MRCP 2 Mocks Flashcards

1
Q

Steroids and immunosuppression - how long?

A

Prednisolone 40 mg (or more) for longer than 7 days

Prednisolone 20 mg (or more) for longer than 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hypertriglyceridaemia - treatment

A

Fibrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Livedo reticularis, skin ulceration and eosinophilia in a patient with atheromatous vascular disease who has recently started taking warfarin

A

Cholesterol embolisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pyoderma gangrenosum - initial treatment

A

PO Prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In the UK, ? is the most important current risk factor for recent hepatitis C virus infection

A

Intravenous drug use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Homosexual anal intercourse - which hepatitis?

A

Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Keratoderma blennorrhagica

A

Reactive Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Step up in Asthma management - Magnesium sulphate vs Aminophylline

A

Magnesium Sulphate first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Use of CMV-seronegative platelets is reserved for

A

Intrauterine and neonatal transfusions

Elective transfusion of pregnant women

Allogeneic haematopoietic stem cell transplant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Rght upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice (Charcot’s triad) would point towards

A

Ascending Cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Investigation for iron deficiency (without anaemia) in postmenopausal women and men over the age of 50

A

Colonoscopy

Faecal occult blood testing is not particularly sensitive or specific.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Partial right bundle branch block

Elevation of the ST segment, leading to T-wave inversion in leads V1 and V2.

A

Brugada Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Definitive diagnostic test for pemphigus vulgaris

A

Direct immunofluorescence of skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Asymptomatic, fine, scaly, reddish-brown, macular, coalescent rash over the upper trunk

Treatment?

A

Pityriasis versicolor

Itraconazole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Treatment of macroprolactinoma

A

First-line treatment of these tumours is dopamine agonist therapy

Followed by surgery (usually transfrontal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Normal pressure hydrocephalus - features

A

Urinary incontinence

Unsteadiness

Cognitive impairment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Useful in exudative wounds

A

Alginate dressings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Wounds with signs of local infection

A

Antibacterial and silver-impregnated dressings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Meningitis complicating an ear infection

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Treatment for Herpes simplex meningo-encephalitis

A

Aciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

? for urate stones

A

Allopurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

? reduces urinary calcium excretion

A

Bendroflumethiazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

? is for the treatment of cystinuria

A

Penicillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Transbronchial needle aspiration for what?

A

Sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Warfarin in pregnancy

A

Avoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism

vs

Familial benign hypocalciuric hypercalcemia

A

Urinary calcium excretion is high in Primary Hyperparathyroidism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

normotension, hypokalaemia + hypocalciuria

A

Gitelman’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Ulnar deviation

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Mixed (type II) cryoglobulinaemia associated with

A

Hepatitis C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Urea breath test

A

H. pylori in the stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Contraindications to infliximab in UC

A

Previous hepatitis B and previous tuberculosis

32
Q

Azathioprine and ? have a severe interaction causing bone marrow suppression

A

Allopurinol

33
Q

Treatment of choice for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

A

Oral glucocorticoids

34
Q

First-choice agent for the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy

35
Q

Secondary prophylaxis of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Lactulose and rifaximin

36
Q

? can be used to help differentiate essential tremor from Parkinson’s

A

SPECT scan

37
Q

Angioid retinal streaks

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

38
Q

The high-dose dexamethasone suppression test is useful for distinguishing between

A

ACTH dependent (e.g. pituitary source)

and

Non-ACTH dependent (e.g. ectopic and adrenal source) causes of Cushings’s syndrome

39
Q

Ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral hemiparesis

A

Weber’s syndrome - form of midbrain stroke

40
Q

Broad spectrum anti-emetic which blocks acetylcholine, dopamine, and serotonin receptors.

A

Levomepromazine

41
Q

Convex ST segment in V1-V3 followed by a negative T wave

A

Brugada syndrome

42
Q

T wave inversions in V1-3

A

Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia

43
Q

Most useful agent in preventing the delayed phase of chemotherapy-induced emesis

A

Dexamethasone

44
Q

Myelodysplasia may progress to ?

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia

45
Q

? antibiotics are contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis due to the risk of myasthenic crisis

A

Aminoglycoside (Gent)

46
Q

Refractory hypercalcaemia of malignancy may be treated with ? if therapy with fluids and pamidronate fails

A

Subcutaneous calcitonin

47
Q

Toxic megacolon is seen in:

A

Ulcerative colitis

48
Q

Multiple myeloma is a cause of ‘?’ amyloidosis

A

AL amyloidosis

49
Q

Long-standing rheumatoid arthritis is a common cause of systemic ‘?’ amyloidosis

A

AA amyloidosis

50
Q

Nitro or Trimethoprim in CKD?

A

Trimethoprim

51
Q

? disease causes splenomegaly

A

Gaucher disease

Lysosomal storage disorder

52
Q

? is the best way to differentiate between delirium and dementia

A

The Confusion Assessment Method (CAM)

53
Q

Before a renal biopsy is performed, patients should have ?

A

Renal tract ultrasound

54
Q

Schizotypal personality disorder

A

Social isolation and odd beliefs.

55
Q

Bleeding patients with DIC and prolonged PT and aPTT

A

Fresh frozen plasma

56
Q

Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy - ECG

A

T wave inversion in V1-3

57
Q

Brugada syndrome - ECG

A

Coved ST elevation in V1-3 followed by a negative T wave

58
Q

Wellen’s syndrome - ECG

A

Biphasic T waves in V2-3

59
Q

Chickenpox is a risk factor for invasive ? soft tissue infections including necrotizing fasciitis

A

Group A streptococcal

60
Q

Chlamydia - treat with ?

A

Doxycycline

61
Q

Gram-negative obligate intracellular pathogen - STI

62
Q

Cyanide poisoning

A

Hydroxycobalamin

Dicobalt Edetate
Sodium Thiosulphate
Sodium Nitrate

63
Q

First line Ix for Acute chest syndrome (Sickle cell)

64
Q

First line for Legionnaires

A

Macrolides

65
Q

Treatment for Hairy Cell Leukaemia

A

Cladribine

66
Q

Treatment of HSP

A

Usually supportive

67
Q

Diagnostic test for Sarcoidosis

A

Tissue biopsy if possible

68
Q

Safest epileptic in pregnancy

A

Lamotrigine

69
Q

Chronic colonisation in CF with Pseudomonas

A

Prolonged Azithromycin

70
Q

Agents used to maintain remission in Crohns

A

6-Mercaptopurine / Azathioprine

71
Q

Treatment of Chagas

A

Benznidazole

72
Q

Treatment of Schistosomiasis

A

Praziquantel

73
Q

? is used to prevent vasospasm in aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhages

A

Nimodipine

74
Q

? is the treatment of choice for an acute attack of neuromyelitis optica

A

IV methylprednisolone

75
Q

Coil or clip for intracranial aneurysms

76
Q

Treatment of choice for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbamazepine