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Clin Med > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

1
Q

for a pectus chest deformity, ask about what PMH?

A

CT d/o

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2
Q

rib fxs are usually At site of impact or ____________

A

posterolateral bend

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3
Q

tx for rib broken in 2+ places

A

surgery

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4
Q

6Ps of compartment syndrome (list has 7)

A

Pain out of proportion to exam, pain w/ passive ROM, paresthesias, pallor, poikilothermia (limb unable to regulate temperature), pulselessness, paralysis.

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5
Q

MC joint d/o

A

osteoarthritis

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6
Q

is OA ASW OP?

A

no. lack of OP is a RF for OA

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7
Q

when does stiffness in OA occur (2)

A

Stiffness on awakening of <30 min and after inactivity

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8
Q

when does pain in OA occur (2)

A

w/ activity and after, ROM

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9
Q

4 MC locs for OA

A

Most common in DIPs and PIPs (Heberden and Bouchard nodes), then knees, then hips

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10
Q

node on DIP in OA

A

Heberden

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11
Q

crepitus in OA?

A

yes

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12
Q

earliest sign of hip OA

A

decreased internal ROM

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13
Q

test to confirm OA, if needed

A

weight bearing XR

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14
Q

Xray results: Loss of joint space / cartilage, subchondral sclerosis or cyst formation, osteophytes (bone spurs)

A

OA

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15
Q

pathogen MCC of osteomyleitis

A

S aureus

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16
Q

nonhematogenous osteomyelitis demographic

A

adults

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17
Q

MC loc for hematogenous osteomyelitis in adults; kids

A

adults: verbetral
kids: long bones

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18
Q

for suspected osteomyelitis w/ >2wks of sx in non-DM pt, order what test

A

xray

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19
Q

for a DM pt w/ foot ulcer >2x2cm, order ______ to r/o ________

A

MRI. osteomyelitis

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20
Q

empiric abx for osteomyelitis

A

IV vanc + 3rd/4th gen cephalosporin (cefepime, ceftazidime, ceftriaxone)

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21
Q

osteomyelitis post-debridement: how long to give abx if some infected bone remains

A

6 wks

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22
Q

osteomyelitis post-debridement: how long to give abx if NO infected bone remains and no soft tissue infx

A

5 days

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23
Q

is septic arthiritis more common in small or large joints?

A

large

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24
Q

MC joint affected in septic arthritis

A

knee

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25
Q

for suspected septic arhtiritis, draw joint fluid and order ____ on it

A

gram stain and culture. also crystals if still need to r/o gout

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26
Q

MCC of hip pain

A

Greater Trochanteric Bursitis

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27
Q

kid p/w fever + limp. Tx step?

A

refer to ortho/ED urgently

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28
Q

for poss Avascular necrosis hip
ask about what PMH

A

sickle cell

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29
Q

for poss Avascular necrosis hip
ask about what 2 meds

A

steroids, bisphosphonates

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30
Q

Ideopathic osteonecrosis of the hip
in kids

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease

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31
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease: sudden or gradual usually?

A

Gradual (Long onset)

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32
Q

which test: hip adduction causes dislocation

A

barlow

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33
Q

which test: hip flexion and abduction with anterior pressure causes reduction of hip dislocation (CLICK auscultated)

A

ortolani

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34
Q

tx for congential hip dysplasia <6 mo

A

Pavlik harness

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35
Q

dx: pt presents after hip trauma. Physical exam: Hip is tender and pain is elicited with active and passive ROM. The hip will be shortened, abducted, and externally-rotated

A

hip fx (can be rare anterior dislocation)

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36
Q

most hip dislocations: ant or post

A

post

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37
Q

presentation of post hip dislocation

A

Hip pain with leg shortened, internally rotated, and adducted

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38
Q

post hip dislocation is ASW ______ nerve injury

A

sciatic

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39
Q

ant or post hip dislocation: femoral head smaller than the contralateral side and superior to the acetabulum.

A

post

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40
Q

tx for hip fx

A

“Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) - w/in 48 hours for best results
Most traumatic fractures will require surgical reduction”

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41
Q

head of the femur slips off the neck of the femur inferiorly and posteriorly, often due to mechanical overload

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)

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42
Q

12 y/o boy w/ groin to knee pain and limp

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)

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43
Q

tx for Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)

A

Emergent referral to ortho ASAP for surgery. Make them non-weight bearing. Treat with surgical fixation with screw for all patients

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44
Q

torn meniscus will have tenderness to palpation where

A

joint line

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45
Q

meniscus tear is usually from ____ injury

A

twisting

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46
Q

MC cause of anterior knee pain

A

Patella-Femoral Tracking Syndrome

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47
Q

what is theater sign. which dx?

A

hurts when sitting for a long time. Patella-Femoral Tracking Syndrome

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48
Q

Prepatellar Bursitis (Housemaid’s Knee)
is common in which athletes?

A

wrestlers

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49
Q

what is Basset’s sign for Patellar Tendinitis (aka jumper’s knee)

A

Basset’s sign: tenderness to palpation at the distal pole of the patella in full extension and no tenderness to palpation at the distal pole of the patella in full flexion

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50
Q

___ metatarsal is most commonly fractured

A

3rd

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51
Q

if pain/injury to lateral foot, must order xray to r/o

A

jones fx

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52
Q

tx for jones fx

A

surgery

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53
Q

tx for lisfranc fx

A

urgent referral to ortho/ED

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54
Q

Proximal fibular fracture + medial ankle ligament sprain/rupture

A

Masionneuve fx

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55
Q

grade 2 sprain

A

partial tearing of ligaments

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56
Q

2nd MC site for stress fx

A

metatarsals (2nd is most common)

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57
Q

wrestler has dull ache over knee, aggravated by pressure and flexion of knee. Swelling over patella
dx?

A

Prepatellar Bursitis (Housemaid’s Knee)

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58
Q

PE test to distinguish between MTSS and stress fx

A

hop test. stress fx will have pain w/ 1 hop. mtss will be able to hop a few times w/o pain

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59
Q

Most common location for stress fracture in body

A

tibia

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60
Q

tx for Medial Tibial Stress Syndrome (MTSS) aka shin splints

A

” Relative rest 5-7d and symptomatic therapy. Moist heat, brace, taping. Ice NSAID, stretching
* Change running shoes
* Gradually return to training (soft surface first to prevent recurrence)
* Surgery – last resort”

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61
Q

difference in tenderness to palpation: shin splints vs tibial stress fx

A

shin splints will have zone of tenderness along anterolateral tibial shaft. stress fx has point tenderness over bone

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62
Q

demographic for osgood schlatter dz

A

13 y/o athlete going through growth spurt

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63
Q

pt in MVC, knee hit dashboard, now unable to extend, hemarthrosis, palpable patellar defect. test to order and view?

A

lateral XR

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64
Q

Next step for Knee (Tibiofemoral) Dislocations

A

emergency ortho consult

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65
Q

pittsburg knee rules (3)

A

Blunt trauma or fall as mechanism of injury + either of the following: Age <12 years or >50 years; Inability to walk 4 weight-bearing steps (2 weight transfers) in the ED

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66
Q

ottawa rules for knees (5)

A

X-ray indicated if….inability to bear weight both immediately after injury and in the exam room; >55 years old; isolated tenderness of the patella; tenderness over the head of the fibula; inability to flex to 90 degrees.

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67
Q

XR view to order for suspected patellar injury

A

sunrise

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68
Q

Ottawa Ankle Rules to r/o fx

A

(SnOUT – negative Ottawa effectively rules out fx)
1. Inability to bear weight (4 steps)
2. Bony tenderness along posterior edge of distal 6cm of medial or lateral malleolus
3. Tenderness over base of 5th metatarsal
4. Tender over midfoot (navicular)

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69
Q

most important xray view for poss ankle fx

A

mortise

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70
Q

MC loc for morton’s neuroma

A

Entrapment of interdigital nerve – 3rd and 4th web spaces most commonly used

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71
Q

+anterior drawer of the foot indicates injury to which ligament

A

ATFL

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72
Q

+Kleiger test indicates injury to what lig

A

deltoid

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73
Q

+talar tilt on lat foot when tilting medial indicates injury to which lig

A

calcaneofibular

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74
Q

MCC of heel pain in adults

A

plantar fasciitis

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75
Q

plantar fasciitis will have + _______test. how is it performed?

A

Windlass Test + (foot flat on ground and dorsiflex big toe)

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76
Q

to test for tarsal tunnel syndrome, ______

A

” Tinel’s Test over medial ankle

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77
Q

9 y/o soccer player w/ b/l pain over posterior heels

A

Sever’s Disease/Calcaneal Apophysitis

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78
Q

bone is the ____ MC location that metastases spread to

A

3rd

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79
Q

7 bone loving cancers

A

Bone-loving CA (“bone-zing ring”): MM PB KTL. Multiple myeloma. prostate, breast. Kidney, thyroid, lung.

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80
Q

classic sx of bone CA

A

worsening nighttime bone pain

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81
Q

MC malignant bone CA

A

Osteosarcoma

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82
Q

age for Osteosarcoma

A

10-14

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83
Q

age for Ewing sarcoma

A

5-25

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84
Q

which bone CA? X-ray: sunray/burst or hair on end appearance

A

Osteosarcoma

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85
Q

which bone CA is in adults >50

A

Chondrosarcoma

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86
Q

Osteochondroma: benign or malignant

A

benign

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87
Q

demographic MC in fibromyalgia

A

middle aged F

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88
Q

besides pain, ask about what key sx in fibromyalgia

A

sleep disturbance

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89
Q

difference in presentation of gout and CPPD

A

gout is more painful and shorter duration

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90
Q

ask about what drugs for suspected gout

A

If you put too much seafood on your plate, you’ll get gout.
PLATE = pyrazinamide, loop diuretics, aspirin/ACE/ARB, thiazides, ethambutol.

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91
Q

diet to ask about for suspected gout

A

diet high in purines: seafood, meat

92
Q

when to measure uric acid levels in suspected gout

A

1-2 wks after flare resolves

93
Q

joint aspiration results in gout

A

needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals w/ negative birefingent

94
Q

joint aspiration results in CPPD

A

CPPD crystals (rhomboid, positive birefringent)

95
Q

xray shows soft tissue calcification (streaking of soft tissue; chondrocalcinosis). dx?

A

CPPD

96
Q

how long for gout flare to resolve

A

3-10 days

97
Q

2 meds to consider rxing during acute gout flare

A

naproxen (NSAIDs), colchicine

98
Q

1st line for prevention of gout flares

A

allopurinal

99
Q

what to rx w/ allopurinol

A

NSAIDs or cochicine X 3-6 mo then d/c

100
Q

what to tell pt when they start or increase allopurinol dose

A

When rxing allopurinol: tell pt to call asap and stop med if they dev rash or itching, esp w/in 2 mo.

101
Q

1st line tx for CPPD

A

Injectable glucocorticoids (1st line if 2 or less joints involved)

102
Q

JIA must show 6 wks of sx before age ___

A

16

103
Q

MC type of JIA

A

oligoarticular

104
Q

MC age range for JIA

A

1-5 y/o

105
Q

fever in still’s dz

A

diurnal, daily, for 2+ wks

106
Q

most serious complication of JIA

A

Iridocyclitis not detected and treated, may lead to scarring of the lens and permanent visual damage including blindness.

107
Q

ANA+ pt w/ JIA. what screening is required?

A

eye exam Q3 mo til 7 y/o, then Q6 mo

108
Q

ANA- pt w/ JIA. what screening is required?

A

eye exam Q6 mo

109
Q

when to start screening F for OP w/ DEXA

A

65

110
Q

MC OP fx and loc

A

vertebral. T12, L1

111
Q

vertebral fx is worse w/ ___ (2 positions, 1 action)

A

sitting, extension, valsalva

112
Q

first labs to order for suspected OP (4)

A

CBC, CMP, vitamin D, phosporus

113
Q

osteopenia + FRAX results of ______ = OP

A

10 year prob of hip fx 3+% and major osteoporotic fx 20+%

114
Q

Ca and vit D amounts for OP

A

1200mg Ca, 800IU Vit D

115
Q

if bisphosphonates are CI, rx _____ for OP pt

A

denosumab

116
Q

med for OP pt w/ very high fx risk

A

teriparatide

117
Q

demographic for polyarteritis nodosa

A

M 40-60

118
Q

40 y/o M p/w painful subQ nodules and rapidly dev HTN. consider what rheum d/o?

A

polyarteritis nodosa

119
Q

the NO in polyarteritis nodosa is what 2 things?

A

NOdosa: no lung involvement, no ANCA

120
Q

1st line tx for PAN

A

prednisone

121
Q

test for what concomitant dx in pt w/ PAN

A

hep B, C

122
Q

Idiopathic inflammation of joints, bursae, and tendons

A
  • Polymyalgia rheumatica
123
Q

PMR is ASW what other dx

A

20% have giant cell arteritis

124
Q

60 y/o F w/ Acute onset of Pain and stiffness in shoulders, hips. Normal muscle strength on PE, but difficulty w/ ADLs.

A

PMR

125
Q

what sx is 100% sensitive for PMR

A

morning stiffness

126
Q

tx for PMR

A

Low dose corticosteroids (prednisone) X 6mo - 1 yr, then taper off. Will have rapid response to prednisone. High dose if giant cell arteritis.

127
Q

3 differences in presentation of PMR and polymiositis

A

PMR (no muscle weakness or tenderness; joint pain)

128
Q

what 2 signs are pathognomonic for dematomyositis

A

Gottron’s papules (pathognomonic; raised violaceous scaly patches on extensor surfaces of fingers/elbows/knees), heliotrope rash (pathognomonic; around eyes)

129
Q

most sensitive lab test for polymiositis

A

elevated CK

130
Q

3 serum rheum tests for order for suspected polymiositis

A

ANA+ (60%), RF-
Anti-Jo-1: ASW myositis, is + in 20-30% of polymyositis
Anti-Mi2: ASW myositis, specific for dermatomyositis. think MiJositis.

131
Q

which antibody is specific for dermatomyositis

A

anti-Mi2

132
Q

1st line tx for polymiositis

A

prednisone

133
Q

RA joints are stiff for how long in am?

A

> 1 hr

134
Q

RA joint stiffness is worse w/ ______ and better with _____

A

prolonged inactivity. activity

135
Q

7 S’s of RA

A

7 S’s: symmetric, swollen, soft, small joints, spares DIPs and lumbar, 60min or more in the morning, swan neck deformity.

136
Q

MCC of deaths in RA pts

A

CVD

137
Q

4 comorbidities of RA

A

CVD (causes 50% of RA deaths), infx, malignancy, OP (from chronic steroid use)

138
Q

xray shows bone erosions around joints, justaarticular osteopenia. dx?

A

RA

139
Q

most specific test for RA

A

Anti-CCP antibodies

140
Q

med class to start asap in RA

A

DMARDs

141
Q

med to think of first when dxing RA

A

MTX

142
Q
  • Reactive arthritis (Reiter’s Syndrome)
    preceeded by what 2 infx?
A

Dysentery caused by: Shigella, salmonella, yersinia, or campylobacter
STI w/: Chlamydia trachomatis or Ureaplasma urealyticum

143
Q

is reactive arthritis from STI more common in M or F?

A

M

144
Q

triad of reactive arthritis

A

Triad of arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis (only 33% have full triad; can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree)

145
Q

order what test for suspected reactive arthritis

A

HLA-B27

146
Q

tx for reactive arthritis. add _____ if d/t STI

A

NSAIDs are the mainstay of treatment. Tetracycline should be given if sexually transmitted disease is suspected.

147
Q

pt w/ Xeropthalmia (dry eyes). Xerostomia (dry mouth). look for what on PE?

A

b/l parotid enlargement

148
Q

special PE test for sjogren’s

A

Positive Schirmer test: ↓ tear production (wetting <10mm of filter paper after 5 min)

149
Q

labs to order for sjogren’s (3)

A

labs: + ANA, +antiSS-A (Ro) & antiSS-B (La), +RF (none are specific)

150
Q

class of med + example for sjogrens

A

Cholinergics (pilocarpine, Cevimeline)

151
Q

40% of pts w/ SLE have what comorbidity affecting hands and feet?

A

Reynaud’s

152
Q

what makes SLE rash worse?

A

sunlight

153
Q

pathognomonic finding on PE of limbs for SLE

A

palmar erythema mainly on fingertips

154
Q

1st 3 tests to order for SLE

A

check urine, ANA, CBC first

155
Q

2 specific antibodies in SLE

A

anti-double stranded DNA (very specific; use to Dx; high in renal impairment), anti-Sm (most specific)

156
Q

which antibody is sensitive for drug-induced lupus?

A

anti-histone

157
Q

rx high dose of _________ to achieve remission in SLE

A

Antimalarial therapy (hydroxychloroquine/ Plaquenil

158
Q

which type of scleroderma is MC

A

CREST

159
Q

what does CREST stand for in scleroderma

A

calcinosis cutis, Raynaud’s, esophageal dysfunction, sclerodactyly, telangeictasia.

160
Q

Scl-70 antibodies are specific for _____

A

Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis (DCSS)

161
Q

dx to order these:
Anti-centromere antibodies
Anti-RNA polymerase
Scl-70 antibodies

A

scleroderma

162
Q
  • Ankylosing spondylitis
    is a type of _________
A

reactive arthritis

163
Q

age of onset for ankylosing spondylitis

A

20-30 y/o

164
Q

does the pain and stiffness in ankylosing spondylitis get better or worse w/ activity?

A

better

165
Q

Bamboo spine (squaring of vertebral bodies). dx?

A

ankylosing spondylitis

166
Q

test to order for cauda equina

A

MRI

167
Q

2 MC locs for HNP

A

L4-5 and L5-S1 : 95% of cases

168
Q

easy way to tell the difference between b/w cervical HNP and rotator cuff

A

HNP will ahve pain at rest. rotator cuff is only w/ movement

169
Q

which nerve root is affected?

pain on ant upper arm, radial forearm, thumb; weak elbow flexion or shoulder external rotation; poss dec biceps / brachialis reflex

A

C6

170
Q

when to start bracing scoliosis? when to refer to surgery

A

> 25 degrees. >45 degrees

171
Q

when to tell pt w/ back strain that they will feel better

A

some in 1 wk. most by 6 wks.

172
Q

lumbar strain pt not improved in 6 wks of conservative mgmt. next step?

A

MRI

173
Q

small piece of bone fractured off the ant inf glenoid after impaction of humeral head against glenoid.

A

Bankart lesion

174
Q

(dent in the humeral head): compression chondral injury of the post superior humeral head following impaction against the glenoid

A

Hill-Sachs lesion

175
Q

2 causes of post shoulder dislocation

A

seizures, electric shock

176
Q

MC joint to be dislocated

A

shoulder

177
Q

how will arm be held in ant shoulder dislocation?

A

Ant: arm is abducted and externally rotated

178
Q

2 xray views to order for shoulder dislocation?

A

AP, axillary lateral OR scapular Y view

179
Q

after reducing shoulder dislocation, must do what 2 things

A

neurovasc check, xray

180
Q

zanca xray view is aka _____

A

clavicle

181
Q

if clavicle fx is displaced, prox, distal, or shortened >______mm, refer to ortho surgery

A

15mm

182
Q

most sensitive test for biceps tendinitis

A

speed’s

183
Q

pt has shoulder pain worse with overhead activity or at night when lying on arm. dx?

A

rotator cuff tendinopathy

184
Q

MC rotator cuff injured

A

supraspinatus

185
Q

difference b/w rotator cuff tendonitis and tear

A

tear has decreased AROM and strength

186
Q

when to order xray for rotator cuff pain (2)

A

Xray first if atraumatic and >50 y/o OR traumatic

187
Q

PE special test to distinguish between rotaator cuff tendinitis and tear

A

drop arm (specific)

188
Q

do what PE special tests for labral tear )3)

A

positive O’Brien (most specific), Yergason, anterior apprehension (most specific for shoulder instability/labral tear), Jobe relocation

189
Q

ask about what 3 things in PMH for adhesive capsulitis?

A

shoulder surgery, breast CA surgery, DM

190
Q

PE to r/o adhesive capsulitis

A

ROM. Full range of motion on any plane suggests diagnosis other than adhesive capsulitis

191
Q

pt has shoulder pain w/ motion. Painful crepitus with AROM, Decreased AROM/PROM, Intact strength. dx?

A

Glenohumeral joint Osteoarthritis

192
Q

age for nursemaid’s elbow

A

2-4 y/o

193
Q

if radial head subluxation was >____ hrs ago, immoblise and consult ortho

A

12

194
Q

how to check radial n function (sens and motor)

A

1st webspace sensation; finger extension

195
Q

how to check median n function (sens and motor)

A

index finger sensation; finger flexion

196
Q

how to check ulnar n function (sens and motor)

A

little finger sensation; interossei function

197
Q

Ulnar Fracture with Radial Head Dislocation

A

Monteggia Fracture

198
Q

Proximal radius fracture with distal ulna dislocation

A

Galeazzi Fx

199
Q

most commonly fractured carpal bone

A

scaphoid

200
Q

age range for supracondylar fx

A

5-8 y/o

201
Q

Most common upper extremity fracture

A

colles

202
Q

the more ______ the scaphoid fracture the more likely the non-union and avascular necrosis

A

proximal

203
Q

displaced scaphoid fx tx

A

refer for surgery

204
Q

age range for colles fx

A

Pediatric and senior citizens

205
Q

Transverse distal radius fracture +/- ulnar involvement. NO articular involvement.

A

colles

206
Q

refer metacarpal or phalange fx if ___ (3)

A

involves joint space, rotated, extensor lag

207
Q

2 special PE tests to do for lateral epicondylitis

A

Cozen’s, Mill’s

208
Q

tenderness 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. +/- finger and wrist extensor weakness

A

Radial Tunnel Syndrome

209
Q

pain and difficulty with resisted extension of the middle finger with the elbow in extension.
this is + for _______

A

Radial Tunnel Syndrome

210
Q

consider what complication for Medial Epicondylitis (aka Golfer’s elbow)

A

ASW Ulnar nerve entrapment (Cubital Tunnel Syndrome)

211
Q

medial epicondylitis will have pain w/ resisted elbow ________

A

flexion

212
Q

ulnar n entrapment/cubital tunnel syndrome will have paresthesias w/ prolonged elbow _________

A

flexion

213
Q

complication of Olecranon Bursitis (aka student’s elbow)
to r/o

A

infx

214
Q

test for DeQuervain’s Syndrome

A

Finkelstein (Eichhoff) Test positive.

215
Q

carpal tunnel affects what nerve

A

median

216
Q

trigger finger PMH (3)

A

Reptititive trauma, RA, DM

217
Q

Flexor Digitorum Profundus (Jersey finger)
MC affects what finger?

A

ring

218
Q

tx for jersey finger

A

urgent surgery

219
Q

Pain over ulnar aspect of 1st MCP; pincer strength decreased due to pain. Be suspicious of a Stener lesion if there is both pain and significant laxity with abduction stress test

A

Thumb Ulnar collateral ligament tear (Skier’s thumb)

220
Q

how to test for hip OA

A

figure 4/faber (will have ant hip pain)

221
Q

MCC (pathogen) of hematogenous osteomyelitis

A

S aureus

222
Q

Diseases associated with HLA-B27: PAIR

A

Psoriatic arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Inflammatory bowel disease
Reactive arthritis

223
Q

Physical exam findings in a 4 year-old child that include blue sclerae and recurrent fractures indicates which of the following?

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

Marfan syndrome

Achondroplasia

Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

224
Q

Which of the following groups is most likely to present with Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy?

Adolescent females

Middle-aged males

Infant females

Toddler-aged males

A

toddler males

225
Q

A patient presents with chronic back pain. On physical examination testing, the patient is found to have abnormalities of proprioception and vibration discrimination. Which of the following portions of the spinal column are most likely affected?

Lateral spinothalamic tract

Ventral spinothalamic tract

Posterior column

Transection of the cord

A

posterior column

226
Q

An 80 year-old female presents with pain in her vertebral column. Radiography reveals compression fracture of T12 that is consistent with osteoporotic compression fracture. Which of the following treatment modalities has the potential to cause analgesia of the fracture site with its use?

Calcitonin (Miacalcin) nasal spray

Alendronate (Fosamax)

Raloxifene (Evista)

Combined estrogen and progesterone (Prempro) therapy

A

Calcitonin has the ability to cause analgesia when used for acute compression fracture of the vertebral body

227
Q

A 35 year-old patient with lupus is being treated for mild arthralgias and rash with hydroxychloroquine. Which of the following clinical manifestations is the most common side effect of this medication?

impaired night vision

jaundice

mouth sores

proteinuria

A

Question 81 Explanation:
Hydroxychloroquine is associated with macular damage, rash and diarrhea

Clin Med (14 decks)

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