Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CBL Year 1 > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

1
Q

Approx. how many bones do you have when you are born compared to when you are an adult & why

A

300 when you are born but only 206 bones when you are an adult
Because bones combine to form bigger bones in the adult body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the inorganic/mineral bone matrix made of and what strength does it have

A

hydroxyapatite crystals

Compression strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the organic bone matrix made of and what strength does it have

A

Collagen and proteoglycans

Flexible strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are osteochondral progenitor cells

A

undifferentiated stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are osteoblasts/what do they do

A

Lay down bone
Come from the bone marrow
only have one nucleus
Work in teams to build bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are osteocytes/what do they do

A

Mature bone cells formed in lacunae

Formed when osteoblast becomes embedded in material it has created

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a lacunae

A

cavity or depression in the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are osteoclasts/what do they do

A

Resorb (remove) bone

Absorbs bone during growth and healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do bone-lining cells do

A

regulate movement of ca2+ and PO4-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe cortical bone and what’s another name for it

A

Compact bone
Thicker than cancellous bone
And very dense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe what trabecular bone is and another name for it

A

Cancellous bone

Much lighter and less dense than cortical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the two types of ossification

A

Endochondral and intramembranous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe endochondral ossification

A

From cartilage template
ossified slowly and then turned into bone
Completed from teens to early twenties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe intramembranous ossification

A

Direct deposition of bone on thin layer of connective tissue (involved in formation of skull)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe appositional bone growth

A

Increases the bones width
osteoblast in periosteum secrete matrix and become trapped as osteocytes
osteoclasts increase diameter of medullary cavity
Continues increasing diameter until skeletal maturity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe endochondral bone growth

A

Increases the bones length
Requires interstitial growth from the cartilage first
Occurs at epiphyseal growth plate
Stops when the growth plates ossify

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Wolffs law

A

States that you bones will adapt depending on the stress you put on them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does more stress mean for bones? Less stress?

A

More stress means increased osteoblast activity which means more bone
Less stress means decreased osteoblast activity which means less bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the five factors influencing bone growth and remodelling

A 
mechanical factors
genes
hormones
ageing
disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe how genes have an influence on bone growth/remodelling

A

determine their potential shape and size

Directly influences: growth hormone released, hormone receptors on bone, ability to absorb nutrients from the gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the genetic disorders associated with bones

A 
Dwarfism (achondroplasia dwarfism is same size head and trunk but shorter limbs)
Turners syndrome (only affects females as it affects the X chromosome, causes short height, heart defects and failure of ovaries to develop)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do hormones influence bone growth and remodelling

A

Growth, sex, thyroid hormones influence cell differentiation and metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does ageing influence bone growth and remodelling

A

Osteoblast matrix production slows in comparison to osteoclast matrix resorption
Decreased collagen deposition results in more brittle bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What disease is most associated with bones

A

Osteoporosis
Cancellous bone mostly affected if connections lost
causes brittle bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the three types of cartilage

A

hyaline
fibrocartilage
elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where is hyaline cartilage found

A

at the end of long bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the two ways cartilage grows

A

Appositional growth and interstitial growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Explain appositional growth in cartilage

A

Chondroblasts

increase in diameter of bones by addition of bone tissue at the surface of bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Explain interstitial growth in cartilage

A

chondrocytes

lengthening of the bone resulting from growth of cartilage and its replacement with bone tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the perichondrium

A

type of connective tissue that functions in the growth and repair of cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe the outer and inner layer of the perichondrium

A

outer layer has dense irregular connective tissue with fibroblasts
Inner layer has fewer fibres with chondroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of cartilage is articular cartilage

A

hyaline cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Does articular cartilage have perichondrium

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe growth in articular cartilage

A

Similar to growth plate

columns of cells turn into calcified cartilage which turns into bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the function of articular cartilage

A

smooth (reduces friction, low-wear surface, reduces heat which reduces protein damage)
deformable and elastic (distributes load easily, increases surface area which decreases force)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe adult articular cartilage

A

aneural and avascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are three things that affect bone density

A

availability of substrates
biochemical factors
physiological factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Give some examples of how availability of substrates affect bone density

A 
Calcium intake
calcium absorption (Vit D intake)
Functionality of PTH (magnesium deficiency)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Give some examples of how biochemical factors affect bone density

A

hormones

steroid hormones, oestrogen, thyroid hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Give some examples of how physiological factors affect bone density

A

Weight bearing exercise
smoking (affects bone turnover)
BMI
healthy diet (oily fish, whole grains)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

6 factors affecting fracture risk

A 
age
smoking status
medication (steroids)
Bone density
alcohol intake
previous fracture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

4 functions of skeletal muscle

A

movement
control posture
remove (from blood) and store glucose
generate heat (temperature regulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what does iso mean? metric? tonic?

A

iso=same
metric=measure
tonic=tensions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Name 3 skeletal muscle relaxants

A

botulinum toxin
curare
succinylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How is botulinum toxin a skeletal muscle relaxant

A

prevents release of Ach-containing vesicles
causes paralysis of muscles and inhibition of secretion from exocrine glands normally stimulated by parasympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How is curare a skeletal muscle relaxant

A 
blocks nAchRs (nicotinic acetylcholine receptors) to cause paralysis
(used during surgery to prevent muscle spasms)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How is succinylcholine a skeletal muscle relaxant

A

(also known as suxemethonium)

short acting block of nAchRs (used during intubation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

store calcium
release calcium rapidly (stimulated by AP)
rapidly restore calcium (using ATP driven calcium pumps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the function of t tubules

A

to quickly convey the action potential deep inside the fibre

continuous with sarcolemma (surface membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are two membrane receptors in triads

A

dihydropyridine (DHP)

ryanodine receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is a triad

A

where t tubule is surrounded by SR on both sides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Describe dihydropyridine (DHP) receptors

A

receptors function as voltage sensors (on t-tubule membranes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Describe ryanodine receptors

A

function as calcium release channels on the sarcoplasm reticulum membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what do the membrane receptors in triads require for mechanism

A

voltage sensor in t-tubule membrane to detect AP

and a calcium release channel that is opened by the voltage sensor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is malignant hypothermia

A

rare inherited condition
caused by mutation in ryanodine receptors
triggered by volatile anaesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does the axial skeleton include

A

skull/spine

encasing CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does the appendicular skeleton include

A

the limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the four categories of bones

A

short
long
flat
irregular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What types of bones are formed from endochondral ossification

A

short
long
irregular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what types of bones are formed by intramembranous ossification

A

flat

irregular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Give an example of a short bone, long bone, flat bone and irregular bone

A

short=carpal bones in hand
long=humerus/femur
flat=bones in the skull
irregular=vertebrae

62
Q

what is the epiphysis?

A

the end of the long bone

ossifies separately from the shaft/diaphysis but becomes fixed to it when full growth is attained

63
Q

What is the diaphysis

A

the shaft of a long bone

64
Q

What is the metaphysis

A

Wide portion near the end of long bones

where growth occurs

65
Q

What is epiphysis covered in

A

articular cartilage

66
Q

What are Haversian systems

A

Haversian canals surrounded by blood vessels and nerve fibres throughout the bone and communicate with osteocytes

67
Q

What is 80% of skeleton weight

A

cortical bone

68
Q

What are osteoprogenitor cells derived from

A

mesenchymal stem cells

69
Q

What are osteoblast cells derived from

A

mesenchymal stem cells via osteoprogenitor cells

70
Q

What do osteoblasts make

A

new bone matrix (type I collagen, ALP-initiates calcification, calcium phosphate)

71
Q

What are osteocytes derived from

A

osteoblasts

72
Q

What are osteoclasts derived from

A

monocytes

73
Q

What are osteoclasts important in

A

breaking down and remodelling bone

74
Q

How do osteoclasts bind to bone surfaces

A

by binding to little proteins called osteopontin

75
Q

When a force is applied to bone which side is compressing and which side is under tension

A

the side that force is being applied to is compressing and the opposite side is under tension

76
Q

What are the two types of bone healing

A

primary and secondary

77
Q

Describe primary bone healing

A

needs absolute stability and compression
does not form a callous
(can get this stability using plates and screws, usually used for joints because don’t want a callous in a joint0
Needs less than 2% strain

78
Q

What is a callous

A

bony healing tissue which forms around the end of broken bones

79
Q

Describe secondary bone healing

A

Needs relative stability
Callous formation
(achieved by putting splint/cast on)
can have between 2-10% strain

80
Q

Four stages of secondary bone healing

A 
haematoma (inflammatory/reactive phase)
soft callous (reparative phase)
hard callous (reparative phase)
remodelling (remodelling phase)
81
Q

Describe what happens during the haematoma (inflammatory/reactive) phase of secondary bone healing

A 
Bruising and haematoma formation
solid swelling of clotted blood
haematoma forms template for callous
signals for cells to initiate healing 
(mesenchymal stem cells, osteoprogenitor cells, platelets, macrophages, neutrophils)
82
Q

Describe what happens during the soft callous (reparative) phase of secondary bone healing

A

fibroblast cells come into area (make fibrous tissue, produce type II collagen)
new blood vessels grow through haematoma (have connective tissue and provide some stability)
fibroblasts mature into chondroblasts (make & lay down cartilage framework)

83
Q

Describe what happens during the hard callous (reparative) phase of secondary bone healing

A 
osteoblasts come in
they lay down type I collagen
mineralise bone (gets stiffer and harder)
84
Q

Describe what happens during the remodelling phase of secondary bone healing

A

as bone heals people use bone more
bone will then adapt
osteoblasts come in cutting cone formation
(tipped with osteoclasts that cut through regular woven bone)

85
Q

What is it called when bones do not heal

A

non-union

86
Q

What is hypertrophic non-union

A

consequence of too much movement (exceeded 10% strain)

87
Q

What is atrophic non-union

A

avascular and inert (wouldn’t heal even under correct conditions)
usually needs a bone graft
(consequence of poor bone stability and poor blood supply)

88
Q

What is sarcopenia

A

used to describe inevitable loss of muscle mass and strength even in the healthy elderly
force and speed of contraction is reduced

89
Q

What are some of the consequences of sarcopenia

A 
loss of muscle mass
loss of muscle strength 
increase risk falls
loss of autonomy
(reduced loading of skeleton from sarcopenia can result in osteopenia)
90
Q

What three things is osteopenia characterised by

A

bone loss
reduced bone mineral density
micro-architecture deterioration

91
Q

What does osteopenia mainly affect

A

wrist
hip
vertebrae

92
Q

What happens to cortical bone with ageing

A

strength decreases by 2% per decade from 20 yrs

toughness decreases by 7% per decade

93
Q

What happens with ageing of fibrous tissue

A

cell content changes
collagen cross-links increase and mature
non-enzymatic glycation makes tissue yellow and stiffer
micro damage accumulates and makes tissue weaker
cell less responsive to mechanical stimuli

94
Q

What happens with ageing on cartilage

A 
decreased proteoglycans
decreased aggregation of proteoglycans
increased collagen and cross-links
increased non-enzymatic glycation
increased apoptosis
increased stiffness
95
Q

What does hyaline cartilage do

A

its a shock absorber and load bearer

96
Q

What are the features of hyaline cartilage

A

turgor (high water content), resilient, avascular and aneural

97
Q

What is in the matrix of hyaline cartilage

A

glycosaminoglycans, hyalinuronic acid, chondroitin sulphate, keratan sulphate

98
Q

What type of cells make up hyaline cartilage and what fibres are present

A

cells=chondrocytes

fibres=collagen type II

99
Q

What are the four types of skeletal cells

A

osteoblasts
osteocytes
osteoclasts
megakaryocytes

100
Q

Describe osteoblasts

A

make bone
synthesise osteoid and mediate mineralisation
found lined up along bone surfaces

101
Q

Describe osteocytes

A

largely inactive osteoblasts trapped within formed bone
form well connected network via caniculi (thin protrusions)
play important role in mechanosensation

102
Q

Describe osteoclasts

A

phagocytic cells that erode bone
important with osteoblasts in turn/over remodelling of cells
very large/multinucleate cells derived from macrophage/monocyte cell lines
found on/near bone surfaces

103
Q

Describe megakaryocytes

A

lobulated nucleus
responsible for production of platelets
found in bone marrow

104
Q

What are the four properties of muscle

A

elasticity
excitability (ability to respond to stimuli)
contractability
extensibility (ability to stretch without tearing)

105
Q

What is epimysium (muscle connective tissue)

A

outside of a muscle

dense collagenous sheath

106
Q

What is perimysium (muscle connective tissue)

A

sheath surrounding a bundle of muscle fibres

107
Q

What is endomysium (muscle connective tissue)

A

thin connective tissue layer surrounding each myofibre

108
Q

What and where is an epiphyseal growth plate

A

hyaline cartilage plate in the metaphysic at the end of each long bone

109
Q

What is the periosteum

A

dense layer of vascular connective tissue enveloping bones(except at surfaces of joints)

110
Q

What is the endosteum

A

thin vascular connective tissue that lines inner surface of bony tissue that forms the medullary cavity of long bones

111
Q

What is the meniscus

A

piece of cartilage that provides cushion between the femur and the tibia
(two menisci in each knee joint)

112
Q

What does the patella tendon attach to

A

to the bottom of the knee cap to the top of the shin bone (tibia)
attached to the quadriceps muscle by the quadriceps tendon

113
Q

What is a synovial (joint) space

A

site at which articulating surfaces of bones contact eachother

114
Q

What does a synovial membrane do

A

lines joint cavity and made up of two layers

115
Q

what is intimal synovial membrane

A

responsible for content of synovial fluid
(1-4 cell layers thick)
(does not have a basement layer membrane)

116
Q

What is subintimal synovial membrane

A

made up of fibrous, areolar and fatty tissues

117
Q

What is adipose tissue

A

specialised connective tissue consisting of lipid rich cells (adipocytes)
store energy in the form of fat

118
Q

What is acute pain

A

short duration
result of injury or disease
important protective role

119
Q

What are MSK examples of acute pain

A

fracture
muscle sprain
acute post-operative pain

120
Q

What is chronic pain

A

pain that lasts longer than 3-6months
can be related/unrelated to tissue damage
no useful biological function

121
Q

What are MSK examples of chronic pain

A

chronic back pain
osteoarthritis
chronic post-operative pain

122
Q

What is assessed in a pain assessment

A

sensory aspect of pain
physical function
emotional wellbeing/psychological aspect
role and interpersonal functioning

123
Q

What is meant by sensory aspect of pain

A

intensity, location, frequency, quality

124
Q

what is meant by physical function (in a pain assessment)

A

activity levels, daily life, exercise

125
Q

What is meant by emotional wellbeing/psychological aspect (in a pain assessment)

A

pain related distress
depression
coping

126
Q

what is meant by role and interpersonal functioning (in a pain assessment)

A

work
relationships
social activities

127
Q

What are three ways to assess acute pain

A

verbal descriptor scales
numeric rating scales
visual analogue scales

128
Q

describe a verbal descriptor scale

A

asking patients if there is no pain, mild pain, moderate pain or severe pain

129
Q

Describe a numeric rating scale

A

0-10 with 10 being most severe pain

130
Q

describe a visual analogue scale

A

ask patient to place a marker of a scale of no pain to high intensity pain

131
Q

How do you assess chronic pain

A

brief pain inventory

132
Q

What are the challenges of using a questionnaire to assess pain

A

pain fluctuates over time
impact of co-morbidities & pain elsewhere
adaption and avoidant strategies

133
Q

what is the hierarchy of pain assessment techniques

A 
self-report
identify potential causes of pain
observe patient behaviours
surrogate reporting of pain
attempt an analgesic trial
134
Q

what is the mineral phase of bone made of

A

hydroxyapatite (type of calcium phosphate)

135
Q

what is the organic phase of bone made of

A

collagen and other protein

136
Q

How much calcium is moved out of the bones and into the ECF

A

500mmol every 24 hours

137
Q

What is PTH

A

parathyroid hormone (produced by parathyroid gland)

138
Q

What does PTH do in the kidney

A

Increases reabsorption of calcium in distal tubules
increases phosphate excretion
increases formation of active vit D

139
Q

What does PTH do in the bone

A

stimulate bone resorption

breaking down into calcium and phosphate to be absorbed by the body

140
Q

What is a low calcium level called

A

hypocalcaemia

141
Q

What is the calcium receptor

A

CaSR

142
Q

What happens if the body detects low levels of calcium

A

body would produce high levels of PTH to get more calcium in the body

143
Q

Describe vit D3

A

not biologically active
formed from UV light on skin
found in oily fish
highly fat soluble (stored in adipose tissue)

144
Q

Where is vit D2 found

A

in supplements

145
Q

What happens with vit D in the liver

A 
it is where it is first hydrolysed
forms 25(OHD) =25 hydroxycholecalciferol
146
Q

What bone in the wrist forms from 1-3 months

A

capitate

147
Q

what bone in the wrist forms from 2-4 months

A

hamate

148
Q

what bones in the wrist form from 2-4 years

A

triquetral

lunate

149
Q

what bones in the wrist form from 4-6 years

A

scaphoid
trapezium
trapezoid

150
Q

what bone in the wrist forms from 8-12 years

A

pisiform (little bone stuck on the edge of triquetral)

151
Q

what are the four types of children fractures

A

green stick
torus (buckle)
complete
salter harris

152
Q

What is rickets called in adults

A

osteomalacia

CBL Year 1 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions