MSK summary oestology Flashcards

1
Q

what is blounts disease

A

growth arrest of medial tibial physis of unknown pathology

break like protrusion on xray

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2
Q

when do refer genu valgum?

A

> 8cm intramalleolar distance at age 11

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3
Q

3 causes of intoeing

A
femoral neck anteversion (W position)
internal tibial torsion (most resolve by 6)
metatarsus adduction (foot bends medially)
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4
Q

what causes flat feet

A

tibialis posterior tendond forms medial arch of foot

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5
Q

what to do for flexible flat feet

A

due to genealised ligamentous laxity

calf tightness assessment

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6
Q

what causes rigid flat feet

A

tarsal coalilation

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7
Q

what does volkmans law describe and what does it mean?

A

scoliosis

increased pressure across an epiphyseal plate inhbits growth

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8
Q

what is spondylothesis

A

stress fracture of the isthmus of the vertebral arch

if heels, may elongate and produce spondylothesis

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9
Q

which grading is used for spondylothesis

A

meterding

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10
Q

which vertebrae are affected by cauda equina

A

C7/T1

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11
Q

what is adult osteomyelitis

A

inflammation of bone and medullary cavity (usually in long bones)

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12
Q

should you treat osteomyelitis empirracly?

A

no

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13
Q

how to treat staph aureus

A

fluclox

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14
Q

how to treat staph epidermms

A

vancomycin

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15
Q

how to treat strep pyrogens

A

doxycyclin

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16
Q

how to treat gram negative

A

clindamycin

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17
Q

anaerobes

A

metronidazole

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18
Q

what is chronic osteomyelitis and where does it start?

A

untreated acute OM
- starts in axial skeleton with haematogenous spread from pulmonary or urinary infections or from infections of intervertebral discs

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19
Q

gold standard for haematogenous OM

A

bone biopsy

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20
Q

what is vertebral TB also called

A

potts disease

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21
Q

how to treat prosthetic joint infection

A

vancomycin

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22
Q

what is xray sign of septic arthritis

A

reappearing joint space

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23
Q

features of tetanus

A

spastic paralysis
4 days incubation period
lock jae -> muscle spasm

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24
Q

what is spondylosis

A

intervertebral disc loses water content with age

- less cushioning + increased pressure on facet joints –> secondary OA

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25
Q

what is an acute disc tear

A

occurs in outer annulus fibrosis after lifting a heavy object
pain worse on coughing
if a disc tears - nucleus pulposis can herniate -> impinge on exiting nerve root -> reduced power in myotomal area

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26
Q

which levels controll urinarion and defaecation?

A

S4 + 5

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27
Q

what are the symptoms of cervical spondylosis

A

slow onset stiffness in neck -> radiates to shoulders + occiput

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28
Q

what are the loaf muscles

A

opponens pollicis
abductor pollicis brevis
flexor pollicis brevis

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29
Q

what is osteogenesis perfecta

A

brittle bone disease

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30
Q

which muscles are affected in ERBs palsy

A

loss of motor innervation in deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, biceps and brachialis muscles
- internal rotation of humerus

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31
Q

which levels are affected in erbs palsy

A

C5 + C6

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32
Q

which levels are affected in klumpkes palsy

A

C8 +T1

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33
Q

when does transient synovitis of the hip occur

A

after URTI

2-10 year old boys

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34
Q

how to treat transient S of hip

A

NSAIDS

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35
Q

what is perthes?

A

idiopathic osetochondriits of femoral head

active boys 4-9

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36
Q

what happens in SUFE?

A

overweight boys

slips inferiorly in relation to femoral neck

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37
Q

treatmnet for SUFE

A

pin femoral head

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38
Q

features of club foot

A

ankle plantar felxion, supination of forefoot, varum alignment of forefoot

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39
Q

treatment for club foot

A

ponsenti technique (5-6 weeks)

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40
Q

what is the most common cause of acquired flat foot

A

tibialis posterior dysfunction

41
Q

where is the pain in TPD

A

medial malleolus

42
Q

who gets TPD

A

obese middle aged women
diabetes
steroid injury

43
Q

what is plantar fascitis

A

start up pain after rest

swelling + fullness of plantar medial aspect of heel

44
Q

what test do you do for plantar fascitis

A

tinnels test for baxters nerve

45
Q

GS of hallux rigidus

A

arthrodesis

46
Q

what happens in mortons neuroma

A

degenerative fibrosis of digital nerve near its bifurcation

47
Q

what are the symptoms of morton neurome

A

burning and tingling in toes

48
Q

test for mortons neuroma

A

mulders click test

49
Q

symptoms of tendoachilles tendinosis

A

pain, morning stiffness

eases with heat and walking

50
Q

symptoms of tendo achilles rupture

A

sudden deceleration with resisted calf contraction

51
Q

test for tendo achilles rupture

A

positive calf squeeze - simmonds test

52
Q

what is the difference between stable and unstable ankle fractures?

A

stable - no medial malleolus frcature / deltoid rupture

53
Q

which surface has the thickest hyaline cartialge in the body

A

retropatellar

54
Q

which OA is realted to genu varum

A

medial

55
Q

symtpoms of an extensor mechanism rupture

A

fall onto flexed knee with quads contraction

unable to straight leg raise + palpable gap

56
Q

ages for quads / patellar rupture

A

quads >40

patellar <40

57
Q

which menisci is more concave

A

medial

58
Q

which menisci is more fixed

A

medial

59
Q

which menisci has the most stress

A

medial

60
Q

which menisci tears wont heal

A

radial

61
Q

what may you develop with a bucket handle tear

A

fixed flexion deformity

62
Q

which stress for MCL resist

A

valgus

63
Q

which stress does LCL resist

A

varus

64
Q

what does ACL resits

A

anteiror subluxation of tibia + internal rotation of tibia in extension

65
Q

what does PCL resist

A

posterior subluxation of the tibia ie anteiror subluxation of the femur and hypertension of the knee

66
Q

does MCL heal well

A

yes

67
Q

which way do patellars dislocate

A

laterally

68
Q

what happens in a femeroacetabular impingement syndrome?

A

damage to labrum and tears, damage to cartilage and OA

69
Q

symtpoms of femeroacetabular impingement syndrome

A

activity related groin pain
difficulty sitting
c sign positive

70
Q

treatment for AVN

A

bisphosphonates

71
Q

what are the 2 groups of people who get idiopathic transient osteonecroiss of the hip?

A

middle aged men and pregnant women in 3rd trimester

72
Q

cause of trochanteric bursitis

A

repetitive trauma casued by iliotibial band tract over trochanteric bursitis

73
Q

what does a hanging rope sign on xray suggest?

A

ANV lytic zone

74
Q

what is arthroplasty

A

reshaping of a joint - can be used to remove diseased joint

75
Q

what is excision / resection arthroplasty

A

removal of bone + cartilage of one or both sides of bone

76
Q

what is arthrodesis

A

surgical stiffening or fusion of a joint in the postiion of function
alleviates pain but reduced function

77
Q

when is an osteotomy used?

A

in early arthritis of knee and hip

78
Q

where is a mucous cyst seen

A

DIP joints

79
Q

what is the test for dequervains

A

finklesteins test = thumb into fist

80
Q

what happens in tendinosis and what causes it?

A

degeneration of collagen + ECM

due to MMPs

81
Q

which groups get rotator cuff pathology?

A

athletes and painters

82
Q

symptoms of biceps tendinopathy

A

pain in anterior shoudler radiating to elbow

aggregated by pronation and elbow flexion

83
Q

which way do shoulders dislocate?

A

anterior most common §

84
Q

what is a bankart lesions?

A

detachment of glenoid labrum capsule

85
Q

what is a hill sachs lesion

A

posterior humeral head impacts on the anterior glenoid producing an impaction fracture of the posterior head

86
Q

what happens in an olecranon fracutre?

A

fall onto elbow and contraction of triceps muscle

87
Q

what is a monteggia fracture

A

fracture of ulnar with dislocation of radial head at elbow

88
Q

what is a galezzia fracture

A

fracture of radius with dislocation of ulnar @ radioulnar joint

89
Q

what is a colles fracture

A

wrist extended

90
Q

what is a smiths fracutre

A

wrist flexed - unstable

91
Q

what is a bartons fracture

A

intraarticlaur fracture of distal radius involving dorsal or volar rim, where carpal bones sublux with the dispalced rim fragment

92
Q

which fracture is shaped like a kidney bean?

A

scaphoid fracture

93
Q

what is myosittis ossificans

A

abnormal calcification of a muscle haematoma eg trauma

not painful

94
Q

what does supraspinus do

A

initiation of abdction

95
Q

what does subscapularis do

A

internal rotator

96
Q

what causes roattor cuff tear

A

jerk arm eg bus

97
Q

what are the sympotms of frozen shoulder?

A

progressive pain + stiffness in shoulder 40-60 degrees

loss of external rotation

98
Q

xray light bulb sign =

A

posterior shoudler disloaction

99
Q

slowest healing bone in body

A

tibia