Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CELE > MSTE > Flashcards

MSTE Flashcards

1
Q

Any organization duly accredited by the Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE) delegated or authorized to
perform functions related to improvement of occupational safety
and health in the form of training, testing, certification, safety and health auditing
or any other similar activity.

A

accredited organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A person trained and duly certified or qualified to administer first-aid by
the Philippine National Red Cross or by any
organization accredited by the same.

A

certified first aider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A person or entity who is hired by the project owner, to act in the owner’s behalf concerning supervision and monitoring of all matters related to the overall
execution of a construction project. They shall be a separate entity from the general constructor or any subcontractor of the construction project.

A

construction project manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The general safety and health committee for a construction project site that shall be the overall coordinator in implementing OSH programs.

A

construction safety and health committee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Any employee/worker trained and, in addition to their regular duties and responsibilities, tasked by his employer to implement occupational safety and health programs in accordance with the provisions of the Occupational Safety and Health Standards (OSHS).

A

construction safety and health officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A set of detailed rules to cover the processes and practices that shall be utilized in a specific construction project site in conformity with the OSHS including the personnel responsible and the penalties for violations thereof.

A

construction safety and health program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Any, but not limited to, emergency or danger sign, warning sign or safety instruction, of standard colors and sizes in accordance with the specifications for standard colors of signs for safety instructions and warnings in building premises as described in Table II of OSHS.

A

construction safety signage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Synonymous with the term “builder.” It refers to any person or organization who undertakes or offers to undertake or purports to have the capacity to undertake or submits a bid to, or does himself or by or through others, construct, alter, repair, add to, subtract from, improve, move, wreck or demolish any building, highway, road, railroad, excavation or other structure, project development or improvement, or to do any part thereof, including the erection of scaffolding or other structures or works in connection therewith. It includes subcontractor and specialty contractor.

A

constructor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Any person or organization who is certified or recognized by the Department of Health and who can provide the same or equivalent emergency health services as an
emergency hospital, including emergency treatment of workers on site, emergency transport and care during transport of injured workers to the nearest hospital, with adequate personnel, supplies and
facilities for the complete immediate treatment of injuries or illnesses.

A

emergency health provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A person who has general supervision over instructions from the owner or construction project manager (if one is appointed by the owner).

A

general constructor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Refers to inspection of the work environment, including the location and operation of machinery other than those covered by technical safety inspections, adequacy of workspace, ventilation, lighting, conditions of work environment, handling, storage or work procedures, protection facilities and other safety and health hazards in the workplace.

A

general safety and health inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Any machine with engine or electric motor as prime mover used either for lifting, excavating, leveling, drilling, compacting,
transporting and breaking works in the construction site, such as but not limited to crane, bulldozer, backhoe, grader, road compactor, prime mover and trailer, with minimum operating weight and horse power rating of 1,000 KG and 10HP, respectively.

A

heavy equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A condition or practice that could reasonably be expected to cause death or serious physical harm before abatement under the normal enforcement procedures can be accomplished.

A

imminent danger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A qualified first aider, nurse, dentist, or physician, engaged by the employer to provide occupational health services in the establishment/undertaking.

A

occupational health personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The overall technical personnel of the general contractor and/or the subcontractor in charge of the actual execution of a construction project.

A

project manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A duly licensed engineer who shall be tasked to be present at the construction site at all times, whenever work is being undertaken, and shall have the responsibility of assuring the technical conformance of all designs, materials, processes, work procedures rendered for the execution of the construction project, including safety and health of all persons within the construction site.

A

resident engineer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A regular and critical examination of project sites, safety programs, records and management performance on program
standards on safety and health.

A

safety and health audit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A group tasked with the authority to monitor, inspect, and investigate all aspects of the construction project pertaining to health and safety of construction workers.

A

safety and health committee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Any organization recognized and accredited by the DOLE to conduct occupational safety and health training and/or safety and health audit.

A

safety organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Any person engaged by any constructor, trained, accredited by DOLE and tasked to provide occupational safety and health services for the workers/employees in any construction project.

A

safety personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The written specification of the minimum stock knowledge and skills a worker should possess to perform the functions identified in the job description of his occupation.

A

skill standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Useful in determining the shearing
strength resistance along recognizable weal planes within the soil material.

A

direct shear test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

An instrument used to measure workers’ skills and knowledge based on the
requirements of the skills.

A

trade test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Inspection for the purpose of safety determination of boilers, pressure vessels, internal combustion engines, electrical installations, elevators, hoisting equipment
and other mechanical equipment.

A

technical safety inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Any enclosed area or room equipped with the necessary medical facilities and supplies, and located within the premises of the establishment where workers may be brought for examination and treatment of their injuries or illnesses in cases of emergency.

A

treatment room

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Any working surface above water or ground, temporary or permanent floor platform, scaffold construction or wherever
workers are exposed to the possibility of falls hazardous to life or limb.

A

unguarded surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Daily meeting among workers and their respective supervisors for the purpose of instruction, discussion and proper briefing on the 4 planned work, the assessment of past work, the possibility or actual occurrence of accidents at the site, tips and suggestions on how to prevent possible accidents and other related matters.

A

tool box meeting or gang meeting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

measures the abilty of the asphalt to
stretch without breaking.

A

ductility test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

To determine whether a concrete
has the specified compressive strength.

A

compression test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Determines the asphalt content of
liquid asphalt.

A

distillation test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Determines the amount of asphalt
present in mix.

A

extraction test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Measures the distance that standard needle will penetrate a sample at a given temperature in a specified time.

A

penetration test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Determines if asphalt is overheated
during production.

A

spot test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

where free water in the concrete mix is
pushed upward to the surface due to the settlement of heavier solid particles.

A

bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Determines the presence of larger
globules of asphalt in the emulsion.

A

sieve test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

It rounds off the formed edge of a slab to
prevent chipping or damage.

A

edging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Measures the consistency of
fresh concrete before it sets and to check its workability.

A

slump test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

first step in finishing the concrete, the action of flattening poured concrete into a smooth or flat layer prior to finishing the surface.

A

screeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

slab deflection under passing loads sometimes resulting in the discharge of water and subgrade soils along joints, cracks and pavement edges.

A

pumping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

to eliminate the ridges and voids left by
screeding.

A

levelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

the localized upward displacement of a pavement due to swelling of the sub-grade or some portion of the pavement structure.

A

upheaval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

a form of plastic movement resulting to localized bulging of the pavement.

A

shoving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

channelized depressions that may develop in the wheel tracks of an asphalt pavement.

A

rutting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

the progressive separation of aggregate particles in a pavement from the surface downward or from the edges inward.

A

raveling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

localized upward buckling and shattering of the slabs at transverse joints or cracks.

A

blowup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

the breakdown or disintegration of slab edge at joints or cracks.

A

joint or crack spalling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

the process of wearing away a surface due to friction.

A

surface abrasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

the difference in elevation between the joints due to settlement of pavements, erosion of material under the pavement, and change in temperature.

A

faulting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

the point on the subgrade directly below the edge of the pavement from which the subgrades slopes downward to the point of slope selection.

A

hinge point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

points at which the cut or fill slopes intersect the existing ground.

A

stake points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

the point where the design side slope intersects with the ground. The actual intersection position of the side slope with the existing ground surface.

A

catch point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

the soil prepared to support a pavement structure or a pavement system. It is the foundation of the pavement structure.

A

sub-grade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The course in the asphalt pavement structure immediately below the base course. If the subgrade soil has adequate support, it may serve as it.

A

sub-base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

the lower or underlying pavement course a top
the sub-base or sub-grade and under the top or
wearing course.

A

base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

the ability of an asphalt paving surface, particularly when wet, to offer resistance to slipping or skidding.

A

skid resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

any condition that might contribute to making a pavement slippery.

A

skid hazard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

interconnected cracks forming a series of small blocks resembling an alligator’s skin or chicken-wire, and caused by excessive deflection of the surface over unstable subgrade or lower courses of the pavement.

A

alligator cracks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

interconnected cracks forming a series of large blocks, usually with sharp corners or angles.

A

shrinkage cracks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A vertical crack in the pavement that follows a course approximately parallel to the centerline.

A

longitudinal cracks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

cracks in asphalt overlays that reflect the crack pattern in the pavement structure below it.

A

reflection cracks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

cracks, sometimes crescent shaped, that point in the direction of the thrust of the wheels on the pavement surface, caused by lack of bond between two pavement layers.

A

slippage cracks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

are written instructions that provides the necessary details about the specific requirements.

A

specifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

a term used to represent all drawings including sections and details; and any supplemental drawings for complete execution of a specific project.

A

plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

a calculations of costs prepared on the basis of a detailed analysis of materials and labor for all items of work, as contrasted with an estimate based on a current area, volume or similar unit costs.

A

estimates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

an agreement between two or more parties, especially one that is written and enforceable by law.

A

contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

a written document issued by the appropriate governmental authority permitting construction to begin on a specific project in accordance with drawings and specifications approved by the governmental authority

A

building permit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

props or posts of timber or other material in compression used for the temporary support of excavations, formwork, or unsafe structures.

A

shoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

material encasing prestressing steel to prevent bonding of the prestressing steel with the surrounding concrete to provide corrosion protection and to contain the corrosion inhibiting coating.

A

sheeting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

system used in construction to protect workers and equipment. It includes sheet piles, trench boxes and other protective systems.

A

shielding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

a structure used to provide all-around lateral
support to an excavation. It may be either open or pneumatic.

A

piles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

a pile in the form of a plank driven in close contactor interlocking with others to provide a tight wall to resist the lateral pressure of water, adjacent earth, or other materials.

A

sheet piles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

a slender isolated foundation member of either plain or reinforced concrete that is cast on end in the ground.

A

pier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

a place where vessels may discharge or receive cargo.

A

port

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

structure built along side the water or
perpendicular to the shore where ships berth for
loading or discharging goods.

A

wharf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

part of a foundation, a watertight chamber used in construction underwater, or a hollow floating box used as a flood gate for a dock or basin.

A

caissons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

consists of a heavy ram in between the leads in the pile driving equipment.

A

drop hammer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

the process of reducing the volume of voids in a material such as soil by input of mechanical energy.

A

compaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

mixture of hydraulic cement, aggregates, and water, with or without admixtures, fibers, or other cementitious materials.

A

concrete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

a dark brown or black, cementitious material, solid or semi-solid consistency whose mainconstituents is called “bitumen”.

A

asphalt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

active constituent of bituminous material that are soluble in Carbon Disulfide.

A

bitumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

can be made plastic by adjusting its water content, by adjusting its water content, cohesive, exhibits considerable strength when air dried or difficult to crush in hand.

A

clay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

the property of fresh concrete, fresh mortar, or fresh paste, indicative of the degree of its resistance to movement or firmness.

A

consistency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

the amount of moisture held in concrete and mostly expressed as percentage.

A

moisture content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

decrease in either length or volume of a material resulting from changes in moisture content or chemical changes.

A

shrinkage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

material applied to a surface by brushing, dipping, mopping, spraying ,troweling, etc.,to preserve, protect, decorate, seal, or smooth the substrate.

A

coating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

application of a low viscosity asphalt to a prepared subgrade base or base rock.

A

prime coat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

additional coating into surfaces. Doing so in unprepared surfaces can cause cracking.

A

overcoat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

additional layer of coating in to pavement or base course to provide protection from damage.

A

seal coat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

single initial application of bituminous material to an existing bituminous, Portland cement, or block surface or base.

A

tact coat or tack coat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The most important process to prepare the concrete. Proportioning of aggregates, cement, and water prior to mixing.

A

batching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The process of mixing the materials such as aggregate, admixtures, and water to form concrete.

A

mixing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The process of laying a pavement.

A

paving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The development of the mechanical properties of the asphalt binder. This occurs after the emulsion has broken and the emulsion particles coalesce and bond to the aggregate.

A

curing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Local flaking or peeling away of the near surface portion of hardened concrete or mortar.

A

scaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The creation and maintaining of a shallow pond of water on the surface of a concrete slab to assist curing.

A

ponding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The process of wearing away material from the coastal profile due to imbalance in the supply and export of material from a certain section.

A

coastal erosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

A wave above a water depth greater than half of its wavelength.

A

deep water wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

A wave whose velocity of propagation is controlled primarily by gravity. Water waves more than 5cm long are considered as it. Waves are formed by the frictional drag of wind across the water surface with a transfer of energy from wind to water.

A

gravity wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

A wave in water with a depth less than 1/20 of the wavelength.

A

shallow wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The mean height of the largest one-third of the waves in a wave spectrum.

A

significant wave height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The mean of all individual waves in an observation interval of approximately half an hour

A

mean wave height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

That part of an incident wave that is returned seaward when a wave impinges on a steep beach, barrier, or other reflecting surface.

A

reflected wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The time for a wave crest to traverse a distance equal to one wavelength. The time for two successive wave crests to pass a fixed point.

A

wave period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

A tide that occurs at or near the time of new or full moon and which rises highest and falls lowest from the mean sea level.

A

spring tide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

The period of tide between low water and the succeeding high water.

A

flood tide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Waves caused by wind at the place and time of observation. It refers to waves that are actively growing.

A

sea

94
Q

Wave conditions directly attributable to recent winds, as opposed to swell.

A

wind sea

95
Q

Passing of water over the top of a structure as a result of wave run-up or surge action.

A

overtopping

96
Q

A rise above normal water level on the open coast due to the action of wind stress on the water surface.

A

storm surge

97
Q

The mechanical removal of consolidated soil or unconsolidated material (aggregates like sand, gravel, shells) from seabed, beach or dunes.

A

mining

98
Q

Is the degree of exposure or chances of exposure to hazards.

A

risk

99
Q

Anything that may likely cause personal injury or damage to property, or their combination.

A

hazard

100
Q

A human activity resulting in accident injury, property loss or harm to the environment.

A

unsafe act

101
Q

Seen as a physical or chemical property in the material that can cause an accident.

A

unsafe condition

102
Q

Shall refer to the physical or environmental conditions of work or employment, which substantially comply with the provisions of this Standards.

A

safety

103
Q

Fitting the job to the worker and to prevent workplace injury.

A

ergonomics

104
Q

Any physical material or equipment that is placed between the employee and workplace hazards to reduce the injury potential of the hazard.

A

personal protective equipment (PPE)

105
Q

Shall connote a sound state of the body and mind of the worker, which enables him to perform his job normally, in a state of well-being.

A

health

106
Q

Shall mean an unplanned or unexpected occurrence that may or may not result in personal injury, property damage, work stoppage or interference or any combination thereof, which arises out of and in the course of employment.

A

work accident

107
Q

Shall mean any injury or occupational illness suffered by a person, which arises out of or in the course of his `employment.

A

work injury

108
Q

A probability of a mechanism that will function satisfactorily. If the mechanism is to operate intermittently and briefly, it is also referring to performance on a given occasion. If the mechanism is to operate continuously, it refers its performance for a specific period of time.

A

reliability

109
Q

A source of error in taping when a tape may differ in actual length from its nominal graduated length because of a defect in manufacture or repair, or a result of kinks.

A

instrumental error

110
Q

A taping error due to effects of temperature, pull, and weight of the tape itself.

A

natural error

111
Q

A taping error due to setting of pins, reading the tape, or manipulating the equipment.

A

personal error

112
Q

Defined as the number of vehicles passing a point on highway or a given lane or direction of a highway in a specific time.

A

volume

113
Q

Generally expressed in units of “veh/hr.” but represents flows that exists for period of time less than an hour.

A

rate of flow

114
Q

Average speed of all vehicles passing a point over a specified time period.

A

time mean spead

115
Q

Average speed of all vehicles occupying a given section of roadway over a specific time period.

A

space mean speed

116
Q

Number of vehicles occupying a road lane per unit length at a given instant in time, and is usually measured in vehicle per mile or kilometer.

A

density

117
Q

Maximum sustained 15-min flow rate, expressed in passenger cars per hour per lane, that can be accommodated by a uniform freeway segment under prevailing traffic and roadway conditions in one direction of flow.

A

capacity

118
Q

The set of all points in a plane which are equidistant from a fixed point and a fixed line of the plane.

A

parabola

119
Q

A closed figure consisting of those points in a plane equidistant from a fixed point called a center.

A

circle

120
Q

It is the locus of all points on a plane whose distances to two fixed points add to a constant.

A

ellipse

121
Q

The set of all points in a plane such that the difference of the distances of every point on the curve to two fixed points of the plane is constant.

A

hyperbola

122
Q

The sum of squares of the sides is _____ to the sum of squares of the diagonals

A

equal

123
Q

The process of changing the equation of a curve from one pair of axes to another.

A

transformation of coordinates

124
Q

Transformation of coordinates in which the new axes are parallel to the original axes and similarly directed.

A

translation of axes

125
Q

Transformation of coordinates in which the new axes have the same origin but different directions from the original axes.

A

rotation of axes

126
Q

The line that would pass through the orthocenter, circumcenter, and centroid of the triangle.

A

Euler Line

127
Q

The derivative or rate of change of a function. It is always normal to the given function.

A

gradient

128
Q

Is a force pointed towards the center of a circle that keeps an object moving in that circle.

A

centripetal force

129
Q

An inertial force directed away from the axis of rotation that appears to act on all objects when viewed in a rotating frame of reference.

A

centrifugal force

130
Q

Conserved for any interaction between two objects occurring in an isolated system.

A

momentum

131
Q

Frequencies above 20kHz.

A

ultrasonic waves

132
Q

Frequencies below 20kHz.

A

infrasonic waves

133
Q

Vibratory motion and oscillates at a single constant frequency.

A

simple harmonic motion

134
Q

The number of seconds per cycle or the time for one cycle.

A

period

135
Q

The number of vibrations made per unit time.

A

frequency

136
Q

One that returns to its initial position after being distorted and then released.

A

Hookean System

137
Q

Red Socks and Black Socks

A

4 (number of socks)
21 (black socks is even)

138
Q

Elmer’s Tennis Career

A

Champion-Father-Champion (C-F-C)

139
Q

A three man jury

A

Same juries (one-man and three man jury)

140
Q

Die to be thrown until one gets a 6

A

6

141
Q

Common carnival game

A

9/256 or less than 1/28

142
Q

Chuck-a-luck

A

8%

143
Q

Mr Brown

A

Gain of 2.79 dollars per 36 trials

144
Q

13 spades

A

6.299 x 10¹²

145
Q

The game of craps/America’s gambling game

A

0.49293

146
Q

Two strangers/choose one positive whole numbers

A

1 (natural choice)
3 (popular choice)
7 (popular choice)

147
Q

Two strangers/ New York

A

Empire State Building

148
Q

Cereal Boxes

A

11.43

149
Q

Eight Eligible Bachelors

A

7-7/15 or 7.47

150
Q

Tennis tournament

A

4/7

151
Q

King Arthur

A

1/4

152
Q

100 coins are tossed

A

0.07959

153
Q

Pepys wrote Newton

A

0.664 ( At least 1 six when 6 dice are rolled)
0.619 (At least 2 sixes when 12 dice are rolled)
0.597 (At least 3 sixes when 18 dice are rolled)

154
Q

Three cornered duel

A

Miss

155
Q

Two urns (101 red, 100 black)

A

5/8 (without replacement)
21.5/36 (with replacement)

156
Q

Election

A

8/10

157
Q

Player A and B/ Pennies

A

(N/n)/ (2)^n

158
Q

If a chord is selected at random

A

2/3 (two points chosen at circumference)
0.866 (distance of the chord from the the center)
0.75 (midpoint of the chord is evenly distributed)

159
Q

Duel in the town/ 5 AM, 6 AM

A

24/144 (best answer)
1/6 (approximated)

160
Q

King’s Minter Boxes

A

0.366 (100 to a box)
(1-1/n)^n (100 replaced by n)

161
Q

Airborne spores/Gelatin Plates

A

1/√(2πm), 0.4/√(m), 0.2275, 0.4218

162
Q

A bread salesman

A

0.568

163
Q

Two or more have the same birthday

A

23

164
Q

Same birthday/ 50-50 chance

A

253

165
Q

Birthmate

A

r(r-1)/2

166
Q

Erewhon/Holidays/365 day year

A

364

167
Q

Cliff

A

107/243 (probability of disaster)
1/2 (probability of escaping)

168
Q

Player M and Player N/ Bankrupt

A

1/3

169
Q

Roulette

A

18/38>7.23/57.7 bet all at once

170
Q

Coin/ landing on edge

A

0.354r

171
Q

9 inch glass rod/Blue Dot

A

3 inches

172
Q

52 playing cards/first ace

A

10.6th card

173
Q

Locomotives

A

119
71

174
Q

If a stick is broken

A

1/4 L (average length of smaller piece)
0.386 (calculus, average ratio)

175
Q

A bar is broken (smallest, middle sized, largest piece)

A

2,5,11

176
Q

Choose number if plays

A

10 plays

177
Q

Shuffled Deck/ average number of matches

A

1

178
Q

Typist/ How many letters

A

1
0.386 ( probability of exactly r matches)

179
Q

Quadratic Equation

A

1!

180
Q

Particle/ 50-50 chance of moving 1 step north or south

A

1

181
Q

Two dimensional walk

A

0.239

182
Q

Parallel lines

A

Between 0 and π/2

183
Q

Needle

A

4/π
4L/π (Arbitrary Length)

184
Q

Two urns (some black some white)

A

n<2000

185
Q

Different types of breaking waves

A

Spilling breaker
Plunging breaker
Collapsing breaker
Surging breaker

186
Q

To ensure that the flow of traffic is not impaired, parking near intersection should be prohibited within the distance of ______ from the boundaries of lateral roads for parallel parking.

A

5 m on both approach and exit

187
Q

To ensure that the flow of traffic is not impaired, parking near intersection should be prohibited within the distance of ______ from the boundaries of lateral roads for angle parking.

A

10 m on approach side and 8 m on exit side

188
Q

Waves formed by gravitational attraction of the moon and sun

A

Tides

189
Q

As a guide, lane lines should be used in what cases?

A
  1. Where the road is wide enough for two or more lanes of traffic in one direction with a two-way annual average daily traffic of 8000 or more.
  2. At approaches to widened or signalized intersection.
  3. On divided roads.
190
Q

The provisions of safety sight distances depends on the characteristics of the driver

A

I. Alertness of the Driver
II. Recognition of Hazard
III. Actions Available to the driver-to stop or to change direction

191
Q

The provisions of safety sight distances depends on the characteristics of the vehicle

A

I. Type of vehicle - car or truck
II. Friction between the tire and the road
III. Eye height of the driver
IV. Speed of vehicles

192
Q

The provisions of safety sight distances depends on the characteristics of the road environment

A

I. Road Geometry - grade and curvature sight limitations
II. Road Surface - sealed or unsealed, smooth or rough.
III. Road illumination at night

193
Q

Each type of sight distance consists of three elements

A

I. Driver Eye Height
II. Object Height
III. Sight Distance

194
Q

Four Different Criteria For Establishing Length of Sag Vertical Curves

A

I. Headlight Sight Distance
II. Passenger Comfort
III. Drainage Control
IV. General Appearance

195
Q

Maximum volume that can be placed in the bucket without spillage based on a specified angle of repose for the material in the bucket

A

Heaped Volume

196
Q

Ask marilyn 15%

A

She assumed independence of events which is most likely wrong

197
Q

1 BTU in joules is

A

1055.06 Joules

198
Q

Four Swimming Pool Builders

A

First Subsequent 11/24
Smaller of the two first buds 10/24

199
Q

Device mounted on a fixed support (permanent sign) or portable (temporary sign) whereby a specific message is by means of words or symbols placed or erected for the purpose of regulating, warning or guiding traffic.

A

Traffic Signs

200
Q

Signs that inform road users of traffic laws and regulation which, if disregarded, will constitute an offense. It is commonly shaped as circles.

A

Regulatory Sign

201
Q

Special shape for Stop and Yield Signs

A

Octagonal and Inverted Triangle, respectively

202
Q

Warn road users of condition on or adjacent to the road that may be unexpected or hazardous. Commonly shaped as equilateral triangle.

A

Warning Signs

203
Q

Special Shapes for T-Junction, School Bus Stop, Crossing Signs

A

Diamond

204
Q

Signs that instruct road users to meet certain traffic rule requirements or road conditions. Commonly Shaped as Rectangles

A

Special Instruction Signs

205
Q

Inform and advice road users directions, distance, routes, the location of services, and points of interest.

A

Guide Signs

206
Q

Warn or advice of temporary hazardous condition could endanger road users or the men and equipment engaged.

A

Roadwork Signs

207
Q

Provide means of displaying essential information on wide multi-lane roads, where some degree of lane is required, or where side-of-road clearance is insufficient to accommodate road side sign.

A

Overhead Sign

208
Q

Highway appurtenances designed to prevent vehicles from travelling to areas beyond it

A

Barriers

209
Q

Warning devices used to supplement other control devices necessary to alert motorists of construction or obstructions in the roadway.

A

Flashing Lamps

210
Q

Light-retro-reflecting devices mounted at the side of the roadway, in series , to indicate the roadway alignment.

A

Delineators

211
Q

Devices which may be conical in shape or tubular-shaped capable of performing channelization of traffic which is may be set on the surface of the roadway or rigidly attached for continued use

A

Traffic Cones

212
Q

Roadwork devices consisting of pre-cast concrete sections, sandbag, and others which, may be used to guide traffic at the construction site.

A

Temporary Curbing

213
Q

Device used in place of rigid barrier posts or traffic cones with a minimum of 450 mm by 50 mm wide with alternate bands of contrasting color as seen by approaching traffic for delineation of traffic

A

Flexible Post or Bollard

214
Q

Classification of Signs

A

Regulation Signs
Warning Signs
Guide Signs or Informative Signs
Signs for Expressways
Signs for Special Purposes
Hazard Markers

215
Q

Uniformity of application is as important as standardization with respect to design and placement. Identical conditions should always be treated with the same type of signs so that road users can readily anticipate the course of action required. To be effective, the road sign should meet the five basic requirements

A

Fulfill a need
Command attention
Convey a clear, simple message
Command respect; and
Give adequate time for proper response

216
Q

Ways Concrete is handle and Transported

A

Chutes
Push buggies
Buckets handled by cranes
Pneumatically forcing through a hose (shotcrete) (Gunnite)

217
Q

Concrete should be compacted for

A

-eliminate stone pockets, large air bubbles
-consolidate each layer with one placed earlier
-completely embed reinforcing and fixtures
-bring just enough fine material to the faces and top surfaces to produce desired finish

218
Q

Placing of Concrete

A

-placed to point where concrete will stay as close as possible
-not in large quantities and allowed to run or worked over large distance
-mortar flows ahead of coarser material results sloping surface
-placed horizontal layers uniform thickness, each layer compacted before the next is placed
-layer must be placed before other layer hardens

219
Q

Maximum volume that can be placed in the bucket without spillage based on a specified angle of repose for the material in the bucket.

A

Heaped volume

220
Q

Scaffold Platform Construction Requirements

A

Space between the platform and uprights not more than 1 inch (2.5 cm) wide. The space must not exceed 9½ inches (24.1 cm) when side brackets or odd-shaped structures result in a wider opening between the platform and the uprights.

221
Q

Maximum Deflection of a platform

A

not more than 1/60 of the span

222
Q

Each scaffold platform and walkway must be _______ at least wide, guardrails and/or personal fall arrest systems must be used.

A

18 inches (46 cm)

223
Q

The standard requires employers to protect each employee on a scaffold more than ____________ above a lower level from falling to that lower level.

A

10 feet (3.1 m)

224
Q

Guardrails are not required, however:

A

When the front end of all platforms are less than 14 inches (36 cm) from the face of the work.
When outrigger scaffolds are 3 inches (8 cm) or less from the front edge.
When employees are plastering and lathing 18 inches (46 cm) or less from the front edge.

225
Q

must not be used as a toprail or a midrail.

A

Steel or plastic banding

226
Q

Represents that component of vehicle weight which acts parallel to an inclined surface.

A

Grade Resistance

227
Q

workers must be protected from cave ins by the use of

A

Sloping
Benching
Shielding

228
Q

mainly used for deep compaction and literally involves dropping a weight (or pounder) that is suspended from a crane onto the ground.

A

Dynamic Compaction or Heavy Tamping

229
Q

A very long standing wave on a large but limited body of water generally occurring when a storm dies down after producing a wind tide is called

A

seiche

230
Q

Waves generated by storms, which is occur outside area of observation

A

swells

231
Q

an instrument use to measure the intensity of wind

A

Beuforts scale

232
Q

an open water of navigable depth is called

A

fairway

233
Q

the difference in height between the mean higher high water and the mean lower low water

A

Diurnal range

234
Q

the highest tides which occur at intervals of half a lunar month is called

A

spring tide

235
Q

wave formed by moving ship or boots are called

A

wakes

236
Q

the ratio of the wave length to its height for ocean waves is between

A

17 and 33

237
Q

Waves continue to grow after they reach a velocity equal to _____ but at a decreasing rate. Energy losses from friction, transfer of energy into currents and the development of white caps means the wave will not grow until the wave speed reaches the wind speed. The wind speed is 146 kph

A

48.67

238
Q

the datum line for design of port facilities in accordance with charts, which is being used by the Philippine Ports Authority

A

MLLW

239
Q

The PPA requires that water level that guarantees about water depth for safety of the ships berthing on a certain ports and harbor below the mean lower low water should be equal to

A

0.15 - 0.40 m

240
Q

When the lines connecting the earth with the sun and the moon form a right angle that is the moon in her quarters, then the actions of the moon and sun are subtractive, and the lowest tides of the month occur.

A

Neap tide

241
Q

Owing to retardation of the tidal wave in the ocean by frictional force, as the earth revolves daily around its axis and as the earth revolves daily around its axis and as the tide tends to follow that direction of the moon, the highest tide for each location is not coincident with conjunction and opposition but occurs at some constant time after new and full moon.

A

age of tide

242
Q

The elements of Berthing Facility are

A

I. Planned Water Depth
II. Design Water Depth
III. Coping/ Crown Elevation
IV Length of Standard And Approach Part
V. Width and Slope of Apron

243
Q

Generally, the average interval between successive high tides, which is half the time between successive passages of the moon across a given meridian

A

12 hrs and 25 mins

244
Q

the pressure against a vertical wall due to waves is called

A

clapotis

245
Q

a change in the dissection of travel of the wave with change in depth of water which distributes wave energy along the seashore unevenly

A

wave refraction

246
Q

Harbors can be broadly classified as

A

Natural Harbor
Semi-Natural Harbor
Artificial Harbor

247
Q

Waves formed by gravitational attraction of the moon and sun

A

tides

248
Q

it prevents you from hitting the ground during the fall

A

fall arrest system

249
Q

it is the ability of a soil to support the weight of vehicle under repeated traffic

A

trafficability

250
Q

determines the maximum number of passenger cars that can pass a given point on a lane or roadway during one hour prevailing roadway and traffic conditions

A

possible capacity

251
Q

means that the utility of any particular trip is partially dependent on the activity it makes possible, and the way in which that activity is valued by the individual

A

Deprived Utility

CELE (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions