GU/Gynae/Adrenal Flashcards
Features of RCC?
Heterogenous mass +/- cystic or necrotic components
Sometimes Ca2+ or Fat mass
Enhancing (>15HU)
Vascular invasion
RF - VHL, smoker, dialysis > 3yrs
Type
1. Clear cell (most common)
-Aggressive, VHL. Enhances equal to the cortex in corticomedullary phase
- T2 hyperintense
- Papillary
- Less vascular and not equal to cortex enhancement in CM phase.
- Strongly associated with dialysis patients
T2 DARK - Medullary
- Sickle cell trait. Young, very aggressive - Chromophobe - associated with Birt- hogg disease
Features of renal oncocytoma?
Benign solid
Can’t reliable differentiate from RCC
2nd most common benign lesion after AML (AML never Have Ca2+ )
Echogenic stellate central scar
Hypodense and non-enhancing on CT
PET - Hotter than surrounding parenchyma, RCC colder
Bilateral = Birt hogg Dube
Also **chromophobe RCC
Renal lymphoma?
Can mimic anything as multiple different appearances
Commonly
- Bilateral
- Enlarged kidney
- Low density cortical based solid masses/nodules
NB - restricts diffusion on MRI
NHL is commonest cause
Bialteral enlarged kidney DDX
- Amyloid - increased echogenicity
- nephrotic syndrome. either primary or secondary and Hodgkin lymphoma
- HIV - increased echogenicity The sinus fat, however, becomes oedematous and therefore hypoechoic.
Features of Multilocular cystic nephroma
More common in paeds setting
Large, multilocular, cystic renal mass, typically 10cm
Thick fibrous capsule
NO solid components
protrudes into the renal pelvis
Michael jackson lesion - likes 4-year-old boys and 40-year-old women.
T2 dark renal lesions/massess?
Papillary RCC
Haemorrhagic cyst
Lipid poor AML
Bosniak classification for cystic lesions?
1 = Simple cyst. No septations or calcifications. Walls smooth and thin. < HU 20 on PV phase
2 = Hyperdense <3cm. smooth, thin walls and septations. Thin calcifications
2F = Hyperdense > 3cm.EHANCING thin walls or septations. +/- Nodular Ca. <5% chance Cancer
6 monthly review and then yearly for 5 years*
3 =**Thick **(> 4 mm) wall or septation. Mural nodule enhancement. Caorse calcification. 50% chance Cancer
4 = Large cystic/necrotic area. solid enhancing structures > 15HU. 100% Cancer
Hyperdense cyst
- HU > 70 and homogenous its benign 99.9%
Which has liver fibrosis - ARPKD or ADPKD
ARPKD
Presents in infants
Perinatal : More severe renal disease with pulmonary hypoplasia
Juvenile: Less renal disease, more hepatic issues. Portal hypertension & fibrosis develop in 50%.
Severity of the Liver fibrosis is inverse to renal disease
US - Smoothly enlarged kidneys and diffusely echogneic with loss of CM differentiation
Multiple innumerable tiny cysts. kidneys are normal to small in volume?
Lithium nephropathy
Enhancement curves?
Renal trauma AAST scale?
1 - subscapular haematoma no laceration
2 - **<1cm renal laceration **not involving the collecting system.
Retroperitoneal haematoma
3- > 1cm renal laceration, not involving the collecting system
4 - Laceration with pelvic involvement, segmental infacrt
5- Avascular kidney
Common features of ectopic pregnancy?
Usually, isthmus portion of the fallopian tube
US signs -
Tubal ring sign - echogenic ring around the ectopic (95%)
Complex adnexal cystic mass (95%)
Free fluid + empty uterus (+B-hcg) (70%)
Pseudogestational sac (20%)
Simple adnexal cyst (10%)
which layer of fascia/fat prevent the extension of perinephric abscess pus?
Perirenal/Renal fascia
This encloses the kidney and sends bundles of collagen through the fat, which assist in holding the kidney in position. It ascends to envelop the adrenal glands superiorly
Gerota fascia (anterior perirenal fascia)
Zuckerkandl fascia (posterior perirenal fascia)
Perirenal fat + perirenal fascia = Perirenal space
Anterior to the perirenal space = anterior pararenal space
- contains the pancreas, ascending and descending colon, duodenum
Posterior to perirenal space= posterior pararenal space
Thickening of the perninephric septa = ‘Hairy Kidney’ = Erdheim-chest disease
Risks of V/Q and CTPA to mother and foetus ?
V/Q
-Small increase in the absolute risk of the foetus developing a childhood cancer
-The absolute risk of maternal breast cancer is reduced compared to a CTPA.
- Many institutes choose to perform perfusion scanning only, which lowers the dose to foetus
CTPA
- Confers a lower dose to the foetus than V/Q. Although the effect is diminished in the third trimester as the gravid uterus becomes closer to the FOV
-CTPA confers a far greater dose to the breast tissue (more radiosensitive)
- iodinated contrast crosses the placenta and is excreted by the foetal kidneys. Babies need TFTs first week of life!!
Which sequence is best to assess mucle involvement in bladder Cancer?
T2
Detrusor muscle returns low signal but the continuity of this layer will be disrupted if there is invasion.
T1
useful for evaluating lymph node involvement and any bony metastases
STIR
extent of extravesical extension into the perivesical fat
Post-contrast images are of limited use in bladder cancer imaging but can be used to differentiation of tumour (enhances earlier) from inflammatory post-biopsy changes
Features of adrenal myelolipoma?
Bening tumour contain bulk fat
CA2+ (1/4)
Big, if >4cm
Can bleed, cause retroperitoneal haemorrhage
Associated but do not cause endocrine disorders - Cushings, conns)
Nb -
Signal suppression with fat saturation (STIR) and persistent signal on out-of-phase imaging indicate MACROSCOPIC fat, rather than the intracellular lipid characteristic of adrenal adenomas.
Features of prostate Cancer?
T2 low (background is high) - highest grade of suspicion for transitional zone lesions
**Restricts on diffusion (focal high b-value and corresponding low ADC signal) - best for peripheral zone **
Enhances - early and washes out. Type 3 curve
Stage B - confined by capsule, abutment of capsule but not bulging
Stage C - Extension through the capsule, bulging or frank extension through it
PSA density > 0.1
TZ cancer vs BPH?
Transition zone cancers on T2WI:
-lenticular nodules NO capsule.
-infiltrative borders
-homogeneous decreased signal
-generally anterior location
BPH
-Nodules: Round/oval; usually with capsule
-Most nodules will be internally heterogeneous, containing both increased and decreased signal on T2
- Nb can restrict diffusion and enhance with washout
Differentiate prostatic Utricle cyst vs Mullerian duct cyst?
Both midline cysts. Hard to differentiate
müllerian duct cyst
-large size and extension above the prostate
- ‘teardrop’ shape
Prostatic utricle cyst
-Typically small and at the base of the prostate
- ‘Pear shaped’
- communicates with the prostatic urethra
- Associated with hypospadias
Features of seminal vesical cyst?
Unilateral, lateral (paramedian)
Congenital or acquired
If congenital associated with
- Renal agenesis
- Vas defs agenesis
- Ectopic ureteric insertion
- Polycystic kidney disease
Acquired
- Hx prior prostatic surgery
Nb Zinner syndrome
Infertility + ipsilateral SV cyst and renal agenesis
Avascular, Well defined, round encepasulated with concentric hypoechoic and hyperechoic rings in the testicle?
Epidermoid cyst
‘Onion skin’ sign
Variably sized network of dilated tubules near mediastinum testis with no flow on color Doppler?
Tubular Ectasia of Rete Testis
DDx
-Mixed germ cell tumors/teratomas will often have cystic areas
- Does not form network of tubules
-Surrounding parenchyma is abnormal
- Will have abnormal flow on colour Doppler
Difference between spermatocele and epidydmal cyst?
Spermatocele
-multiseptated; may contain diffuse internal low-level echoes due to spermatozoa
- can be big
Epidydimal cyst
- simple and smaller
What lymphatics do testicular cancer spread to intially?
Para-aortic/retroperitoneal nodes at renal hilum.
Nb if nodes in pelvis/external iliacs are inguinal this is considered ‘non regional’ = M1 disease
What are the main types of testcular cancers?
Germ cell tumours
- Seminoma
- Non-seminomatous germ cell
Seminomas:
-Typically no cystic areas or calcification (rarely microcalcifcation)
-Best prognosis. Radiosensitive - melts with radiation.
- Age at diagnosis 40s
- US homogenously hypoechoic rounded mass
- MRI Homogenously T2 dark
Nonseminomatous:
- Heterogenous - Variable cystic elements, macrocalcifications, necrosis/hemorrhage
-Nb most are MIXED GERM cell. not pure cell type
- Teratoma or Yolk sac - 10
- Choriocarcinoma - 20s and 30s (most aggressive) as its mets haematogenously.
- Embryonal cell - 30s
Multiple hypoechoic masses in both testes with increased Vascualrity?
Testicular lymphoma
Older man with Focal macrocalcification &/or hypoechoic, scar-like area of the testicle on US. Nodal disease in retroperitoneum
Burnt out Germ cell testicular tumour
Azzopardi tumour - burnt out germ cell that is very small hypoechoic
What testicular tumour is most commonly associated with gynecomastia?
Leydig Sertoli leydig
There tumours are seen with peutz jeghers
Apart of carneys COMPLEX
which testicular tumours are associated with elevated HCG and AFP?
HCG
- Seminoma
- Choriocarcinoma
AFP
- Mixed germ cell
- Yolk sac
Testicular tumours by age?
10s = Yolk sac tumour or teratoma
20s + 30s = Choriocarcinoma
30s = Embryonal cell carcinoma
40s = Seminoma
Short segment stricture at the bulbous urethra?
Traumatic/straddle injury
Long and irregular stricture and the bulbous urethra?
Gonococcal
Difference between emphysematous pyelonephritis and emphysematous pyelitis?
emphysematous pyelonephritis
- Life threatening
- Gas within or surrounding the kidney
- Diabetics
emphysematous pyelitis
- less threatening, gas within the collecting system
Features of XGP?
Staghorn calculus
Enlarged, often nonfunctioning kidney (chronic presentation)
Multiple low-attenuation masses throughout kidney
‘Bears paw’
DDx
Pyonephrosis - Purulent material within collecting system; usually no staghorn calculus
Rounded or triangular calyceal filling defect and blunted/rounded calyces?
Papillary necrosis
-medullary (round or oval cavity, calyceal blunting)
-papillary (triangular cavity, ‘lobster claw’ appearance)
-sloughed papilla ‘signet ring’ appearance
-Contrast fills curvilinear cavities at papilla periphery = Claw sign
-Contrast fills central cavities surrounded by intact papilla = Ball-on-tee sign
Commonest cause is diabetes and 50% sickle cell patients develop