MSK Flashcards

1
Q

Which fracture is associated with a peri lunate dislocation?

A

Scaphoid (60%)

Capitate subluxes dorsally

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2
Q

What is midcarpal dislocation. what ligament is damaged? What associated fracture ?

A

capitate is dislocated dorsal and nudges the lunate volarly but it is not fully dislocated

Ligament = Triquetrolunate interosseous ligament

Associated with Triquetral fracture

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3
Q

What ligament is damaged in a lunate dislocation?

A

Lunate dislocated volar direction

Ligament damaged = Dorsal radio lunate ligament

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4
Q

What happens in DISI?

A

**Dorsal intercalated segmental instability **

Happens with SL ligament injury

WIDENING (>80) of the Scapholunate angle

The Lunate tilts DORSALLY and the scaphoid tilts volar

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5
Q

What happens in VISI?

A

Volar intercalated segmental instability

Rare, happens with lunotriquetral lug injury.

Lunate and Scaphoid tilt Volar

ACUTE scapholunate angle <30

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6
Q

What is bennetts fracture?

A

Fracture base of the first metacarpal

Pull of the abductor pollicus longus (APL tendon causes dorsolateral dislocation

Nb a comminuted # base of 1st metacarpal = ROLANDO

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7
Q

What is gamekeepers thumb?

A

Avulsion fracture of the base of the proximal first phalanx

Ulnar collateral ligament disruption

STENER lesion = when adductor tendon gets caught in the torn edges of the UCL = Surgery

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8
Q

Monteggia and Galeazi fracture?

A

MUGR

Monteggia - Fracture of the proximal ulna, anterior dislocation of the radial head

Galeazzi - Radial shaft fracture, with anterior dislocation of the ulna at DRUJ

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9
Q

What is cubital tunnel syndrome?

A

Swollen ulnar nerve within cubital tunnel retinaculum

Accessory muscle can cause = Anconeus epitrochlear

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10
Q

Where is hills sacs deformity?

A

Posto-lateral humeral head impaction fracture (anterior dislocation)

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11
Q

Where is stress and bisphosphate fractures at the femoral neck?

A

MEDIAL = stress fracture

LATERAL = Bisphosphonate

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12
Q

Segond fracture?

A

Lateral tibial plateau

Associated with ACL tear (75%) and internal rotation

MR SL = Medial Reverse Lateral Segond

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13
Q

Reverse Segond fracture?

A

Medial tibial plateau

Associated with PCL tear with external rotation. Associated with medial meniscus injury.

MR SL = Medial Reverse Lateral Segond

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14
Q

Arcuate sign ?

A

Avulsion of the proximal fibula

Associated with PCL tear

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15
Q

What is classic association with patellar tendon tear (alta)?

A

SLE (elderly, trauma, RA)

bilateral patellar rupture = chronic steroids

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16
Q

What is tillaux fracture?

A

Salter-Harris 3 = through the anterolateral distal tibial epiphysis

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17
Q

What is triplane fracture?

A

Salter-harris 4 =Vertical component through the epiphysis , horizontal component through the physis , oblique through metaphysis

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18
Q

What is Maisonneuve fracture?

A

Medial tibial malleolus with disruption of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis.

most X ray and look at the proximal fibula = # proximal fibular

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19
Q

What is bohlers line?

A

line drawn between the anterior and posterior borders of the calcaneus

< 20 ? fracture

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20
Q

Jones Fracture?

A

Fracture base of 5th metatarsal

**1.5cm distal to the tuberosity @ metaphysis-diaphysis junction

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21
Q

What is the most common fracture of the base of 5th metatarsal?

A

Avulsion

Peroneus brevis

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22
Q

Patterns of Lis francs fracture/dislocations?

A

Homolateral = all tarsal move lateral

Divergent = 1st MT goes medial and 2-5th goes lateral

Fleck sign = in-between the 1st and 2nd MT = avulsion of the LF ligament

LF ligament connects the medial (1st) cuneiform to the 2nd metatarsal base on plantar aspect

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23
Q

Common Lytic bone lesion? FEGNOMASHIC

A

Fibrous dysplasia
Enchondroma/ Eosinophilic granuloma
GCT/Geode
Non-ossifying fibroma
Oestoblastoma
Mets/myeloma
ABC
SBC
Hyperparathyroidsim (brown tumour)
Infection/infarction
Chondroblastoma/chondromyxoid fibroma

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24
Q

Commonest location of enchondroma ?

A

Hands/feet

Intramedullary and metaphysis

If pain think pathological fracture

DDx Brown tumor (hyperparathyroidism), sarcoid, intraosseous ganglion, metastatic disease.

Maffuci - multiple enchondroma + haemangioma
Olliers - multiple enchondroma only -affect the metaphysis

Cartilaginous rest - radiolucent streaks

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25
Q

What is bizarre parosteal osteochondromatous proliferation (BPOP) aka Nora’s lesion?

A

Exostosis post trauma of the periosteum of the phalanges

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26
Q

Chondrosarcomas may be secondary to what lesions?

A

Osteochondromas and enchondromas

Chondrosarcomas occur in the pelvis, femur and humerus.

Most well differentiated, low grade

Paraneoplastic hyperglycaemia

Lobular growth
High 2 signal
ring and arcs/chondroid matrix islands on CT
Soft tissue extension
**endosteal scalloping. **

if no mineralized matrix = aggressive/high grade

How to tell enchondroms from chondrosarcoma ?
Endosteal scalloping more than 2/3 cortex

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27
Q

Pedunculated lesion arising from surface of bone with continuity of normal cortex and marrow

A

Osteochondroma

points away from the joint

Metaphysis/metaphyseal equivalents (rarely diaphysis)

Multiple =
Trevor’s - epiphysis locations and single lower limb

Diaphyseal aclasia/Multiple Hereditary Exostoses - Metaphysis region of tubular bones of extremities
Cap > 2.5cm ??? chondrosarcomatous transformation

ng. avian spur points towards the joint

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28
Q

Name three most common malignant tumours?

A

Myeloma
Osteosarcoma
Chondrosarcoma

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29
Q

What are the main types of oestosarcomas?

A

Intramedullary (85%)
Parosteal
Periosteal
Telangiectatic

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30
Q

What are features of intramedullary osteosarcoma

A

Femur (40%) and proximal tibia commonest sites (15%)

**Aggressive periosteal reaction **
- Sunburst
- Codman triangle
- Lamellated (onion skin)

**High grade = Met to the lung
**
Reverse zoning phenomenon - dense mature matrix in the centre, less peripherally

Nb ewings Sarcoma - not likely ot have reverse zoning and not sunburst, more lamellated. cortex can be intact

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31
Q

What are key features of a telangiectatic oestosarcoma?

A

Distal Femur
Haemorrhagic and necrotic components
Fluid-fluid levels
Thus, heterogenous on T1 and T2
*Purely lytic but with aggressive features
Solid components enhance

DDx
ABC
—Expansile lytic lesion arising in metaphysis
—No tumour nodularity and enhancement
- Thin peripheral and septal enhancement

GCT
—Mildly expansile metaphyseal lesion with extension to joint line
—Can be very aggressive and have soft tissue extension

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32
Q

What are key features of a parosteal sarcoma?

A

Big +++
**Posterior distal femur (metaphysis) **
Marrow extensions (50%)
Early adult and middle age

*string sign Lucnet cleft between bone and mass. This is not present in Periosteal sarcoma

Low grade

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33
Q

What are the key features of a periosteal sarcoma?

A

Diaphyseal
Likes **medial distal femur **
Large enhancing soft tissue component
Usually, no marrow extension

Nb Intermediate grade ie worse prognosis than parosteal but better than conventional

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34
Q

20, lytic lesion eccentric, sclerotically marginated, lobular, expansile lesion extending from the metaphysis to the epiphysis with internal septations ?

A

chondromyxoid fibroma

look for internal septations
Eccentric

DDx GCT
- very similar, similar location (eccentric, originates in metaphysis, extends to subarticular region)
-rarely has sclerotic margin

DDx ABC
-Fluid/fluid levels MRI and thin walled

DDx Non-ossifying fibroma
-Cortex based rather than eccentric intramedullary

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35
Q

multicentric lesions involving the anterior tibial cortex. mixed sclerotic and lytic components.

A

Adamantinoma

Low-grade, malignant lesion most frequently arising in tibial cortex

*Cortically based lesion in anterior tibia

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36
Q

What is ‘triple sign’ in synovial sarcoma?

A

Heterogeneous signal (combination of low, intermediate, and high) T2 signal from:
Solid mass
haemorrhage + necrosis
calcification (1/3).

Bowl of grapes sign = multiloculated appearance of mass with internal septa

Heterogenous enhancement of the solid components.

little to no perilesional oedema

Classic history -
paediatric patient with a multi-cystic appearing mass with well-defined margins around the knee joint

NOT in joint ie DOESNT arise from the synovium. Close to joint

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37
Q

what are the features of a well differentiated liposarcoma?

A

*>75% fat content
*thickened septa
*small soft tissue nodularity

commonly located in the retroperitoneum

if develops a clear cut separate nodular dominant focus > 1 cm = de-differentiated

if < 20
= Myxoid liposarcoma often shows a classic myxoid background (T2/STIR-bright) with some nodular soft tissue
and adipose tissue components. Don’t confuse for cyst!!!

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38
Q

Young male with nocutrnal pain that improves with aspirin, which bone lesion?

A

Osteoid osteoma

**nidus > 2cm = osteoblastoma **
= Posterior elements

Nb** Osteoblastoma can have have soft tissue expansion/involvement**

Double density bone scan

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39
Q

“Dripping candle wax” is a buzzword for what bone lesion?

A

Melorheostosis

Bone within a bone - ‘Dripping candle wax’
= irregular continous cortical hyperostosis along margins of femur

Fibrosis of overlying skin (dermatomal pattern) - Flexion contractures
Can cross joints

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40
Q

A Shepherd’s Crook Deformity is most typical for what lesion?

A

Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

Fibrous dysplasia =
long, expansile lesion with mixed density ranging from lytic to *ground glass .
‘long lesion in a long bone’.
Typically medullary, with expansion,
Monostotic is most common FD

2 conditions assocated with polyostotic FD
1. McCune- Albright - Cafe-au-lait, precocious puberty

2.Mazarbrauds
+ intramuscular Myxomas in adults

Monostotic is most common FD

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41
Q

Difference between a simple bone cyst and anuerysmal ?

A

ABC
- Eccentric in location
- More pronounced Fluid-fluid levels
- More expansile
- Can be 2o = giant cell tumor, chondroblastoma, and osteoblastoma

SBC
- Centered in medulla
- Classic HUMERUS and long bones
- Fallen fragment sign
- Present with pathological fracture

Nb in small bones, phalanx, metacarapls - appear identical

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42
Q

Chondroblastomas are most common in which age group and in which location?

A

Epiphyseal regions long bone

(or epiphyseal equivalent - Patella, calcaneus, trochanters, tuberosities, tarsal and carpal bones)

Males < 20

Lytic lesion
-eccentric
- arising epiphysis or apophysis.
-skeletally immature patient - +/- internal Ca2+ **
-
Extensive perilesional edema and enhancement in marrow MRI**

Not a child or adolescent
adult clear cell chrondrosarcoma

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43
Q

Non-ossifying fibromas are most common in what age group and in which location?

A

children/adolescences

Distal tibia and femur in a
metadiaphyseal,
*Cortical

well defined,** sclerotic margins** , can also **have internal septations **

If <2-3 cm in size this may be termed a fibrous cortical
defect.

NOF may also heal and become completely sclerotic

DDX
ABC - MRI ‘fluid - fluid’ levels.

GCT
Doesnt typical extent to the epiphysis (like GCT)
GCT non -sclerotic margin
Growth plates closed

chondromyxoid fibroma
- both sclerotic margins and internal septations
-eccentric intramedullary

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44
Q

differential considerations for vertebra plana?

A

Mnemonic is MELT.

Metastasis/Myeloma, Eosinophilic granuloma, Lymphoma, Trauma/Tuberculosis.

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45
Q

What are features of GCT?

A

-Physis closed.
-Non-sclerotic margins
-originated in epiphysis and extends to metaphysis.
-Abuts articular surface
-Eccentric
-‘Soap bubble’

If in spine = sacrum

Fluid-fluid level on MRI

DDx
+Chondroblastoma
- Skeletal immature usually
- originates in epiphysis rather than metaphysis
- chondroid matrx
- Sclerotic margin common + periosteal reaction
-Extensive regional edema

+Chondrosarcoma
+ABC

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46
Q

old lady with sudden medial knee pain after raising from chair?

A

SONK

types of stress fracture of the medial condyle of femur

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47
Q

High risk locations for stress fractures to progress to complete/displaced fractures?

A

Compressive side =less risk
Tensile side = more risk

Tensile side
- femoral neck (lateral)
- transverse patellar fractures
- anterior tibial midshaft fracture

5th metatarsal
talus
navicular
sesamoid great toe fracture

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48
Q

Osteomalacia vs rickets?

A

Rickets = Child: growth plates (physes) wide, frayed, and cupped

Osteomalacia = Adult: Looser zones (late finding), smudgy and ill defined trabeculae

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49
Q

Osteochondrosis?

A

Kohlers = Navicular

Frieberg = 2nd Metatarsal

Severs = Calcanael apophysis

Blount = proximal medial tibial epiphysis = ‘Bow leg’

Perthes = Femoral head (4-8)

Scheuermann disease = Vertebral apophyses. multiple wedged vertebrae and thoracic kyphosis

Preiser = scaphoid

Kienbock = Lunate (20-40, associated with negative ulnar variance)

Panners = Capitellum (5-10, throwers)

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50
Q

Tenosynovitis extensor compartments?

A

RA = 6th (extensor carpi ulnaris)

De Quervans = 1st compartment- (extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus)

Intersection syndrome = 1st and 2nd extensor compartments cross over - extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus with extensor carpi radialis brevis and longus.

multi flexor tendons = RA

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51
Q

Main finger tumors - Glomus, GCT of tendon sheath and fibroma, what are the features?

A

Glomus - T1 dark, ~T2 bright, avid enhancement
extrinsic erosion of underlying phalanx

GCT of tendon sheath - T1 and T2 dark, blooming artifact
**GCT of tendon is form of PVNS **

Fibroma - T1 and T2 dark, no blooming

Subungual exostosis - bony outgrowth with cortical and medullary continuity from the parent bone. Can arise following trauma. Adolescences

52
Q

what accessory muscle can cause cubital tunnel syndrome ?

A

Anconeus epitrochlearis

53
Q

What is type 4 SLAP tear and why is it important ?

A

when extends to the biceps anchor = surgical Mx

54
Q

What happens in quadrilateral space syndrome?

A

compression of the axillary nerve and wasting of the teres minor muscle

55
Q

where does baker cyst occur?

A

Between the semimembranosus and medial head of gastro

56
Q

which fracture most suugestive of ACL injury ?

A

segond #

57
Q

What can cause an acute flat foot deformity?

A

Posterior tibial tendon injury

58
Q

Scar, synovitis in anterolateral recess of ankle?

A

anterolateral impingement syndrome

after inversion injuries/ anterior talofibular ligament

meniscoid mass - low on T1 and T2

59
Q

Tear to the talocalcaneal ligament and inferior extensor retinaculum of the foot.

A

Sinus tarsi syndrome

obliteration of sinus tarsi fat

associated with RA and flat foot/PTT tear

60
Q

Normal marrow conversion ?

A

see image

61
Q

Marrow signal on MRI ?

A

see image

62
Q

Pattern of marrow reconversion?

A

**low T1 signal red marrow **which remains reasonably bright (less signal drop out than yellow marrow) on STIR or other fat saturated sequences.

High T1 signal fatty yellow marrow

The pattern of marrow reconversion is the exact reverse of the initial conversion, so beginning at the ends of the long bones and spreading to the diaphysis.

63
Q

widening interpedicular distance?

A

see image

64
Q

In FAI which type has femoral retroversion and acetabular retroversion?

A

Femoral Retroversion = CAM

Acetabular retroversion = Pincer

65
Q

shoulder positions for US?

A

see image

66
Q

patterns of sacroiliitis

A

Bilateral and symmetrical
- AS
- IBD

Bilateral and asymmetrical
- Gout
- Reiters
- Psoriatic

osteitis condensans - female, bilateral, symmetric, triangle-shaped sclerosis of ilium at sacroiliac joint

Unilateral
- infection
- rarely SAPHO

67
Q

causes of anterior vertebral scalloping?

A

AAA
TB
Lymphadenopathy
Developmental motor delay

68
Q

causes of posterior vertebral scalloping?

A

SATAN

Syringomyelia/Dural ectasia
Acromegaly
Tumours - (ependymoma, lipoma , dermoid, neurofibroma)
Achondroplasia
NF - 1

also

Connective tissue disease - marfans, ehler danlos
Mucopolysacchardoses - hurlers, murquio - VERTEBAL BEAKING

69
Q

Downs syndrome MSK feautres?

A

Atlanta-axial subluxation
metaphyseal flaring
flattening acetabular roof
hypotelorism

70
Q

Commonest skeletal/Spinal abnormality of NF-1?

A

Scoliosis (from plexiform neurofibromas)
–Posterior vertebral scalloping
–Dural ectasia
– Lateral thoracic mengiocele
– Foraminal narrowing, Hypoplastic pedicles and posterior elements (remodelling from mengiocele)
– Intramedullary or extramedullary intradural NF’s

71
Q

features of Haemophilia arthopathy?

A

Dense hemarthrosis

Epiphyseal overgrowth

Erosions & joint space narrowing

**Hypertrophied synovium due to haemosiderin (GRE blooming ++) and low on all signals

Widened intercondylar notch**

Rare pseduotumour =
Large expansile or lytic bubbly lesion with mass effect on adjacent tissues/scalloping on bone

72
Q

What is the features of nail-patella syndrome?

A

Bilateral iliac ‘horns’
absent/hypoplastic patella’s
Broad horizontal acetabulum

73
Q

Features of pagets?

A

Osseous expansion
Thickening of cortex
Coarse trabecular pattern

Skull - osteoporosis circumpripta (lytic phase)

Skull - sclerotic phase - Enlargement of skull: widening of diploic space, involvement of inner and outer tables
‘tom o shanter’ sign

Brown = well defined cortical lesion with no periosteal reaction

Also in lytic phase - blade of grass or flame shaped lucent bone lesion

74
Q

Features of osteopetrosis ?

A

Diffusely dense bones (marble bone)

75
Q

Features of Pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS)?

A

Joint effusion

Low signal T1/T2

**haemorrhagic proliferation of the synovium in a frond-like villonodular fashion **gives rise to the classic low signal ‘feathery’ sea-anenome-like finding

Blooming artefact MRI because of haemosiderin

scalloping of the pre-patellar fat pad and erosions of adjacent bone

DDx
Haemophilia - as blood products in joint too
widening of the intercondylar notch due to pannus formation

76
Q

Features of lipoma Aerborescans

A

kids

chronic inflammation of the synovium leading to extensive fatty infiltration of the synovium

high on T1 and T2 but suppress on fat-saturated sequences.

**Post-contrast the synovium itself will enhance. **
Treatment is by synovectomy.

77
Q

Permeative bone destruction differential?

A

myeloma, lymphoma and ewings, eosinophilic granuloma

78
Q

Features of SAPHO

A

Synovitis: anterior chest wall, unilateral sacroiliitis
Acne: hydradenitis suppurativa, acne conglobata
Pustulosis: palmoplantar pustulosis (50%)
Hyperostosis: enthesopathy, sclerosis
Osteitis: inflammatory changes, pain

Sternoclavicular hyperostosis

Nuclear medicine bone scan, bilateral uptake in the sternoclavicular joints and manubrium is called a** ‘bull’s head’ sign**

Unilateral sacroiliitis may also occur

79
Q

Causes of lytic bone mets?

A

MR LT

Melanoma
Renal
Lung
Thyroid

80
Q

Causes of sclerotic mets?

A

Prostate (most common)
Breast (mixed lytic and sclerotic)

Transitional Cell Carcinoma
Lymphoma
Mucinous adenocarcinomas (colon, gastric, ovary)
Medulloblastoma
Neuroblastoma
Carcinoid

81
Q

Absent thumb, Hypoplastic radius, VSD?

A

Holt-Oram syndrome

82
Q

Features of DISH?

A

ossification of patellar ligament

spur formation in the appendicular skeleton (olecranon, calcaneum, patellar ligament) frequently present

enthesopathy of the iliac crest, ischial tuberosities, and greater trochanters
whiskering of iliac crest

flowing ossification of at least 4 vertebral bodies with normal disk spaces and sacroiliac joints

83
Q

PONGS diseases with normal mineralisation?

A

Psoriartic arthritis
Osteomyelitis
Neuropathic
Gout
Sarcoidosis

84
Q

Sudden osteoporosis and loss of subchondral cortex, preserved joint space?

A

Transient osteoporosis

Joint effusion
increase uptake on bone scan

85
Q

Features of gauchers?

A

Erlenmeyer flask - Metaphyseal flaring
H shaped vertebrae

Osteonecrosis/AVN- femoral and humeral heads
-serpiginous sclerotic areas or a bone-within-bone appearance

Hepatosplenomegaly is common and co-existent with thrombocytopaenia and anaemia secondary to bone marrow failure

diffuse marrow replacement with low signal T1

100 times more common in Ashkenazi Jews

DDX sickle cell
- no splenomegaly, rather small calcifoed spleen
- Hx acute bone crisis
- posterior mediastinal mass (extramedullary haematopoiesis)

86
Q

MSK Features of Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Synovitis/soft tissue swelling

Periarticular oestopenia

**Marginal erosions **

Uniform joint space narrowing
Deformity late stage
**No bone proliferation **

Proximal distribution in hands
-MCP, and PIPJ- typically first
- Carpals, Radiocarpal,

Hip
-concentric loss of joint space, osteoarthritis (OA) = superior loss of joint space
-acetabular protrusion

Shoudler girdle
-erosion of the distal clavicle
-marginal erosions of the humeral head: the superolateral aspect
-“high-riding shoulder” = subacromial-subdeltoid bursitis
- high incidence of rotator cuff tear

Spine
-erosion of the dens
- atlantoaxial subluxation
- atlantoaxial impaction (cranial settling): cephalad migration of C2
- erosion and fusion of uncovertebral (apophyseal joints) and facet joints

DDx
Amyloid arthropathy can be similar distribution and pattern of erosions.
However amyloid classically preserves joint space, unusual for periarticular osteopenia and LARGE and excessive subchondral cyst formation

87
Q

Extra-articular manifestations of RA

A

Respiratory
-Caplan’s - + Pneumoconiosis (upper lobes)
- RA ILD (lower lobes) can be UIP or NSIP pattern
- Pleural effusions
- Pulmonary nodules (can cavitate (necrobiotic lung nodules)

Cardiology
- Pericarditis
- Premature coronary artery disease

Hematological
- Anemia of chronic disease
-Felty syndrome: syndrome characterized by the triad of rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, and neutropenia

Cutaneous involvement
Rheumatoid nodules: usually seen in pressure areas (e.g. elbows, occiput, lumbosacral)

88
Q

Features of Psoriatic arthritis?

A

**Distal - Favours DIPJ and IPJ>MCP **

**Mixed - Erosive changes and bone proliferation **
Sausage digit (dactylitis)
Pencil in cup

No osteoporosis - NORMAL bone density

Outside hands-
-Ivory phalanx
-Altanoaxial subluxation
-Spondyloarthropathy -
Bulky paravertebral ossification, asymmetric with skips
Sacroiliitis: bilateral but asymmetric

DDx
Reiters
- Same appearance of bilateral but asymmetric sacroiliitis
- Same bulky paravertebral ossification

89
Q

Feautres of Ankylosing spodylitis ?

A

Thin vertical syndesmophytes with concomitant bilateral sacroiliitis
‘Bamboo spine’
‘Shiny corners’

Joints widen first before narrows

Enthesopathy - calcified tendon insertion sites

‘Dagger sign’ - spinous process fusion

Early features are far more subtle and require a higher index of suspicion, which include,
MRI-
-Enthesopathy - high signal on MRI at tendon insertion sites
-Romanus lesions - triangular shaped oedema at the corners of vertebral bodies
-Andersson lesions - bony oedema in the vertebral bodies adjacent to the disks.
-Oedema in the sacroiliac joints.

Sequences = T1 fat sat and STIR, coronal SIJs and sagittal spine

T1 fat sat - useful for visualisation of bony erosions and new bone formation

T1 fat sat post contrast - useful for detecting bone marrow abnormalities (but so is STIR, so contrast is not an absolute requirement for imaging ankylosing spondylitis).

STIR - useful for detecting bone marrow abnormalities in the SIJs and spine

T2 fat sat - useful for detecting oedema

Extra-articular
-Upper lobe predominant ILD, fibrobullous disease
-aortic root dilatation, aortic regurgitation, pericarditis

DDx
- IBD associated arthritis -
- Axial - Identical appearance of sacroiliitis and spondylitis to AS
- IBD enthesopathy often calcaenus

90
Q

Features of CPPD?

A

Overlaps with OA but atypical Joints
-Patellofemoral and not medial/lateral compartment

Wrist: radiocarpal joint
Hand: MCP joints, particularly 2nd and 3rd

Chondrocalcinosis (not invariably present)

Hook osteophytes of metacarpal heads
Subchondral cysts common, may be large

Scapholunate advanced collapse wrist SLAC*- Degenerate SL ligament

Disorders assoicated with CPPD - 4 Hs
- hypothyroidism
- haemochromatosis
- hyperparathyroidism
- hypomagneseia

DDx
Haemochromatosis
-Younger males, similar distribution to CPPD
- Both ‘hooked’ oestophytes - of the radial aspect of the 2nd and 3rd MCP

91
Q

Features of Gout?

A

Typically men >40

Spares joint space (until late)

Juxta-articular erosions (punched out) with Overhanging edges

Soft tissue tophi

92
Q

Features of Hyperparathyroidism ?

A

**‘Subperiosteal bone resorption’ radial 2nd and 3rd fingers **

**Terminal tuft erosions/resportion = Acro osteolysis
**
Brown tumour: expansile, nonaggressive lytic lesion with geographic Non sclerotic margins

Superior and inferior rib notching

Rugger jersey spine/osteosclerosis is associated with secondary hyperparathyroidism

chondrocalcinosis and CPPD

1° hyperparathyroidism (HPTH): parathyroid adenoma (75-85%)
2° HPTH: chronic kidney disease most common

Nb Renal osetodystrophy is 2° HPTH and oestomalacia

93
Q

Types of vertebral oestophytes?

A

AS = flowing syndesmophytes

DISH = diffuse paraverterbal ossifcations of ALL > 4 levels (spares the disc space)

Focal, bulky, lateral = Psoraitic arthritis (or reiters)

94
Q

Features of JIA?

A

Before 16
Proximal

Premature closure of the physis
large effusions
erosions
Cartilage destruction & joint space narrowing (JSN)
End-stage ankylosis
Carpus most frequent site of fusion

Widened intercondylar notch
DDx
Haemophilia
TB
Psoriatic arthropathy

95
Q

Feautres of SLE arthopathy?

A

Nonerosive, reducible deformity of digits

Osteoporosis, high rate of osteonecrosis (ON)

DDx
Jacouds
- similar apperance but Post rheumatic fever

96
Q

DDx for Ivory vertebrae

A

see picture

97
Q

DDx Atlanto-axial subluxation?

A

see picture

98
Q

Upper and lower limb myotomes

A

see picture

99
Q

upper and lower limb dermatomes ?

A
100
Q

Disc buldges

A

see picture

101
Q

Osteoporotic vs metastatic vertebral body fracture

A

see picture

102
Q

TB vs Staph discitis?

A

see picture

103
Q

Dashboard injury?

A

see picture

104
Q

Hyperextension injury to the knee?

A

see picture

anterior aspect of the tibial plateau and femoral condyles

105
Q

Pivot shift injury?

A

see pic

106
Q

Clip injury

A

see picture

107
Q

Patellar dislocation injury pattern?

A

see pic

108
Q

Head injury NICE

A

see picture

109
Q

DDx for Erlenmeyer flask deformity?

A

see picture

110
Q

Bone lesions <30 and >30

A

see picture

111
Q

Osteopoikilosis, osteopathia striata, pyknodysostosis?

A

Osteopoikilosis
Metaphyseal or epiphyseal foci of dense lamellar bone that resemble bone islands

**Pyknodysostosis **
Severe sclerosis involving entire skeleton but medullary space is preserved
- short stature
- small mandibular size and beaking of the nose
-Wormian bones
-acro-osteolysis with sclerosis (-acro-osteolysis with sclerosis)

osteopathia striata
Striated intramedullary densities, often metaphyseal
‘stalks of celery’

112
Q

Osteomyelitis features on MRI ?

A

High T2 and low T1 bone marrow changes

presence of an ulcer with adjacent inflammatory changes

Fluid collections

113
Q

contents of popliteal fossa and borders ?

A

Medial to lateral

Popliteal artery
Popliteal vein
Tibial nerve
Common peroneal nerve

Superomedial border: semimembranosus
Superolateral border: biceps femoris
Inferomedial border: medial head of gastrocnemius
Inferolateral border: lateral head of gastrocnemius and plantaris

114
Q

differential diagnosis for periosteal reactions in the presence of an arthropathy?

A

Psoriatic arthropathy
Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
Reiter syndrome
Infective arthropathy

115
Q

Describe the menisci?

A

Both menisci are C shaped and are attached at both ends to the intercondylar area of the tibia.

The medial meniscus is also fixed to the medial collateral ligament and the joint capsule. As a consequence of this injuries to the medial collateral ligament are often accompanied by a tear of the medial meniscus.

The lateral meniscus is smaller and does not have any extra attachments, rendering it fairly mobile.

116
Q

Myositis ossifcans calcifcation pattern?

A

It begins as amorphous calcification and then develops a sharper cortical margin after approximately 2 months.

Periosteal reaction may or may not be present but crucially there is no erosion of the underlying cortex, a fact which discriminates it from malignant fibrous histiocytoma.

string sign
Unlike a parosteal osteosarcoma, this plane will extend along the whole length of the mass completely separating it from the bone.
Parosteal osteosarcoma may have scalloping

117
Q

Contents of the lumbar plexus?

A

‘I (twice) Get Lucky On Fridays’:

Iliohypogastric nerve
Ilioinguinal nerve
Genitofemoral nerve
Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
Obturator nerve
Femoral nerve

118
Q

biconcave vertebrae?

A

see picture

119
Q

Features of acromegaly?

A

Enlargement of the paranasal sinuses – 75%
Posterior vertebral scalloping – 30%

Widening of the terminal tufts
Heel pad thickness >25mm
Premature osteoarthritis
Enlargement and erosion of the sella
Hyperostosis of the inner table of the skull

120
Q

Normal prevertebral soft tissues in cervical spine xray?

A

<7mm at C2
<5mm at C3+4
<22mm at C6 (14mm in children)

Note in children, normal variables on cervical xray

-pseudo–Jefferson fracture = 6 mm of displacement of the lateral masses relative to the dens
-C2–3 space and, to a lesser extent, the C3–4 space have a normal physiologic displacement
-abscence of lordosis

121
Q

problem with the development of the ulnar side of the distal end of the radius. The distal radioulnar joint subluxes and the ulna displaces dorsally. proximal carpus is V-shaped

A

Madelung deformity

growth failure of the distal radius, by comparison the ulna appears lengthened (Positive ulnar variance).

appearance is of a V-shape to the radioulnarcarpal joint with angles of <120 considered characteristic.

Mnemonic = DIGIT

D = Dysplastic - Ollier disease, osteochondromatosis, achondroplasia, mucopolysaccharidoses, diaphyseal aclasis
I = Idiopathic
G = Genetic - Autosomal dominant.

50% of patients have bilateral deformities.
Most common association is Turner syndrome

I = Infection
T = Post-Traumatic

122
Q

Features of multiple myeloma

A

1) Plasmacytoma - solitary lytic lesion - spine, pelvis , skull

2) Myelomatosis - Diffuse skeletal involvement - oestolytic lesions with discrete margins

3) Diffuse skeleteal oestopenia - no lytic , predominantly in the spine (this type can have multiple compression fractures)

4) Scelorsng myeloma - with sclerotic bony lesions , associated with POEMS syndrome

Myeloma has poor uptake on bone isotope scans

123
Q

Features of hypertrophic osteoarthopathy

A

Periosteal reaction, usually along shafts of tubular bones in extremities
Generally symmetrical

Location
Tibia, fibula, radius, ulna are most frequent
Less common in phalanges

3-phase bone scan
Typically linear symmetric ↑ uptake along margins of long bones: parallel track sign, tram line sign, or double stripe sign

124
Q

types of osteogensis imperfecta?

A

Almost alwas type 1 or 4

Type 1 most common
- Blue sclera
- normal stature
- Hearing impairment

Type 4
-small stature
-usually normal hearing

125
Q

Calcaneonavicular vs talocalcaneal coalitions

A

see picture

126
Q

MRI grading of stress fracture

A

Grade 1 – Periosteal oedema on STIR, no marrow change
Grade 2 – Periosteal oedema on STIR + marrow change on T2-weighted only
Grade 3 – Periosteal oedema on STIR plus marrow changes on T2-weighted and T1-weighted
Grade 4 – Visible fracture line