Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MSRA > MSRA Medicine > Flashcards

MSRA Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Hashimotos thyroiditis is painful - true or false?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Does hashimotos cause hypo or hyperthyroidism?

A

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which extra intestinal features of crohns are related to disease activity?

A

Arthritis
erythema nodosum
episcleritis
Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which extra intestinal features of crohns are unrelated to disease activity?

A

arhtritis
pyoderma gangrenosum
uveitis
clubbing
PSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

diabetes may increase BNP level - true or false

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

COPD may decrase BNP level - true or false

A

False (increases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which drugs may decrease BNP level?

A

ACEi, ARB, Beta blockers, diuretics, aldosterone antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Obesity may decrease BNP level - true or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which drug can be used to treat alcoholic hepatitis?

A

glucocorticoids eg prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

serum ferritin can be increased in alcoholics - true or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

sequestration causes organomegaly of what organ in sickle cell?

A

Splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

after TIA when should patients be seen in clinic?

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

after TIA when should patients be seen if on anticoagulants?

A

immeadiately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

HSP causes joint pain true or false

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what antibiotics should be used for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis?

A

Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what drugs cause necrotising fasciitis of the genitalia or perineum

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the first line treatment for absence seizures?

A

Ethosuximide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the first line treatment for focal seizures?

A

Lamotrigine, Levetiracetam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

vaginal discharge with pH >4.5 is associated with what organisms

A

Trichomonis vaginalis, bacterial vaginosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what colour is the discharge in bacterial vaginosis?

A

thin white discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

clue cells are associated with what organism

A

bacterial vaginosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is a treatment for galactorrhoea

A

bromocriptine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

rose spots on the abdomen is consistent with infection with which organism?

A

Salmonella typhi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

subacute (de quervians) thyroditis causes hyperthyroidism - true or false

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

splenectomy can give a falsely high HBa1c - true or false

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

erythema marginatum is associated with what illness

A

rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

albumin increases in acute phase response - true or false

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

essential tremor is made worse by alcohol - t or f

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

essential tremor is inherited in what fashion

A

autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

inhaled steroids reduce the frequency of exacerbations in COPD - true or false

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

erythema multiforme is seen with infection with what organism

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how many doses of tetanus compromise a full tetanus immunisation scheduele?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

which chemotherapy can cause peripheral neuropathy?

A

vincristine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

von willebrand disease causes increase in what blood marker?

A

APTT

35
Q

what is the most common renal cause of AKI?

A

Acute tubular necrosis

36
Q

Raised urinary sodium is consistent with a diagnosis of acute tubular necrosis - true or false

A

True

37
Q

in T2DM with high risk of CVD/established CVD what drug should be added once metformin is established?

A

SGLT2 inhibitor

38
Q

Electrical alternans is suggestive of what?

A

Cardiac tamponade

39
Q

what criteria are used to diagnose AKI in adults?

A
  • increase creating over 26umol in 48hr
  • increase creating >50% in 7 days
  • decrease urine output <0.5ml/kg/hr for >6 hours
40
Q

in a TIA within 7 days what is the initial management?

A

Aspirin 300mg + specialist review within 24 hours

41
Q

in suspected TIA when would specialist review within a 7 day window be appropriate?

A

If the episode occurred more than a week ago

42
Q

hypocalcaemia is seen in rhabdomyolysis - true or false

A

True

43
Q

LTOT is the most important intervention in patients with COPD for survival - true or false

A

FALSE
may increase survival in hypoxic patients but must important intervention is smoking cessation

44
Q

what 3 drugs are recommended for migraine prophylaxis?

A

Topiramate
Propranolol
Amitryptyline

44
Q

donepezil can increase risk of bradycardia - true or false

A

True
Should be avoided in patients with sick sinus syndrome

45
Q

what vitamin deficiency is linked to wernicke korsakoff syndrome?

A

Thiamine (B1)

46
Q

what disease is associated with B3 (niacin) deficiency?

A

Pellagra:
- dermatitis
- diarrhoea
- dementia

47
Q

in aortic stenosis do you find a wide or narrow pulse pressure?

A

Narrow pulse pressure

48
Q

in GBS are the legs or arms affected first?

A

Legs - ascending weakness

49
Q

what blood test is used to diagnose coeliac disease?

A

Tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies and IgA

50
Q

what are the symptoms of left ventricular aneurysm after MI?

A

Tiredness, SOB, persistent ST elevation

51
Q

what are the symptoms of dressers syndrome post MI?

A

Fever, pleuritic chest pain, worse lying supine
ST elevation >2 weeks after MI

52
Q

what marker is raised in the acute phase after anaphylaxis?

A

serum tryptase

53
Q

a combination of thrombolysis and thrombectomy is recommended for patients with acute ischaemic stroke presenting within 4.5 hours - true or false

A

True

54
Q

what are considered eGFR variables?

A

CAGE:
C - Creatinine
A - Age
G - Gender
E - Ethnicity

55
Q

minimal change disease causes what syndrome?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

56
Q

if angina is not controlled on a beta blocker alone - what medication should be added?

A

long acting dehydropyridine CCB - eg. amlodipine, modified release nifedipine

57
Q

what types of calcium channel blockers are contradindicated with beta blockers?

A

Rate limiting CCB eg. diltiazem, verapamil - cause bradycardia and heart failure

58
Q

what type of feeding should be used in motor neurone disease

A

PEG

59
Q

In AF lasting less than 48 hours DC cardio version is an appropriate treatment for rhythm control - true or false

A

True

60
Q

Lhermitte’s sign describes what?

A

Tinging in hands when flexing neck

61
Q

what is the name of this sign: ‘ in a patient with painless, enlarged gallbladder and mild jaundice - gallstones is unlikely to be the cause’

A

Courvoisier’s sign

  • more likely to be malignancy of pancreas or biliary tree
62
Q

transfer factor for carbon monoxide (TLCO) is increased or decreased in patients with pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Reduced - reflecting impaired gas exchange

63
Q

what syndrome is associated with primary biliary chlolangitis?

A

Sjogrens syndrome - 80%

64
Q

what is the first line drug treatment for primary biliary cholangitis?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

65
Q

when investigating B12 deficiency which antibodies should be tested - gastric parietal or intrinsic factor?

A

Intrinsic factor antibodies

66
Q

what is the triad seen in wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A
  • encephalopathy
  • ataxia
  • oculomotor dysfunction (ophthalmoplegia)
67
Q

untreated wernicke’s can lead to what syndrome

A

Korsakoff syndrome

68
Q

amaurosis fugax affects what artery?

A

retinal/opthalmic

69
Q

pyoderma gangrenosum - singular ulcerating shin lesions, associated with what condition?

A

IBD

70
Q

hypertension, hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia are seen in what condition?

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism

71
Q

what is the definitive treatment for wolf parkinson white ?

A

Accessory pathway ablation

72
Q

shortened PR interval and wide QRS complexes with a slurred upstroke in lead II - describes what condition?

A

Wolff parkinson white

73
Q

what electrolyte abnormality can cause prolonged QT interval?

A

Hypocalcaemia
Hypomagnesaemia

74
Q

visual hallucinations are seen in what kind of dementia?

A

lewy body

75
Q

which artery is affected in locked in syndrome?

A

Basilar artery

76
Q

which part of the brain is affected in lacunar staple?

A

the basal ganglia, thalamus, internal capsule

77
Q

in heart failure when should a beta blocker be started first over ACEi?

A

In patients with angina

78
Q

in heart failure when should ACEi be started first over B blocker?

A

Signs of fluid overload, Diabetes

79
Q

does bronchiectasis cause a restrictive or obstructive pattern on lung function tests?

A

Obstructive
ie. FEV1/FVC reduced

80
Q

do neuromuscular disorders cause a restrictive or obstructive Pattern on lung function tests?

A

Restrictive
ie. FEV1/FVC normal or increased

81
Q

patients with pneumothoraces should have a life long ban on deep sea diving - true or false

A

True

82
Q

when can patients fly after pneumothorax?

A

1 week after having a chest x ray showing complete resolution of a pneumothorax

83
Q

secondary or primary pneumothoraces have the lowest incidence of recurring?

A

Primary

MSRA (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions