MSK Flashcards

1
Q

isotonic contraction definition

A
  • tension remains constant, length of muscle changes

- used for body movements

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2
Q

isometric contraction definition

A
  • constant muscle length, muscle tension increases

- used for supporting objects in fixed positions

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3
Q

Epymysium

A

connective tissue which surrounds muscle

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4
Q

Perimysium

A

connective tissue which surrounds a single fascicle

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5
Q

endomysium

A

connective tissue which surrounds a single muscle fibre

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6
Q

What is a fascicle?

A

bunch of myofibrils

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7
Q

What is a myofibril?

A

bunch of sarcomeres

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8
Q

Where do chondrocytes live?

A

in small spaces called lacuna

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9
Q

What is diaphysis made from?

A

cortical bone

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10
Q

What is epiphysis and what is it made from?

A
  • end bits of bones/longbones

- cancellous/trabecular bone

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11
Q

what are volkmann’s and haversian canals?

A
  • volmann’s =transverse canals
  • heversian -vertical canals
  • canals within bone which carry blood vessels
  • osteoclasts drill these canals
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12
Q

Lambert-Eaton-myasthenic syndrome

A
  • autoantibodies against pre-synaptic membrane
  • reduced Ca2+ enters presynaptic ganglion
  • thus decreased Ach release
  • causing muscle weakness
  • assiciated with Small cell carc of lung
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13
Q

Myasthenia Gravis

A
  • Autoimmune attack of nicotinic Ach receptors
  • thus reduced amplitude of end plate potential
  • causing muscle weakness
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14
Q

Guillian-Barre syndrome

A
  • post infection cross reactivity between antibodies and nerve cells/myelin sheaths
  • causing muscle weakness and paralysis
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15
Q

Ganglion cyst

A

-out pouching of a weak portion of joint capsule

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16
Q

Anti-CCP

A

RA

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17
Q

ANA

A

SLE, Sjogrens, Systemic sclerosis, MCTD, autoimmune liver disease

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18
Q

Anti-dsDNA

A

SLE

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19
Q

Anti-Sm

A

SLE

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20
Q

Anti-Ro

A

SLE, Sjogrens

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21
Q

Anti-La

A

Sjogens

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22
Q

Anti-centromere

A

limited systemic sclerosis

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23
Q

anti-Scl-70

A

diffuse systemic sclerosis

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24
Q

Anti-RNP

A

SLE, MCTD

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25
Q

Anti-Jo-1

A

myositis

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26
Q

Anti-cardiolipin antibody

A

Anti-phospholipid syndrome

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27
Q

lupus anticoagulant

A

Anti-phospholipid syndrome

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28
Q

ANCA

A

small vessel vasculitis

e.g. GPA, EGPA, MPA

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29
Q

benign bony outgrowth with a cartilaginous cap

A

osteochondroma

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30
Q

benign metaphyseal cartilagenous tumour due to failure of normal growth plate ossification

A

enchondroma

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31
Q

benign fluid filled cavity within bone

A

simple bone cyst

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32
Q

occurs around knee, soap bubble appearance on x ray

A

giant cell tumour

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33
Q

small nidus of immature bone surrounded by sclerotic halo, really painful

A

osteoid osteoma

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34
Q

malignant primary bone tumour which produces bone

A

osteosarcoma

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35
Q

malignant primary bone tumour which produces cartilage

A

chondrosarcoma

36
Q

info about chondrosarcoma

A
  • older age groups
  • around pelvis/femur
  • slow growing
  • does not respond to chemo or radiotherapy
37
Q

malignant bone tumour which tends to appear in abnormal bone

A

fibrosarcoma/malignant fibrous histiocytoma

38
Q

info about fibrosarcoma

A
  • may appear in bone infarcts, fibrous dysplasia, paget’s disease
  • adolescents and young adults
39
Q

malignant tumour of the primitive cells within the bone marrow

A

-ewing’s sarcoma

40
Q

info about Ewing’s sarcoma

A
  • occurs between age 10 and 20
  • fever, raised CRP (looks a bit like septic arthritis)
  • appears in diaphysis of longbones
  • really poor prognosis as metastasises fairly early
41
Q

middle aged patient with back pain and renal failure

A

myeloma

42
Q

tumours likely to metastasise to bone

A
  • breast carcinoma
  • prostate carcinoma (sclerotic lesions)
  • lung carcinoma
  • renal cell carcinoma
  • thyroid adenocarcinoma
43
Q

swelling on flexor tendon with multinucleate cells and haemosiderin

A

giant cell tumour of tendon sheath

44
Q

what is osteochondritis?

A
  • bleeding/oedema within bone due to repetitive impact/traction
  • can cause stress fractures, capillary compression and avascular necrosis
  • commonly affects 2nd metatarsal head, navicular, lunate
45
Q

what is grotton’s sign?

A
  • erythema over metacarpal heads

- occurs in dermatomyositis

46
Q

HLA associated with RA

A

HLA-DR4

47
Q

radiological signs of OA

A
  • loss of joint space
  • subchondral sclerosis
  • subchondra cysts
  • osteophytes
48
Q

features of enteropathic arthritis

A
-arthritis symptoms linked to IBD
may have:
-pyoderma gangrenosum
-uveitis?
-enthesitis 
-apthous ulcers
-sacroilitis (crohn's)
49
Q

spina biffida occulta definition

A
  • slight defect in spine formation
  • tuft of hair of fat pad over defect
  • vertebrae may be deformed and may be spinal tethering
50
Q

spina biffida cystica, meningocele and myelomeningocele definition

A
  • content of spinal canal herniate through spinal defect
  • herniation of meninges
  • herniation of meninges and spinal cord
51
Q

how does polio affect nervous system?

A
  • damages anterior horn cells of spinal cord

- lower motor neurone deficit

52
Q

Erb’s palsy

A
  • injury to C5 and C6
  • paralysis of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, biceps and brachialis
  • ‘waiter tip’
53
Q

Klumpke’s palsy

A
  • injury to C8 and T1
  • paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles
  • ‘claw hand’
  • may be associated horner’s syndrome
54
Q

Barlow’s test

A

pushing backwards to try and dislocate hip

55
Q

ortolani test

A

abducting hip to try and relocate a hip that is dislocated by barlow’s test
-will hear clunk of hip reduced = likely DDH

56
Q

what nerve supplies both hip and knee joints

A

obturator nerve

57
Q

heberden’s nodes

A

-swollen DIPs

58
Q

bouchard’s nodes

A

-swollen PIPs

59
Q

what is DeQuervain’s tenosynovitis

A

-inflammation of the sheath which surrounds extensor pollicis brevis and adductor pollicis longus

60
Q

what is brown sequard syndrome

A
  • injury to hemisection of the spinal cord
  • ipselateral paralysis, loss of vibration, position and course touch sensation
  • contralateral loss of pain, temperature and light touch sensation
  • due to some nerves crossing over in spinal tract and others crossing over in medulla
61
Q

which way is humeral shaft fracture likely to displace?

A
  • medially

- due to pull of pectoralis major

62
Q

fracture to surgical neck of humerus and loss of sensation to regimental badge patch

A

axillary nerve injury

63
Q

nightstick fracture

A

-ulnar shaft fracture

64
Q

monteggia fracture

A
  • fracture of ulna

- dislocation of radial head at elbow

65
Q

galeazzi fracture

A
  • fracture of radius

- dislocation of ulna at distal radioulnar joint

66
Q

colles fracture

A
  • fracture of distal radius
  • occurs within an inch or articular surface
  • dorsal displacement (of radius)
67
Q

smith’s fracture

A
  • fracture of distal radius
  • volar displacement of radius
  • really unstable so ORIF
68
Q

Barton’s fracture

A
  • intra-articular fracture of distal radius

- can have either dorsal or volar displacement of radius

69
Q

high energy wrist extension could cause

A
  • peri-lunate dislocation
  • lunate dislocation
  • scaphoid fracture
  • scapholunate dislocation

all of above require prompt reduction +/- ligament repairs and wiring

70
Q

test of radial nerve

A

thumbs up

71
Q

test of median nerve

A

make ‘OK’ sign

72
Q

test of ulnar nerve

A

make a starfish

73
Q

spondylosis definition

A

spinal osteoarthritis

74
Q

spondylolisthesis definition

A

one vertebrae moves forward over another

vertebral slip

75
Q

schirmer’s test

A
  • test for sjogren’s

- filter paper to eye and measure fluid produced

76
Q

DAS 28 less than 2.6

A

-remission

77
Q

DAS 28 over 5.1

A
  • active disease

- will qualify for biologic therapy

78
Q

histology of skeletal muscle

A
  1. long cylindrical fibres
  2. striated
  3. unbranched
  4. multinucleate fibers
79
Q

histology of smooth muscle

A
  1. short spindle shaped
  2. non-striated
  3. unbranched
  4. single central nuclei per fibre
80
Q

histology of cardiac muscle

A
  1. short intercolated discs
  2. striated
  3. branched
  4. single central nuclei
81
Q

HLA associated with SLE

A

HLA-DR3

82
Q

What might anti-RNP be raise in?

A
  • MCTD

- SLE

83
Q

most specific antibody for SLE

A

anti-smith

84
Q

mechanism of action of methotrexate

A

folate antagonist

85
Q

second line treatment for gout

A

febuxostat