Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clin Med > EENT > Flashcards

EENT Flashcards

1
Q

red eye around periphery and clear around iris. dx?

A

conjuntivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which type of conjunctivitis has eyes glued shut upon awakening?

A

bac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

in kids: bac or viral conjunctivitis more common?

A

bac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

in adults: bac or viral conjunctivitis more common?

A

viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

tx for bac conjuntivitis w/o contacts

A

erythromycin 5mg/g ointment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

tx for bac conjuntivitis w/ contacts

A

fluoroquinolones (ofloxacin 0.3% drops, cipro 0.3% drops),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

pt education for bac conjuntivitis w/ contacts

A

Tell contacts wearers to stop wearing contacts, and if bac don’t wear again until eye is normal and 24 hrs after treatment completed; throw away old case and lenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

leading cause of blindness in world

A

cataracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

pt w/ gradual onset Blurred vision, glare, altered color perception, monocular diplopia . dx??

A

cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

difference in PE b/w immature and mature cataract

A

mature loses red reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

biggest RF for keratitis

A

contacts use, esp overnight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what pathogen causes dendritic branching in the cornea visible upon fluorescience stain?

A

herpes (simplex or zoster)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which is more likely to present w/ significant photophobia? conjunctivitis or keratitis

A

keratitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

tx plan for keratitis

A

emergency opthalmology consult/referral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

painful, blurry vision w/ injection around iris and small mishapen pupil that is poorly reactive to light. dx?

A

iritis/ uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

main difference between Chalazion and Hordeolum (sty)

A

Hordeolum (sty) is painful and inflammed (think hot). chalazion is painless (think cold)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

tx for entropions and ectropions

A

surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

painful loss of vision, decrease in color, central scotoma. Unilateral. Pain worse w/ movement.
dx?

A

optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

special test to dx optic neuritis

A

Marcus-Gunn pupil (swing light from unaffected to affected eye and pupils dilate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

tx for optic neuritis

A

IV methylprednisone. Then PO corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MCC of optic neuritis

A

MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

med that can cause optic neuritis

A

ethambutol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how to differentiate between orbital cellulitis and preseptal cellulitis

A

Preseptal cellulitis (no pain w/ eye movement, no proptosis)
orbitals: ocular pain esp w/ movment, extraocular muscle weakness (opthalmoplegia) with diplopia, proptosis, chemosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

common precursor to orbital cellulitis

A

sinus infx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

tx for dry macular degeneration (3 supplements)

A

zinc, vitamin C and E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

tx for wet macular degeneration: inj

A

intra-vitreal VEGF inhibitors (bevacizumab, ranibuzumab, alfibercept).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

sudden onset of new floaters in vision, photopsias (flickering lights), curtain-like shadow, no pain, no red eye. Persistent portion of visial field affected. dx?

A

retinal detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what position should retinal detachment pt try to stay in until opthal evaluation

A

stay supine w/ head turned toward side of detached retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

rx for proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

VEGF inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

laser tx for diabetic retinopathy

A

laser photocoagulation treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

imaging for suspected blowout fx

A

CT of orbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

use an eye patch in corneal abrasion?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

should you remove a FB that ruptured a globe?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

MCC of retinal artery occlusion

A

carotid atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

is CRAO or CRVO more common?

A

CRVO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

4 RFs to def ask about for retinal vascular occlusion

A

HTN, DM, dyslipidemia, hypercoagulability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

is CRAO and CRVO painless or painful?

A

painless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

classic triad of closed angle glaucoma on PE

A

Classic triad of injected conjunctiva, cloudy cornea, and fixed dilated pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

1st tx for angle closure glaucoma

A

IV Acetazolamide, followed by PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

1st line tx for open angle glaucoma

A

prostaglandin analogs–latanoprost, travoporst, trafluprost, bimatoprost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

for suspected cerumen impaction, ask about what in PSH

A

use of Q tips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

MCC of conductive hearing loss

A

cerumen impaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MC pathogen causing otitis externa

A

pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

ask about what PSH for suspected otitis externa

A

swimming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

otitis external will have pain when you palpate ____

A

tragus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

1st line for otitis externa but can’t be used w/ ruptured TM

A

cortisporin suspension (1st line; neomycin+polymyxin B+hydrocortisone) (not if TM ruptured, tubes, or not visible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

alt 1st line for otitis externa if TM ruptured

A

Cipro+dexamethasone (ciprodex) drops (alt first line; $$$; ok to use on ruptured TM, tubes; for kids use penicillin or sulfa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what dx is ASW b/l acoustic neuromas?

A

neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2)

49
Q

asymmetrical SNHL, tinnitus, vertigo, aural fullness
suspect which 2 dx?

A

acoustic neuroma, Meniere’s

50
Q

order what test for acoustic neuroma

A

MRI of post fossa and internal auditory canals

51
Q

key sx present in acoustic neuroma but not Meniere’s, difference in vertigo b/w them

A

facial numbness
vertigo in Meniere’s is intermittent. it’s continuous disequilibrium in acoustic neuroma +/- vertigo

52
Q

what type of vertigo does labyrinthitis p/w?

A

acute onset continuous

53
Q

labyrinthitis usually follows ____

A

viral URI

54
Q

rx _____ for labyrinthitis (3)

A

prednisone PO X 10d. can also rx Vestibular suppresants (meclizine), Zofran

55
Q

does vestibular neuritis have hearling loss or tinnitus?

A

no

56
Q

central or peripheral vertigo? gradual onset, vertical nystagmus. NO auditory sx.

A

central

57
Q

how to differentiate labyrinthitis vs vestibular neuritis

A

labrinthitis: acute onset + hearing loss + poss tinnitus
VN: develops over hours, NO hearing loss or tinnitus

58
Q

3 MCCs of otitis media

A

H flu (causes otitis-conjunctitis), moraxella catarrhalis, strep pneumonia. SP says strep pyogenes instead of m catarrhalis

59
Q

tx for severe AOM in kids

A

amoxicillin 90 mg/kg/day divided into 2 doses, up to 1500mg bid (3000mg) X 10d

60
Q

preferred tx for mild AOM in kids >2

A

pref analgesics + waiting unless severe. if no improvment after 48hrs, abx.

61
Q

tx for AOM in adults

A

augmentin 875/125 bid x7 days; x10days if severe

62
Q

tx for AOM in pts w/ mild PCN allergy

A

cefdinir

63
Q

is mastoiditis more common in kids or adults?

A

kids

64
Q

classic triad of Meniere’s

A

attacks of intermittent vertigo lasting 1-8 hrs, fluctuating low freq SNHL, tinnitus,

65
Q

tx for Meniere’s

A

low salt diet

66
Q

what sx is ASW 90% of tinnitus cases?

A

SNHL

67
Q

what pathogen is involved in 25% of oral CA and 66% of oropharyngeal CA?

A

HPV 16

68
Q

MC type of oral CA

A

SCC

69
Q

MC location of ant epistaxis

A

Kiesselback’s plexis

70
Q

MC location of post epstaxis

A

Woodruff’s plexus

71
Q

MCC of viral URI

A

rhinovirus

72
Q

when is a viral URI most severe, and when does it resolve?

A

most severe on day 4-5. resolves in 10-14 days

73
Q

MC form of rhinitis

A

allergic rhinitis

74
Q

what is the difference in nasal mucosa appearance in viral URI vs allergic rhinitis?

A

viral URI: red beefy
allergic rhinitis: pale boggy

75
Q

1st line tx for allergic rhinits (2)

A

corticosteroids (IN; start 1 month before allergies begin; flonase/fluticasone, nasacort, rhinocort/budesonide; preg: rhinocort is preg cat B), 2nd gen antihistamines (for kids, adults, elderly)

76
Q

MCC of acute bac sinusitis

A

strep pneumo

77
Q

is sinusitis more common in adults or peds?

A

adults

78
Q

what age do maxillary sinuses dev?

A

by 4 y/o

79
Q

consider bac sinusitis if sx of acute viral rhinosinusitis last > ___ days

A

10

80
Q

kids w/ polyps: check for what dx?

A

cystic fibrosis

81
Q

1st line med for bac sinusitis

A

augmentin

82
Q

white on tongue is scraped off to reveal red, inflammed, poss bleeding tongue. dx?

A

candidiasis

83
Q

suppurative thrombophlebitis of jugular vein after head/neck infx (usually pharyngitis)

A

Lemierre’s syndrome

84
Q

diffuse cellulitis of floor of mouth and neck

A

Ludwig’s Angina

85
Q

Lemierre’s syndrome will have tenderness where?

A

under angle of jaw

86
Q

imaging for suspected deep neck infx

A

CT

87
Q

2 cause of epiglottitis to cover for

A

H flu, s aureus

88
Q

stridor + drooling in a kid. suspect what dx?

A

epiglottitis

89
Q

epiglottitis on xray

A

thumb sign on lat soft tissue film

90
Q

tx for 1st outbreak of HSV

A

valacyclovir; first episode 1g bid x10d.

91
Q

tx for recurrent genital herpes

A

valacyclovir 500mg bid x3d

92
Q

tx for recurrent herpes labialis

A

valacyclovir 2g bid x1d

93
Q

if trismus + sore throat, suspect ____

A

peritonsillar abscess

94
Q

which is more common: viral or bacterial pharyngitis

A

viral

95
Q

complications of GABHS pharyngitis (5)

A

untreated GABHS at 10+ days: acute rheumatic fever. post-strep glomerulonephritis (red to brown urine), strep TSS, post strep reactive arthritis. PANDAS syndrome

96
Q

centor criteria

A

Centor criteria for GABHS: tonsillar exudate, swollen tender ant cervical nodes, absence of cough, fever >38, age<15. subtract 1 pt for age 45+.

97
Q

do rapid strep test if centor score is ____ or more

A

2

98
Q

1st line tx options for strep throat (2)

A

GABHS: 1) penicillin V (250mg bid x 10 days for kids), amoxicillin (50mg/kg Qd - tastes better)

99
Q

strep throat tx reduces infectious period to _____ which is when pt can go back to school/work

A

24 hrs

100
Q

what is Sialadenitis

A

inflammation of a salivary gland.

101
Q

swelling in jaw after eating indicates ______

A

salivary gland stone.

102
Q

preferred imaging for parotitis

A

US

103
Q

white stuff on tongue cannot be scraped off. next step?

A

biopsy

104
Q

MCC of croup

A

parainfluenza

105
Q

stridor, consider what 3 dx:

A

FB, croup, epiglottis

106
Q

test to order for croup and expected results

A

xray. steeple sign on AP soft tissue film. If bac, will also show suglottic irregularity of tracheal wall or intraluminal trachal membranes.

107
Q

tx for mild croup

A

humidified air, oral corticosteroids (dexamthasone)

108
Q

tx for mod-severe croup

A

humidified air, oral/IV/IM corticosteroids, nebulized epi, supplemental O2. hospitalise if they do not respond to these treatments.

109
Q

preauricular LN drain: (4)

A

eyelids, conjunctivae, temporal region, pinna

110
Q

post auricular LN drain: (3)

A

external auditory meatus, pinna, scalp

111
Q

ant cervical LNS drain: (4)

A

internal throat, posterior pharynx, tonsils, thyroid

112
Q

tonsillar LNs drain: (2)

A

tonsils and posterior pharynx

113
Q

Sub‐Mandibular LNs drain: 1

A

floor of mouth

114
Q

sub-mental LNs drain: (2)

A

teeth and intra‐oral cavity

115
Q

When to give Timolol, apraclonidine, and pilocarpine in acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

Timolol, apraclonidine — 1 hour after start of acetazolamide
Pilocarpine — after that, once pressure falls

116
Q

A 5-year-old boy presents with his mother due to concerns for fever for the past six days. She states that she initially thought he had a virus; however, he seems to be worsening over time. On physical exam, his vital signs are significant only for a fever of 38.4°C. He has bilateral conjunctival injection and fissured lips. There is a macular, erythematous rash on areas of the trunk and the extremities, as well as edema of the dorsal aspects of the hands. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A

kawasaki

117
Q

kawasaki tx (2)

A

IVIG + high dose ASA

118
Q

4 y/o w/ barky cough, fever, but looks toxic

A

bac tracheitis

Clin Med (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions