MRCP Deck 2 June 2023 Flashcards
A 50 y/o diabetic right-handed lady presents with left shoulder pain. She describes a stiff shoulder often more painful at night and has difficulty dressing or doing up her bra. There is no point tenderness and you notice weakness in external rotation. What is the most likely cause of her shoulder pain?
A) Acromioclavicular degeneration
B) Subacromial impingement
C) Rotator cuff tear
D) Calcific tendinopathy
E) Adhesive capsulitis
Adhesive capsulitis presents as a painful stiff shoulder with restriction of active and passive range of motion in abduction, internal and external rotation. However external rotation often shows the most marked restriction and is the first movement to show impairment. The stem describes difficulty dressing and doing up her bra as well as weakness of external rotation suggesting a globally impaired range of motion. Patients often report difficulty sleeping on the affected side. Other indications that the answer is adhesive capsulitis, include coexisting diabetes, female gender and symptoms in the non-dominant hand, all of which are common findings in this condition
Which of the following is the first line management in BPH?
A) Alpha 1 antagonist
B) 5a reductase inhibitor
C) Non-urgent referral for TURP
D) Empirical treatment with ciprofloxacin for 2W
E) Urgent urology referral
Alpha-1 antagonists (tamsulosin, alfuzosin)
decrease smooth muscle tone of the prostate and bladder and are first-line in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia.
5 alpha-reductase inhibitors (finasteride)
block the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT), which is known to induce BPH - indicated if the patient has a significantly enlarged prostate and is considered to be at high risk of progression.
A 78F with a history of recurrent VT has routine blood tests 3 months after starting amiodarone therapy which indicates hypothyroidism. How should her thyroid dysfunction be managed?
A) Continue amiodaron and add folic acid
B) Stop amiodarone and start thyroxine
C) Stop amiodarone and start carbimazone and thyroxine
D) Stop amiodarone and repeat bloods in 4W
E) Continue amiodarone and start thryoxine
Patients who develop hypothyroidism whilst taking amiodarone can continue to take the drug if this is desirable. Given that this patient has a history of ventricular tachycardia it would be unwise to withdraw amiodarone abruptly.
A defect in which immunoglobulin would account for the poor B-cell activation?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgG
D) IgE
E) IgM
IgD is correct. Its role in the immune system is poorly understood, however, it is known that IgD is involved in the activation of B-cells. It is also known to bind to other immune cells, such as mast cells, aiding in the respiratory immune response.
What are Lewy bodies made up of?
A) a-synuclein
B) B-amyloid
C) DNA inclusion bodies
D) Lipofuscin
E) Tau protein
A-synuclein
Which pulse is associated with a PDA?
A) Collapsing
B) Jerky
C) Slow rising
D) Dichrotic
E) Thready
Collapsing
In a patient with band keratopathy, which of the following investigations is likely to ascertain the underlying cause?
A) Cholesterol
B) Ferritin
C) U&E
D) Gamma GT
E) Calcium
Band keratopathy is caused by calcium deposition in the Bowman layer of the cornea.
Which circumstance most strongly indicates a need for repeated oral administration of activated charcoal following a mixed overdose?
A) If a bleeding disorder develops
B) If it is given within 12h of ingestion of the poison
C) In cases of heavy-metal poisoning
D) In cases where gastric lavage is contra-indicated
E) In cases where the drug circulates through the enterohepatic circulation
Multiple doses of activated charcoal aid in the elimination of some drugs that are prone to enterohepatic circulation.
Which of the following is an enzyme inhibitor?
A) Carbamazepine
B) Erythromycin
C) Glimepiride
D) Phenytoin
E) Rifampicin
Erythromycin
Which feature would be most beneficial in making a diagnosis of Marfan’s disease?
A) Arachnodactyly
B) Early diastolic murmur
C) High arched palate
D) Joint hypermobility
E) Mid-systolic click
Early diastolic murmur indicates aortic valve incompetence secondary to aortic root dilatation, a major feature of Marfan syndrome. The other features are all examples of minor criterion.
How does metformin cause diarrhoea?
A) Autonomic neuropathy
B) Osmotic diarrhoea
C) Secretory diarrhoea
D) Bile acid malabsorption
E) Steatorrhoea
Metformin and other biguanide medications are a cause of bile acid malabsorption.
What is the most common mode of inheritance of Alport syndrome?
A) AD
B) AR
C) X-linked D
D) X-linked R
E) Mitochondrial
X-linked dominant.
It is due to a defect in the gene which codes for type IV collagen resulting in an abnormal glomerular-basement membrane (GBM).
Which of the findings is the most likely to be reported upon flow cytometry of a blood sample from a patient with paroxysmal nocturnal haemaglobinuria?
A) C3-ve cells
B) CD55-ve cells
C) CD59-ve cells
D) C5 to C9-ve cells
E) C55 and CD59-ve cells
Flow cytometry for CD59 and CD55 is the gold standard test for paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria.
A 24M presents with palpitations and pre-syncope. He has no past medical history. An ECG demonstrates T wave inversion and an epsilon wave in leads V1-V3. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the expected pathological finding in this condition?
A) Apical biventricular ballooning
B) Asymmetric hypertrophy of the left ventricle with septal thickening
C) Non-caseating granulomata
D) No gross anatomic findings
E) Asymmetric hypertrophy of the left ventricle with septal thickening
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy is characterised by right ventricular myocardium replaced by fatty and fibrofatty tissue.
Where is the site of action of bendroflumethiazide?
A) Proximal collecting duct
B) Ascending loop of Henle
C) Descending loop of Henle
D) Proximal part of DCT
E) Distal part of DCT
Thiazides/thiazide-like drugs (e.g. indapamide) - inhibits sodium reabsorption by blocking the Na+-Cl− symporter at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule. Potassium is lost as a result of more sodium reaching the collecting ducts.
Which one of the following vaccines uses a protein that attaches to the polysaccharide outer coat to make the pathogen more immunogenic?
A) Rabies
B) Yellow fever
C) Oral polio
D) Meningococcus
E) Measles
Meningococcus is a conjugate vaccine.
All of the others are live attenuated vaccines except for rabies which is an inactivated vaccine.
Which one of the following markers is most useful for monitoring the progression of patients with COPD?
A) FEV1/FVC ratio
B) Lifestyle questionnaire
C) O2 sats
D) FEV1
E) Number of exacerbations per year
The severity of COPD is categorised using the FEV1.
Which one of the following is a contraindication to the use of a triptan in the management of migraine?
A) Concurrent pifotzen use
B) >55 years old
C) History of epilepsy
D) Previous intracranial tumour
E) History of IHD
Cardiovascular disease is a contraindication to triptan use.
A 72M is admitted to the local hospice for symptom control. His main problem at the moment is intractable hiccups. What is the most appropriate management?
A) Chlorpromazine
B) Codeine phosphate
C) Diazepam
D) Methadone
E) Phenytoin
Hiccups in palliative care - chlorpromazine or haloperidol.
What proteins is a patient with coeliac disease and dermatitis herpetiformis most likely to test positive for?
A) Anti-CCP
B) HLA-B27
C) HLA-DR3
D) HLA-DR4
E) RF
Dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with HLA-DR3.
HLA-DQ2/DQ8 = coeliac disease
HLA-DR4 is associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus and RA, and not with coeliac or dermatitis herpetiformis.
What additional health benefits might the COCP provide?
A) Decreased risk of breast cancer
B) Decreased risk of cervical cancer
C) Decreased risk of endometrial cancer
D) Decreased risk of STI
E) Decreased risk of stroke and IHD
-Increased risk of breast and cervical cancer
-Protective against ovarian and endometrial cancer
-Increased risk of VTE
-Increased risk of stroke and IHD
A CT head report describes a hypodense collection around the convexity of the brain that is not limited to suture lines. What is the most likely radiological diagnosis?
A) SAH
B) Extradural haematoma
C) Acute subdural haematoma
D) Chronic subdural haematoma
E) Intracerebral haematoma
On CT imaging, a chronic subdural haematoma will appear as a hypodense (dark), crescentic collection around the convexity of the brain.
On CT imaging, acute haematomas appear bright (hyperdense) whereas chronic haematomas appear dark (hypodense). Extradural haematomas are limited by suture lines whereas subdural haematomas are not. Subarachnoid haemorrhage are typically seen as hyperdensity within the basal cisterns and sulci of the subarachnoid space.
What cells are primarily responsible for producing interferon-gamma?
A) Fibroblasts
B) Leucocytes
C) Mast cells
D) Monocytes
E) Natural killer cells
Interferon-gamma is produced primarily by natural killer cells and T helper cells.
Which of the following organisms are most likely to be responsible in the pathogenesis of colorectal cancer?
A) Streptococcus bovis
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
C) Coxiella burnetii
D) Streptococcus mitis
e) Staphylococcus aureus
Studies have shown an increased risk of colorectal cancer is patients with streptococcus bovis endocarditis.