embryo as well

A

d) Non-cytopathic can hurt the embryo as well

119
Q

Which statement is true for the lesions caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum?

a) In the case of ear, tail chewing it usually produces metastasis in the liver
b) In the case of rumen acidosis it can cause metastasis in the liver
c) I can only infect the lung via haematogenous route
d) Metritis caused by the bacteria tends to heal

A

b) In the case of rumen acidosis it can cause metastasis in the liver

120
Q 
What kind of pigment is stored in the tubular epithelial cells after the monday morning disease?  
Hemoglobin  
Myoglobin  
Hemosiderin  
Bilirubin
A

Myoglobin

121
Q 
What is Roseola?  
Tiny pseudomembrane  
Epithelial proliferation  
Red area/ spot  
Sediment around the tongue
A

Red area/ spot

122
Q 
How long does it take for the complete regeneration of the tubular epithelial cells?  
3 days  
7-14 days  
21-56 days  
They cannot regenerate
A

21-56 days

123
Q 
Which pneumonia type in bronchopneumonia?  
Purulent hepatitis  
Catarrhal 
Fibrinous  
All answer are correct
A

All answer are correct

124
Q 
What can be the consequences of bronchiolitis?  
Atelectasis  
Emphysema  
Pneumonia  
All answer are correct
A

All answer are correct

125
Q

Which statement is true for the lesions caused by Actinobacillus lignieresi?

a) It usually affects the soft tissues
b) The macrophages are the only dominant cell types in the nodules caused by it
c) The actinobacilloma is a tumour originating from the lesions
d) The most severe connective tissue proliferation occurs during the abscess formation

A

a) It usually affects the soft tissues

126
Q 
In which area of the stomach the ulcers frequently occur in pigs? 
Pars oesophagica 
Cardia 
Fundus 
Pylorus
A

Pars oesophagica

127
Q 
In case of peracute hepatosis dietetica in pigs the liver...
Small and firmer 
Enlarged and mottled 
Shows cirrhosis 
Yellow and fragile
A

Enlarged and mottled

128
Q 
What is a frequent predisposing factor in Clostridial enterotoxaemias? 
Sudden change in the weather 
Overeating 
Viral pneumonias 
Subsequent Salmonella infection
A

Overeating

129
Q 
What is the causative agent of swine dysentery? 
Brachyspira pilosicoli 
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae 
Brachyspira innocens 
Brachyspira suanatina
A

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

130
Q 
What is the causative agent of pulpy kidney disease? 
Clostridium perfringens A 
Clostridium perfringens B 
Clostridium perfringens C 
Clostridium perfringens D
A

Clostridium perfringens D

131
Q

What is the actual cause of diarrhoea in neonatal ETEC infection of piglets?

a) Severe inflammation of the small intestine
b) Invagination of the intestine
c) Malfunction of the enterocytes
d) Torsion of the small intestine

A

c) Malfunction of the enterocytes

132
Q

Which statement is true for stachyobotryotoxicosis?

a) The staphylococcus aureus septicaemia is a frequent complication in horses
b) In cattle, the haemorrhagic nature is well-marked
c) In horses, the hair coat frequently falls out
d) The pig is resistant to the toxin

A

b) In cattle, the haemorrhagic nature is well-marked

133
Q

Which one is true for the primary infection of calves with BVD?

a) The classic sign is ataxia
b) The non-cytopathic strains cause immunosuppression as well
c) The cytopathic strains can only be related to gastrointestinal symptoms
d) Secondary infections are not relevant

A

b) The non-cytopathic strains cause immunosuppression as well

134
Q

What is true for mucosal disease?

a) It appears when immunotolerant calves are superinfected by cytopathic strains
b) The mortality is low
c) It causes catarrhal enteritis
d) It appears when immunotolerant calves are superinfected by non-cytopathic strains

A

a) It appears when immunotolerant calves are superinfected by cytopathic strains

135
Q 
What is true for bovine popular stomatitis 
Zoonosis 
Causes serious symptoms 
Usually affects older animals 
Caused by pestivirus
A

Zoonosis

136
Q

What exactly is the bone transformation?
The reconstruction of bones
The disturbance of mineralization
Result of hyperparathyroidism
The disturbance of bone tissue destruction

A

The reconstruction of bones ?

137
Q

Which statement is true for streptococcus infection of piglets?
The chronic septicemic form goes with hyperplastic splenitis
Doesn’t cause lesions in the respiratory tract
Doesn’t cause lesions in the meninges
Mostly affects older animals

A

The chronic septicemic form goes with hyperplastic splenitis

138
Q

What are the consequences of Ca-oxalate poisoning?
Tubulonephrosis
Hypocalcemia
Mechanical trauma of the tubular epithelial cells
All three can occur

A

All three can occur

139
Q

How does osteitis develop?
From the blood vessels of the compact bone
Either from the periosteum or from the bone marrow
Through a trauma to the bone
None of the above

A

Either from the periosteum or from the bone marrow

140
Q 
What kind of pigment is stored in the tubular epithelial cells in case of Wesselbron disease? 
Hemoglobin 
Myoglobin 
Hemosiderin 
Bilirubin
A

Bilirubin

141
Q 
Goitre is 
Only seen in mammals 
Always comes with secretory disorder 
Can be of inflammatory origin 
A broad, collective term
A

A broad, collective term

142
Q

True for blossoming of the pox
Only in the abdomen
The lesions start to develop in the epithelium
It always happens before the infection of the internal organs
A consequence of secondary viremia

A

A consequence of secondary viremia

143
Q

What is characteristic for salt poisoning in pigs?
Eosinophilic perivasculitis in the brain
Edema in the brain
GI inflammation
All answers are correct

A

All answers are correct

144
Q 
In case of canine distemper the inclusion bodies are  
Basophilic 
Eosinophilic 
Heterophilic 
Metachromatic
A

Eosinophilic

145
Q 
What does a porcine circovirus 2 (PCVS) infection cause in the kidneys? 
Exudative glomerulonephritis
Proliferative glomerulonephritis 
Interstitial nephritis 
Suppurative nephritis
A

Interstitial nephritis

146
Q 
What is the outcome of suid herpes virus 1 infection in dogs? 
Inapparent infection 
Dogs are not susceptible 
Kennel cough 
CNS symptoms and death
A

CNS symptoms and death

147
Q

What are the negri bodies?
Degenerating hepatocytes
Apoptopic lymphoid cells
Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in the neuron during rabies
Degenerationg neurons that are being phagocytosed by glial cells

A

Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in the neuron during rabies

148
Q

Which statement is true for Actinobacillus ligniersi?
It only infects pigs
Changing of teeth predisposes to disease caused by it
It is not part of the normal oral flora
It can penetrate to the deep tissues across the intact mucous membrane

A

Changing of teeth predisposes to disease caused by it

149
Q 
What is the causative agent of lamb dysentery? 
Clostridium perfringens A 
Clostridium perfringens B 
Clostridium perfringens C 
Clostridium perfringens D
A

Clostridium perfringens B

150
Q

How does necrotizing enteritis of piglets like during necropsy?
The intestinal lesions start with a sharp margin
The mucosal surface is yellowish
The lesions are visible from the serosal surface
All answers are correct

A

All answers are correct

151
Q

What is true for the lesions of the head in FMD ?
There are always some lesions around the ear
The conjunctive is usually intact
Lesions are rare on the tongue
The esophagus and nasal mucosa can be affected as well

A

The esophagus and nasal mucosa can be affected as well

152
Q 
Which layer of the stomach ruptures last? 
Serous membrane 
Muscle layer 
Mucous membrane 
Supplying blood vessels
A

?

153
Q

What is true for salmonella enterocolitis?
The lesions are seen mosly in the duodenum and jejunum
It is characterized by villus clubbing, villus fusion and epithelial denudation
It is the result of umibilcal infection
The mesenterical lymphnodes are enlarged

A

The mesenterical lymphnodes are enlarged

154
Q

What is true for swine typhus/typhoid?
It is an acute infection with severe clinical signs
It is present world wide
The pathogen needs predisposing factors for the development of the disease
Necrotic lesions are seen in the parenchymatous organs

A

Necrotic lesions are seen in the parenchymatous organs

155
Q

What is true for paratuberculosis
It is caused by mycobacterium bovis
It is an acute disease leading to sudden death
It is causing respiratory problems due to tubercule formation in the lungs
The disease has a long latency period after infection

A

The disease has a long latency period after infection

156
Q 
Which following disease can cause lesions in the large intestines of pigs? 
Swine dysentery 
Salmonella typhimurium infection 
CSF 
All answers are correct
A

All answers are correct

157
Q

What is true for interstitial pneumonia?
It always affects the cranioventral lobes
It always affectes the caudodorsal lobes
The affected area has a liver like texture
It can be caused by viral infections

A

It can be caused by viral infections

158
Q 
Which statement is true for acute septicemia caused by bacillus anthracis?
Causes acute hyperemic splenitis 
Causes chronic hyperemic splenitis 
Causes acute hyperplastic splenitis 
Causes chronic hyperplastic splenitis
A

Causes acute hyperemic splenitis

159
Q 
In which species does the stomach torsion occur frequently 
Cattle 
Dog 
Horse 
Rabbit
A

Dog

160
Q 
What can cause eosinophil granulocytic myocarditis 
Parvovirus 
Toxocara larvae 
Fusobacterium necrophorum 
Clostrium chauvoei
A

Toxocara larvae

161
Q

What condition leads to rubber jaw?

a) Bacterial infections
b) Enteritis
c) Renal failure
d) Heart failure

A

c) Renal failure

162
Q

Which can lead to meaty spleen?

a) Anthrax
b) Amyloidosis
c) Spleen oedema
d) None of them

A

b) Amyloidosis

163
Q

What is encephalomalacia ?

a) Heamorrhage in the brain
b) Necrosis in the brain
c) Inflammation of the brain
d) Swelling of the brain

A

b) Necrosis the brain

164
Q

Which vitamin deficiency could cause neural lesions?

a) D
b) A
c) C
d) B6 deficiency but adequate B5 supply

A

d) B6 deficiency but adequate B5 supply

165
Q

TRUE for myxoedema in piglets and lambs

a) The mothers have goitre
b) Selenium deficiency is the cause
c) Goitre is developing in new-borns
d) Sporadic occurrence within the flock

A

c) Goitre is developing in new-borns

166
Q

Which one is a form of glomerulonephrosis?

a) Glomerulus amyloidosis
b) Glomerulus lipidosis
c) Glomerulosclerosis
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

167
Q

Which is true for metastatic embolic pneumonia?

a) The pathogen is disturbed via the circulation
b) Multiple nodules are seen in the lungs
c) The nodules are distributed randomly in the lungs
d) All answers are correct

A

d) All answers are correct

168
Q

Osteodystrophia fibrosa results in

a) Dyspnoe
b) Scoliosis
c) Rickets
d) Renal failure

A

a) Dyspnoe

from Miras notes. But can be secondary renal failure

169
Q

What is the primary site of stomach rupture?

a) At the cardia
b) Along the small curvature
c) Along the large curvature
d) At the pylorus

A

c) Along the large curvature

170
Q

What is the relevance of the developmental anomalies of teeth?

a) Never cause severe consequence
b) The number of teeth is always fix
c) If severe enough it can cause the animal not to eat
d) We can always solve it with extraction

A

c) If severe enough it can cause the animal not to eat

171
Q

What is the consequence of vitamin A deficiency in the forestomachs?

a) Inflammation
b) Foamy bloat
c) Hyper- and parakeratosis
d) Atony

A

c) Hyper- and parakeratosis

172
Q

Which enteric disease causes mesenteric lymph node enlargement in pigs?

a) ETEC infection
b) Salmonella thyphimurium
c) Lawsonia intracellularis
d) Brachyspira hyodisenteriae infection

A

b) Salmonella thyphimurium

173
Q

What is the common consequence of the deep inflammation in the forestomachs?

a) Circumscribed peritonitis
b) Reticulitis
c) Septicaemia
d) Liver abscessation

A

d) Liver abscessation

174
Q

What is true for swine typhus/typhoid?

a) It is a localised disease of the large intestine
b) Lesions can only be found in the spleen
c) Pigs show severe acute symptoms of septicaemia and die quickly
d) Lesions spread through episodes of bacteraemia

A

d) Lesions spread through episodes of bacteraemia

175
Q

Which statement is true for swine erysipelas ?

a) There is urticaria in diamond skin disease
b) In diamond skin disease the spleen is enlarged
c) There are no skin lesions in chronic form
d) In chronic form, endocardiosis is a freqeunt lesion

A

a) There is urticaria in diamond skin disease

176
Q

Which is the most sensitive species to stachybotryotoxicosis ?

  • Chicken
  • Pig
  • Dog
  • Horse
A
  • Horse
177
Q

Which condition leads to the “rubber jaw”?

  • Osteomalatia
  • Osteoporosis
  • Fibrous osteodystrophy
  • Rickets
A
  • Fibrous osteodystrophy
178
Q

Which disease can be accompanied by osteodystrophia fibrosa?

  • Chronic lung disease
  • Chronic renal insufficiency
  • Chronic enteritis
  • Hepatic tumor
A
  • Chronic renal insufficiency
179
Q

What kind of pigment is stored in the tubular epithelial cells in case of the Cloisonné disease in goat ?

  • Hemoglobin
  • Myoglobin
  • Hemosiderin
  • Bilirubin
A
  • Hemosiderin
180
Q

What can be the consequence of pleuritis ?

  • Lung atelectasis
  • Circulatory disturbance
  • Autointoxication
  • All of them
A
  • All of them
181
Q

Which kind of pleuritis can be caused by traumatic reticuloperitonitis ?

  • Serous
  • Purulent
  • Hemorrhagic
  • Ichorous
A
  • Ichorous
182
Q

What is bronchiectasia ?

  • Lack of air in the bronchi
  • Pathologic widening of the bronchial lumen
  • Inflammation of the bronchial wall
  • Calcification of the bronchial wall due to tuberculosis
A
  • Pathologic widening of the bronchial lumen
183
Q

What other lesions can be seen in case of hepatosis dietetica in pigs ?

  • Encephalomalatia
  • Meningitis
  • Ascites
  • Bronchopneumonia
A
  • Ascites
184
Q

What is mucosal disease ?

  • A mild form of BVD infection
  • Actinobacillosis of the tongue
  • Lethal infection caused by BVD infection
  • Erosions in the oral mucous membrane caused by stachybotryotoxin exposure
A
  • Lethal infection caused by BVD infection
185
Q

What is true for the Salmonella enterocolitis ?

  • It is a subclinical infection
  • The lymph nodes are not affected
  • The lesions are mostly fibrinonecrotic and ulcerative
  • In affected animals lesions are only seen in the ileum and colon
A
  • The lesions are mostly fibrinonecrotic and ulcerative
186
Q

What is the causative agent of necrotic enteritis of piglets?

  • Clostridium perfringens A
  • Clostridium perfringens B
  • Clostridium perfringens C
  • Clostridium perfringens D
A
  • Clostridium perfringens C
187
Q

What is different between the lesions seen in Salmonella enterocolitis and swine dysentery ?

  • The involvements of the mesenterical lymph nodes
  • The site of the primary lesion
  • Necrotic inflammation of the affected intestine
  • Signs of diarrhea
A
  • The involvements of the mesenterical lymph nodes
188
Q

How do we call the abnormal facial fissures with only soft tissue involvement?
(no answers shown)

A

Facial cleft:
Ø Primary: harelip
Ø Secondary: cleft palate

189
Q

Which statement is true for stachybotryotoxicosis ?

  • In sheep, the only symptom is the loss of wool
  • In sheep, there is no bleeding tendency
  • In pigs, the snout and teats are the predilection sites for necrosis
  • The kidney is not affected at all
A
  • In pigs, the snout and teats are the predilection sites for necrosis
190
Q

What is the cause of spongiform encephalopathy?

a) Accumulation of abnormal proteins in the brain
b) Viruses infecting the brain by neuronal transport
c) Bacteria infecting the brain by neuronal transport
d) Edema caused by SXT2e toxins

A

a) Accumulation of abnormal proteins in the brain

191
Q

Which cells are responsible primarily for remotion and reparation in the brain?

a) Neurons
b) Pyramidal cells
c) Purkinje cells
d) Glial cells

A

d) Glial cells

192
Q

FALSE procedure, if during the examination of a small ruminant you find circumscribed inflammatory lesions in the mouth

a) Only prescribe antibiotics for the animals
b) Report the finding to authorities (state vet office)
c) In case of mortality send samples to laboratory immediately
d) Before visiting the next farm disinfect equipment, hands, shoes and clothes

A

a) Only prescribe antibiotics for the animals

193
Q

Which process can lead to hemorrhages on the epicardium?

a) Septicemia
b) Suffocation
c) Toxicosis
d) All of them

A

d) All of them

194
Q

Which statement is true for leptospirosis?

a) Does not cause renal damage
b) Doesn’t affect humans
c) The pathogens are shed in the feces
d) Can cause abortion

A

d) Can cause abortion

195
Q

How do you recognize aspiration pneumonia during necropsy?

a) It can be smelly due to putrefactive bacteria
b) The lesion is affecting all the lobes equally
c) The affected area becomes paler
d) Multifocal nodules are found all over in the lung tissue

A

a) It can be smelly due to putrefactive bacteria

196
Q

How does the liver look in case of fatty liver syndrome in cattle?

a) Enlarged, yellow and fibrotic
b) Enlarged, yellow and fragile
c) Smaller, yellow and fibrotic
d) Smaller, yellow and fragile

A

b) Enlarged, yellow and fragile

197
Q

What is the etiological agent of swine dysentery?

a) Campylobacter jejuni
b) Salmonella typhisuis
c) Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
d) Clostridium perfringens D

A

c) Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

Patho past qs (7 decks)

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