MRCP Deck 2 May 2023 Flashcards
A 24M frequently engages in unprotected sex with multiple partners. He had a mildly raised Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test at 1:8. He did however have a negative EIA and TPPA test. You suspect it could be a false positive test result. Which of the following would be useful at determining a cause?
A) HIV test
B) RF
C) Electrophoresis
D) Varicella serology
E) Mycoplasma serology
The VDRL test is very sensitive for syphilis infections and titres can be used to track treatment and progression. It is, however, prone to many false positives (a positive VDRL in the absence of a positive EIA/TPPA). False positives are usually due to a reaction of antibodies to the cardiolipin-lecithin-cholesterol reagent in the RPR/VDRL tests. SLE, HIV, antiphospholipid syndrome and TB infection are classic causes of this.
False positive VDRL/RPR: ‘SomeTimes Mistakes Happen’ (SLE, TB, malaria, HIV)
Example of test results:
-Positive non-treponemal test + positive treponemal test = active syphilis infection
-Positive non-treponemal test + negative treponemal test = consistent with a false-positive syphilis result
-Negative non-treponemal test + positive treponemal test = successfully treated syphilis
A 19M undergoes primary immunisation against hepatitis B. Following the full course of vaccines, his post immunisation bloods show Anti-HBs< 10 mIU/ml. What is the most appropriate course of action?
A) Give one further dose of Hep B
B) HIV test
C) Test for current or past Hep B infection and repeat full course
D) Give 2 further doses of Hep B vaccine
E) Give a course of HBIg and one further dose of Hep B vaccine
An antibody level below 10mIU/ml is classified as a non-response to vaccine, and testing for markers of current or past infection is good clinical practice. In non-responders, a repeat course of vaccine is recommended, followed by retesting one to two months after the second course. Those who still have anti-HBs levels below 10mIU/ml, and who have no markers of current or past infection, will require HBIG for protection if exposed to the virus.
A 55M with a history of IHD presents with palpitations for the past 10 days. He has a pulse of 130 bpm which is irregularly irregular. He has had one previous episode of atrial fibrillation 3 months ago which was terminated by elective cardioversion following warfarinisation. What term best describes his arrhythmia?
A) Persistent AF
B) Atrial flutter
C) Permanent AF
D) Paroxysmal AF
E) Secondary AF
-First detected episode
-Recurrent episodes = 2 or more episodes of AF. If episodes of AF terminate spontaneously then the term paroxysmal AF is used. Such episodes last less than 7 days (typically < 24 hours). If the arrhythmia is not self-terminating then the term persistent AF is used. Such episodes usually last greater than 7 days
-Permanent AF = continuous atrial fibrillation which cannot be cardioverted. Treatment goals are therefore rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate.
Which of the following may cause a decompensation in chronic liver disease?
A) High fibre diet
B) Low protein diet
C) Constipation
D) Diarrhoea
E) High carbohydrate diet
Constipation is a common cause of liver decompensation due to the accumulation of toxic products within the body. Some patients with liver decompensation and hepatic encephalopathy are treated with enemas to reduce the uptake of toxic products.
Other common causes include infection, electrolyte imbalances, dehydration, upper GI bleeds or increased alcohol intake.
What is the best treatment for a patient presenting in haemolytic crisis secondary to hereditary spherocytosis?
A) Eculizumab
B) Folic acid
C) IVIG
D) Splenectomy
E) Steroids
Patients with HS have chronic low-grade haemolysis and therefore an increased red cell turnover. Since folic acid is essential for haematopoiesis, all patients with HS should continue on lifelong folic acid replacement. This is even more essential in a haemolytic crisis. Importantly this remains the case even when folic acid levels are normal.
Indications for splenectomy in HS include severe symptomatic anaemia, transfusion dependence, or gallstone disease.
Which of the following is characteristic of atrial myxoma?
A) It originates from the R atrium
B) Fragments of tumour break off and metastasise
C) Echo is diagnostic in most cases
D) The clinical signs can mimic MR
E) Recurrence is frequent, even after surgical removal
Atrial myxomas are benign tumours of the heart that are more common in men. They consist of a triad of: embolism, intracardiac obstruction and constitutional symptoms. 2D echo is usually sufficient to make the diagnosis.
It usually originates from the L atrium and clinical signs mimic MS rather than MR.
Which of the options is a specific requirement for MDR-TB compared to other variants of TB?
A) A combination of at least 4 drugs are recommended
B) Directly observed therapy is recommended
C) There is usually no requirement for fluroquinolones
D) Treatment is required for at least 6M
E) Treatment failure is defined as 2 positive blood cultures after 2 months of therapy
It is difficult to confirm adequate adherence to therapy, and eradication of TB is essential. As such, as much as possible, DOT should be instigated.
Which of the following is expected to be seen on a biopsy of a granuloma in sarcoidosis?
A) Asteroid bodies
B) B lymphocytes
C) T lymphocytes
D) Caseation
E) Heinz bodies
Asteroid bodies are found in sarcoid granulomas and are thought to comprise lipids arranged into bilayer membranes.
Which of the following medications is most likely to precipitate hepatic encephalopathy in a patient with advanced alcoholic liver disease?
A) Amlodipine
B) Diazepam
C) Folic acid
D) Thiamine
E) Vitamin E
Patients with liver disease are more susceptible to the effects of various sedative medications on the CNS: benzodiazepines, opioids, barbiturates and chlorpromazine.
Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive treatment for a hyperthyroid solitary toxic nodule?
A) Radioactive iodine therapy
B) Carbimazole
C) Surgical excision
D) Propranolol
E) High dose carbimazole therapy with thyroxine therapy
Toxic thyroid nodules are particularly amenable to treatment with radioactive iodine treatment and if the nodule is shrinking 3M post treatment then no further assessment is required. Surgical excision is used second line or in women who are lactating or are pregnant (radioactive iodine is not appropriate).
What are two common complications of seborrhoeic dermatitis?
A) Alopecia and otitis externa
B) Blepharitis and otitis externa
C) Photosensitivity and alopecia
D) Photosensitivity and blepharitis
E) Blepharitis and alopecia
Otitis externa and blepharitis are common complications of seborrhoeic dermatitis.
A 14-year-old boy is admitted with palpitations and is noted to have a long QT interval. His only past medical history is deafness. What is the likely diagnosis?
A) Leriche syndrome
B) WPW syndrome
C) Jerville-Lange-Nielson syndrome
D) Romano-Ward syndrome
E) Osler-Wender-Rendu syndrome
Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome is associated with profound deafness and a prolonged QT interval.
Romano-Ward syndrome is also associated with a prolonged QT interval but no deafness.
Which feature would be the strongest indication for referral of a hyperparathyroid patient for consideration of parathyroid surgery?
A) Co-existing T2DM
B) Post-menopausal patient
C) Persistent hypercalcaemia over 4Y
D) Vitamin D deficiency
E) 45 years of age
Treatment of hyperparathyroidism:
-The definitive management is total parathyroidectomy
-Conservative management may be offered if the calcium level is less than 0.25 mmol/L above the upper limit of normal AND the patient is > 50 years AND there is no evidence of end-organ damage
-Patients not suitable for surgery may be treated with cinacalcet (‘mimics’ the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor)
NICE guidelines clearly stipulate the circumstances under which parathyroidectomy should be considered in primary hyperparathyroidism. These are listed below:
-<50 years.
-Cca that is >0.25 mmol/L above the upper end of the reference range.
-eGFR <60 mL/min/1.73 m2 a
-Renal stones
-Osteoporosis/osteoporotic fracture.
-Symptomatic disease
What follow up is required for a patient found to have pleural plaques on CT with no abnormalities noted on their blood tests?
A) None
B) Palliative chemotherapy
C) Radiotherapy
D) Surgery
E) Repeat CT in 6 months
Pleural plaques are benign and do not undergo malignant change. They, therefore don’t require any follow-up.
On what chromosome is the most likely mutation of a patient with ADPKD?
A) 3
B) 16
C) 4
D) 12
E) 6
The majority of patients with ADPKD have a mutation on chromosome 16, with the remaining 15% having a mutation on chromosome 4.
The screening investigation for relatives is abdominal ultrasound:
-2 cysts, unilateral or bilateral, if < 30YO
-2 cysts in both kidneys if 30-59 YO
-4 cysts in both kidneys if > 60 YO
Tolvaptan MAY be used to treat depending on if the patient meets the criteria.
What is the mechanism of action of amphotericin B?
A) Inhibits DNA polymerase
B) Converted to 5-fluoruracil
C) Binds with ergosterol
D) Inhibits synthesis of B-glucan
E) Interacts with microtubules to disrupt the mitotic spindle
Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes, forming pores that cause lysis of the cell wall and subsequent fungal cell death
A 65M presents with a sudden, painless loss of vision in his right eye upon waking up this morning. PMHx is notable for DM and HTN. Fundoscopic examination of the left eye reveals no abnormalities but of the right eye reveals multiple retinal haemorrhages. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Amaurosis fugax
B) Central retinal artery occlusion
C) Central retinal vein occlusion
D) Hypertensive retinopathy
E) Optic neuritis
Central retinal vein occlusion - sudden painless loss of vision, severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy
-Amaurosis fugax = temporary vision loss that resolves in a few minutes. It is caused by atheroembolism from the carotid arteries.
-Central retinal artery occlusion = acute painless vision loss, loss of relative afferent pupillary defect, and on fundoscopy, a cherry-red macula and a white/pale retina.
-Optic neuritis = sudden loss of vision associated with severe pain and an afferent pupillary defect.
In terms of the cell cycle, which one of the following phases determine the length of the cell cycle:
A) M
B) M0
C) G1
D) S
E) G2
G1 is where the cells increase in size and determines the length of the cell cycle.
A patient wakes up an hour ago with right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. A CT head does not show any signs of intracranial haemorrhage and a CT angiogram reveals a clot in the first branch (M1) of the left middle cerebral artery (MCA). Which of the following interventions is most likely to be of benefit in this patient?
A) Thrombolysis
B) Mechanical clot retrieval
C) Treatment dose heparin
D) Mechanical clot retrieval and thrombolysis
E) DAPT
Thrombolysis is contra-indicated in patients with wake-up strokes but mechanical clot retrieval can be performed in patients who have a confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation.
Contraindications to thrombolysis: >4.5hrs since symptoms due to risk of haemorrhagic transformation, presence of an intracranial neoplasm, recent major bleeding e.g. from the gastrointestinal tract.
A nurse at the local hospital undergoes vaccination against Hep B. 3 months after completion of the primary course:
Anti-HBs: 10 - 100 mIU/ml
(An antibody level of >100 mIU/ml indicates a good immune response with protective immunity)
What is the most appropriate course of action?
A) Repeat course (3 doses)
B) Repeat anti-HbS level in 3M
C) Give HbIG and one further dose of vaccine
D) Give one further dose of vaccine
E) Do a HIV test
Testing for anti-HBs is only recommended for those at risk of occupational exposure and patients with CKD. Anti-HBs levels should be checked 1-4 months after primary immunisation.
> 100 = adequate respone, booster in 5Y
10-100 = one additional vaccine dose should be given
<10 = Test for current or past infection. Give further vaccine course (i.e. 3 doses again) with testing following. If still fails to respond then HBIG would be required for protection if exposed to the virus.
What is the most appropriate initial management for a patient with suspected cord compression secondary to advanced, non-small cell lung cancer?
A) Broad-spec antibiotics
B) High dose PO dexamethasone
C) IV mannitol
D) Urgent MRI spine
E) Urgent referral for radiotherapy
Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and so dexamethasone should be given whilst arranging investigations, ideally a whole MRI spine within 24hours of presentation.
What organism is most likely to be responsible in causing IE in a patient with a recent dental extraction and poor dentition?
A) Eikenella corodens
B) MRSA
C) S. aureus
D) Streptococcus sanguinis
E) Streptococcus bovis
Patients with very poor dental hygiene may develop endocarditis secondary to Viridans streptococci e.g. Streptococcus sanguinis
The two most notable viridans streptococci are Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis - they are both commonly found in the mouth and in particular dental plaque so endocarditis caused by these organisms is linked with poor dental hygiene or following a dental procedure.
A 36F presents with skin lesions on her upper limbs. She has recently been on extensive travels throughout the world. OE she has an annular granulomatous rash with an asymmetrical distribution, 3 lesions on her left arm, and 1 lesion on her right arm. The lesions are hypopigmented and have well defined raised borders. They are associated with hair loss and decreased sensation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Bullous pemphigoid
B) Cutaneous leishmaniasis
C) Lyme disease
D) Necrotising fasciitis
E) Tuberculoid leprosy
Tuberculoid leprosy is suggested by a limited number of skin lesions, hypaesthesia, and hair loss. Mycobacterium leprae are scanty in tuberculoid leprosy lesions. It is a relatively benign form of leprosy and one of the least contagious.
Cutaneous leishmaniasis is characterised by an initial small red papule that enlarges in size and develops a central ulceration that can exude pus or dry with a crusted scab.
A 67M with a history of HTN presents with a 24hr history of dyspnoea and palpitations. He also complains of mild chest discomfort. OE, you note an irregularly irregular pulse (115bpm), BP 95 / 70 mmHg and RR 20 breaths/min. Nil regular medication. An ECG shows absent P waves with QRS complexes irregularly irregular intervals. What is the most appropriate management?
A) Digoxin
B) B-blocker
C) IV adenosine
D) DCCV
E) Clopidogrel
BP of 95/70 mmHg in a patient with a history of HTN, who is currently not taking any BP medication is quite concerning. It suggests that he is hemodynamically unstable. New-onset AF within 48hrs should be treated with DC cardioversion if unstable or either DC cardioversion or pharmacological cardioversion.
If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset patients should be heparinised. If the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours then anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks.