MSA 2014 Flashcards

1
Q

A

A

maxillary nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

B

A

pterygopalatine fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

C

A

posterior superior alveolar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

D

A

pterygoid hamulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

E

A

nasal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

F

A

infraorbital nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

G

A

anterior superior alveolar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

H

A

anterior nasal spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

through which foramen does the maxillary nerve exit the cranial cavity

A

foramen rotundum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which parasympathetic ganglion has its sensory root derived from the maxillary nerve

A

pterygopalatine ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which radiograph for partially erupted 48 when there is no evidence of 38 in the mouth

A

right side OPT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

5 periodontal pathways of communication between the pulp space and the PDL

A
  • apical foramen
  • accessory canals
  • fractures
  • dentine tubules
  • perforations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

deep suppurating pocket related to upper molar

no pocket elsewhere in the mouth and tooth non-vital

most likely Dx and Tx

A

endodontic lesion with periodontal involvement

RCT and sub-gingival scaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

4yo new pt C/O severe pain and sleep loss

E/O bruising on the right cheek and small abrasion right temple

concerned because

A

potential victim of child abuse and neglect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

4yo new pt C/O severe pain and sleep loss

E/O bruising on the right cheek and small abrasion right temple

lead to child abuse and neglect because (2)

A

delay in seeking help

multiple injuries in abnormal places (temple)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

4yo new pt C/O severe pain and sleep loss

E/O bruising on the right cheek and small abrasion right temple

Qs to ask to further investigate child abuse/neglect concerns

A

how and when did this happen?

why did you not come sooner?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

3 outcomes after phoning for advice on potential child abuse case

A
  • nothing
  • investigated by social services and family support
  • child taken into care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

4yo new pt C/O severe pain and sleep loss

E/O bruising on the right cheek and small abrasion right temple

treat painful tooth, but several other carious teeth requiring attention - but parent fails to bring the child back for next appointment - what should you do?

A

duty to share concern - speak to health visitor

local child safe guarding team should be contacted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what type of study would provide the highest level of evidence for the effectiveness of tx

A

meta analysis of systematic reviews and RCTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

4 main features of RCT

A

comparison control

inclusion and exclusion criteria

blinding

randomisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how will the actual extent of caries present clinically compared to radiograph

A

clincial presentation is normally worse - deeper and more extensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

4 stages of sequence of operative procedures to render tooth caries free (after LA and dam placement)

A
  1. access caries through enamel and dentine at marginal ridge
  2. determine spread of caries at ADJ
  3. remove peripheraly caries working inwards
  4. smooth margins and remove unsupported enamel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

3 adv composite over amalgam

A

bonds to tooth directly

aesthetically more pleasing

minimal cavity prep (no need for undercuts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

special needs child presents with carious 6s - unable to coperate for bitewings, considering extraction of 6s and possible GA

what special invesitgatin would be appropraite

A

OPT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how is the fitting surface of a porcelain veneer tx in the lab to improve adhesion

A

hydrofluoric acid on porcelain surface to make rough and retentive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

if using a composite resin cement what material would ensure a good bond to the porcelain cement

A

silane coupling agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how does silane coupling agent work chemically

A

C=C bonds for the composite

oxides react covalently with the porcelain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

where else is silane coupling agent used in dentistry (except with composite resin cement bonding to porcelain cement)

A

composite restorations to etch the cavity prep to allow an affective bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

when would you use a dual curing composite resin material to cement a veneer

A

if the veneer is thick

(light cure is acceptable for thin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

aims of retracting flap

A

to protect soft tissues

increase field of view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

factors influenceing design of flap

A
  • presence of local vessels and nerves
  • how aesthetic it will look when flap replaced and whether good healing will be achieved
  • access/visualisation and the ability to suture it back up
  • type of procedure being carried out
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

insturment to remove bone

A

straight handpience

saline cooled with a round tungsten carbide bur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how to debride prior to suture

A

phsyiological - bone file or handpiece to remove sharp bony edges

irrigation - sterile saline into socket under flap

suction - aspirate under flap to remove debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

pt suspected to have bleeding disorder

3 Blood tests needed to investigate

A

aPTT (activated partial thromboblastic time)

FBC
prothrombin time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

eg inherited coagulation disorder

A

haemophila A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

e.g. disorder of platelet numbers

A

thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what LA technique used for pt with bleeding disorder and extract 47

A

infiltraion with articaine 4% 1:100,000 adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

clotting factors affected by warfarin (4)

A

2, 7, 9 and 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

max INR tolerated for extractions (warfarin pt)

A

4

SDCEP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what LA technique used for pt on warfarin for extraction 47

A

IDB if INR is less than 4

41
Q

2 ways clinical waste is made safe before landfill

A

incineration

segregation

42
Q

2 sources of amalgam

A

amalgam containing teeth

excess amalgam from clinical procedure

43
Q

what licence regarding disposal of amalgam and how long to keep

A

consignment note

kept for 3 years

44
Q

2 safety features of amalgam container

A

mercury vapour suppressant lid

spill/leak proof lid

45
Q

before prescribing F mouth rinse what you check before prescribing?

paeds

A

can the child demonstrate spitting and are they over the age of 7

46
Q

daily strength of F mouth rinse

A

225ppm

47
Q

how to decide between conventional Vs Post and core

A

is there enough structure (ferrule) to maintain a conventional crown or would a post and core function better

48
Q

fuction of post

A

to retain the core

49
Q

materials for core and post

A

post: cast metal (gold), fibre, ceramic

Core: amalgam, composite

e.g.

fibre post and composite core

50
Q

5 ways to determine post length

A

minimum 1:1 length of crown

below the alveolar crest

2/3 the length of the root

4-5mm GP left apically

at least half the post in the root

51
Q

post too wide - probelms

A

can cause root fracture

52
Q

post too narrow problems

A

poor retention of the core and post is more likely to fracture

53
Q

4 general health effects of smoking

A

increased risk of lung cancer

COPD

hypertension

staining of skin around fingers

54
Q

6 oral health effects of smoking

A

dry mouth

oral cancer

halitosis

pale keratinised gingivae

staining of teeth

periodontitis

55
Q

3 recent health promotion approaches in Scotland to reduce smoking

A

hidden storage of cigarettes in shops

harmful effects advertised on cigarette packaging

cigarettes sales changed from age 16 to 18

56
Q

2 expamples of smoking cessation approaches in dental practice

A

3As - Ask, Advise, Act

5As - Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange

57
Q

incisor crown prep

labial margin design and redcution

A

1.3mm shoulder

58
Q

incisor crown prep

labial benefits of margin design (1.3mm shoulder)

A

lets you incorporate both porcelain (0.9mm) and metal (0.4mm)

59
Q

incisor crown prep

palatal margin design and reduction

A

0.5mm chamfer

60
Q

incisor crown prep

palatal margin design benefits (0.5mm chamfer)

A

only metal required for this region as not seen and not in aesthetic zone so minimal prep is sufficient

61
Q

4 properties of impression material for suitable crown prep

A
  • low viscosity
  • low viscoelasticty
  • high tear resistance
  • low thermal expansion
62
Q

xerostomia

A

dry mouth

63
Q

xerostomia exacerbates which 4 oral health problems

A

caries

candida

periodontitis

sialadenitis

64
Q

4 drugs that can cause xerostomia

A
  • benzodiazepines - diazepam
  • anti-diuretics - vasopressin, desmopressin, oxytocin
  • anti-depressants - fluoxetine, citalopram
  • anticholinergics - atropine
65
Q

2 non drug related causes of xerostomia

A

sjorgen’s syndrome

diabetes

radiotherapy

66
Q

ARAB definition ortho

A

active component

retention

anchorage

base plate

67
Q

active component

A

components which apply force

68
Q

retention

A

resistance to displacement forces - gravity, tongue, speech, mastication and active forces

69
Q

5 possible displacement forces for ortho appliance

A

gravity

tongue

speech

mastication

active components

70
Q

posterior cross bite -what component corrects

A

mid palatal screw

71
Q

methods of retention for posterior cross bite URA and wire gauge (some permanent, some primary)

A

adams clasps

  1. 7mm HSSW (permanent)
  2. 6mm HSSW (primary)
72
Q

anchorage for posterior cross bite URA

A

reciprocal from baseplate

73
Q

how do you modify the base plate for posterior cross bite URA?

A

appliance cut in half and add flat posterior bite plane

74
Q

function of flat posterior bite plane

A

takes the teeth out of occlusion allows the teeth to move

x-bites

75
Q

what could be added to URA to stop thumb sucking?

A

rake or crib

76
Q

full denture

custom tray 3mm spaced

what impression material and why?

A

alginate because it is mucostatic and will take a accurate record of the tissues without displacement

77
Q

full denture

custom tray 3mm spaced

why not silicone for IM

A

because it is mucocompressive and is likely to tear

also not effective if undercuts present

78
Q

2 areas of primary support on maxillar arch for full denture

A

residual ridge

hard palate

79
Q

3 areas of primary support on mandible for full denture

A

residual ridge

retromolar pad

buccal shelf

80
Q

what muscle lies on floor of mouth

A

mylohyoid muscle

81
Q

what part of mandible might interfere with maxillary impression within tuberosity regions during lateral excursions while taking a functional impression

A

coronoid process

82
Q

submandibular duct

length

A

5-6cm

83
Q

submandibular duct

arises

A

submandibular gland

84
Q

submandibular duct

opens

A

sublingual caruncle

85
Q

submandibular duct

what crosses on inferior side

A

lingual and hypoglossal nerves

86
Q

chlorohexidine

group it belongs to

A

bisbiguanide

87
Q

chlorohexidine

mode of actions

A

dicationic - 1 cation attaches to the dental pellicle and the other attaches to the bacterial membrane

in a low concentration it increases the permeability of the membrane

in high concentration it causes precipitation of the cytoplasm and cell dealth

88
Q

chlorohexide

action in low concentration

A

in a low concentration it increases the permeability of the membrane

89
Q

chlorohexidine action in high concentration

A

causes precipitation of the cytoplasma and cell death

90
Q

chlorohexidine

substantivity

A

persistence of action

91
Q

chlorohexidine

3 factrs affecting substantivity

A

adsorption to oral surfaces

maintenance of antimicrobial activity

slow neutralisation of antimicrobial activity

92
Q

volume, concentration and frequency of chlorohexidine (CHX)

A
  1. 2 x 10ml = 20mg 2x a day
  2. 12 x 15ml = 18mg 2x a day
93
Q

4 indications for chlorohexidine

A
  • post oral or periodontal surgery
  • physically or mentally impaired
  • immunocompromised pt
  • short term use for specific problem

adjunt to oral hygiene

94
Q

nursing home infected with food poisoning

3 factors increasing this risk

A
  • no hand hygiene or use of gloves prior to food preparation
  • meat storage mixed with other food stuffs when it should be kept separate on the bottom shelf
  • food and medication stored in same place
95
Q

6 key links in chain of infection

A

infectious agent

reservoir

mode of exit

mode of transmission

mode of entry

susceptible host

96
Q

3 examples of advice to give carers when performing OH on elderly to stop cross infection

A

label toothbrushes

perform hand hygiene between pts

wear appropriate PPE (gloves, apron) and change between pts

97
Q

ED# during rugby

what tx

A
  • account for fragment
  • either bond fragment to tooth or place composite bandage
  • 2 periapical radiographs to rule out root fracture or luxation
  • radiograph any lacerations to rule out embedded fragment
  • sensibility testing and evaluate tooth maturity
  • definitive restoration
  • follow up 6-8 weeks and 1 year
98
Q

4 non radiographic signs and symptoms to monitor over time of ED#

A

colour

tenderness to percussion

percussion notes

sensibility testing

99
Q

4 radiographic signs tooth is non-vital

A

external inflammatory resorption

periapical pathology

ankylosis

internal resorption