Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PRIYA MSK BASICS > summary from rafi fc > Flashcards

summary from rafi fc Flashcards

1
Q

A band

A

myosin + overlapping actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

H band

A

within A, actin doesnt reach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

I band

A

actin which isnt part of A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

epimysium

A

whole muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

perimysium

A

single fasicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

endomysium

A

single muscle fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

simple synovial joint

A

one pair of articular surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are chondrocytes responsible for

A

EC matrix of hyaline cartillage T2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what causes septic arthriits

A

staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how to treat septic arthits

_ in a child

A

fluclox

child < 5 + cefriaxone for H. influenza / kingella cover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which bugs cause OM

A

mycoplasma, pseudomonas, salmonella, brucella (goat’s milk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how to treat NF

A

penicillin + clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

process behind DMD

A

alterations in anchorage of actin skeleton to basement membrane (fibres weakend without attachemnt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is enchondroma associated with

A

olliers + maffuci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what actually is enchondroma

A

hyaline cartilage arising in medullary cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is LEMS

A

assoc with muscle weaenss + small cell carcinoma
arises from antibodies against Ca channels, causing reduced Ca entry + this reduced ACh vesicle release (which is needed to initiate muscle cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A nociceptor

A

fast / initial pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

C nociceptor

A

second / aftermath pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what does spinothalamic tract do

A

pain perception (where it is and how bad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does spinoreticular tract do

A

autonomic / emotional response = fear of pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does carbimazepine do

A

blocks Na channels, useful of neuromytonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

anti phospholipid antibodies

A

anticardiolipin
lupus anticoagnulant
anti beta 2 glycoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what actually is sjrogens

A

autoimmune destruction of exocrine glands

RO and LA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what actually are systemic sclerosis

A

autoimmune inflammation + thickening due to increased collagen deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the symptoms of limited systemic sclerosis

A

CREST

calconosis, raynauds, eosophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyl, talangectasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

antibodies of poly / dermatomyosisits

A

anti jo 1

ANA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

treatmnet of polymyalgia rheumatica

A

15mg predisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

is there muscle weakness in dermatomyosiits

A

no muscle weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

SLE gene

A

HLA DR3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

type of reaction of SLE

A

T3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

antibody for SLE

A

anti - smith (very specific)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

symptoms of GCA

A

carotid bruit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

symptoms of polyarteritis nodosa

A

vessel bifurcation , hep B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how to treat large vessel vasculitis

A

40-60mg predisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

GPA panca or canca

A

cANCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

symptoms of GPA

A

saddle nose
middle aged men
palpable purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how does methotrexate work

A

folate antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is spondylolisthesis

A

forward slippage of one vertebrae onto another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is spondylolysis

A

defect in pars interarticulars of vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

pain going down stairs?

A

PCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is OA dissecans

A

an area of the surface of the knee loses its blood supply + cartilage, sometimes causing bone to fragment off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is pes cavus

A

fixed plantar flexion of the forefoot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

tendinitis

A

inflammation resulting from microtears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

tendinosis

A

degeneration of collagen from chronic overuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

mallet toe

A

DIP fixed

46
Q

hammer toe

A

PIP fixed

47
Q

what is cellulitis caused by

A

B-haemolytic strep + staph

48
Q

1st line investigation for roataor cuff pathology

A

USS

49
Q

osteochrondroma chance of malignancy

A

1% change of malignant transformation

50
Q

what does enchondroma look like on xray

A

leucent but can undergo mineralisation with a patchy sclerotic appearance

51
Q

what does osteoid ostemoa look like on xray

A

small nidus of immature bone surrounded by an intense sclerotic halo

52
Q

what is brodies abscess

A

subacute OM, lyitc lesion on xray

53
Q

malignancy rate of osteosarcoma

A

10% have pulmonary mets at diagnosis

54
Q

which defect of colalgen is osteogenesis imperfecta

A

T1

55
Q

how to treat transient synovitis

A

NSAIDS

56
Q

what is most common cause of child hip pain

A

transient synovitis

57
Q

what happens in impingement syndrome

A

tendons of rotator cuff are compressed in the tight acromium space during movement - producing pain

58
Q

how to treat impingement syndrome

A

subacromial decompression

59
Q

DAB

A

dorsal interossei - abduction

60
Q

PAD

A

palmar inteossei - adduction

61
Q

definition of a knee dislocation

A

rupture of all ligaments

62
Q

nerve and artery at risk in a shoulder dislocation

A

axillary nerve + artery

63
Q

how to repair recurrent dislocations

A

bankart lesions

64
Q

what is at risk in a humeral shaft fracture

A

radial nerve + brachial artery

65
Q

what is a high risk with a scaphoid fracture

A

ANV

66
Q

what are the 2 intracapsular fractures

A

femoral head and femoral neck

67
Q

what are the 2 extracapsular fractures

A

intertrochanteric

subtrochanteric

68
Q

which is worse intra or extra capsular

A

intra

69
Q

compression injury salter harris 4

A

intraarticular salter harris 3+5

70
Q

where do simple bone cysts arise from

A

growth defect from the physis

71
Q

most common place to find osteosarcoma

A

knee

72
Q

seropositive arthritiis

A 
RA
lupus
scleroderma
vasculitis
sjrogens
73
Q

seronegative arhtiris

A

anky spondyl
psoriatic
reactive
enteric

74
Q

mixed CTD antibody

A

anti-RNP

75
Q

myositis antibody

A

anti jo 1

76
Q

back change in ankyl spondy

A

increased thoracic kyphosis

77
Q

xray changes on anky spondyl

A

sclerosis / fusion of SI joints
syndesmophytes
bamboo spine

78
Q

treatment for ankyl spondyl

A

NSAIDS
physio
anti-TNF

79
Q

crystals in pseudogout

A

calcium pyrophosphate

80
Q

what does chondrocalcinosis mean

A

depositino of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in cartilage in absence of acute inflammation

81
Q

are complement levels high or low in SLE

A

low

82
Q

what is the process behind sjrogens

A

excess collagen deposition

83
Q

does PR pain improve with movement

A

yes

84
Q

what is a poor prognostic factor of PM

A

dysphagia

85
Q

which treatment for fibromyalgia

A

amitriptaline + gabapentin

86
Q

age of GCA

A

> 50

87
Q

how to treat ANCA +

A

IV steroids + cyclophsophamide (immune suppressor)

88
Q

is HSP ANCA + or -

A

negative

89
Q

which Ig is associated with HSP

A

IgA

90
Q

what actually happens in DDH

A

dislocaiton / subluxation of femoral head during perinatal period

91
Q

what is perthes

A

idiopathic osteochondritis of the femoral head causing necrosis + abnormal growth
boys 4-9

92
Q

what is SUFE

A

pain in knee

93
Q

treatment for SUFE

A

pin femoral head to avoid slippage

94
Q

nerve at risk in hip joint problems

A

obturator nerve

95
Q

what kind of meniscal tear is bucket handle

A

longitudinal

96
Q

what test to do for meniscal tear

A

steimanns

97
Q

treatment for hallux ridigus

A

arthrodesis

allerviates pain but reduced motion

98
Q

where does the tibialise tendon insert into

A

navicular bone

99
Q

investigatoin for cauda equina

A

urgent MRI to determine level of prolapse

disectomy follows

100
Q

which probelms is carpal tunnel assocaited with

A 
RA
pregnancy
diabetes
renal fialure 
colles fracture
101
Q

tinnels test

A

percussion over median nerve

102
Q

phalens test

A

upside down prayer

103
Q

in proximal humeral fractures, which way does the humeral shaft displace

A

medially due to the pull of pectoralis major

104
Q

what is a nighstick fracture

A

fracture of ulnar shaft

105
Q

what is bartons frcature

A

intra articular fratcure of distal radius where carpal bones sublux

106
Q

how many degrees of angulation can be tolerated in a boxers fracture

A

45

107
Q

which nerve damage can be caused by proximal tibia lfracture

A

common fibular nerve

108
Q

common fibular nerve damage does

A

foot drop

109
Q

what is a pilon fracture

A

distal tibial fracture (intraarticular)

110
Q

what is a lisfranc fracture

A

fracture of the base of 2nd metatarsal with/without dislocation of the other metatarsals at the TMJ

PRIYA MSK BASICS (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions