Infectious Diseases / GUM Flashcards

1
Q

Legionella pneumophilia is best diagnosed by ?

A

Urinary Antigens

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2
Q

Management of Legionella

A

Erythromycin/clarithromycin

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3
Q

Chagas disease - organism?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

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4
Q

Syphilis - organism?

A

Spirochaete - Treponema pallidum

Infection is characterised by primary, secondary and tertiary stages

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5
Q

Primary features of Syphilis

A

Chancre - painless ulcer at the site of sexual contact

Local non-tender lymphadenopathy

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6
Q

Secondary feature of Syphilis

A

Occurs 6-10 weeks after primary infection

Systemic symptoms: fevers, lymphadenopathy

Rash on trunk, palms and soles

Buccal ‘snail track’ ulcers

Condylomata lata (painless, warty lesions on the genitalia )

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7
Q

Treponema pallidum particle agglutination assay (TPPA)

A

Indirect agglutination assay used for detection and titration of antibodies against Treponema pallidum.

IgG antibodies to syphilis can remain elevated

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8
Q

Candidiasis in immunocompromised patients - treatment?

A

High dose fluconazole

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9
Q

VDRL + and TPHA +

A

Active infection

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10
Q

VDRL - and TPHA +

A

Past infection

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11
Q

VDRL + and TPHA -

A

False positive

SLE, malaria, HIV, TB

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12
Q

Chancroid

A

STI caused by Haemophilus ducreyi.

Painful ulcers
Painful lymphadenopathy

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13
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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14
Q

Leprosy - define

A

Granulomatous disease - peripheral nerves and skin

Mycobacterium leprae

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15
Q

Management of Leprosy

A

Triple therapy

Rifampicin

Dapsone

Clofazimine

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16
Q

Leptospirosis - define

A

Spirochaete - Leptospira interrogans

Classically being spread by contact with infected rat urine.

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17
Q

Investigation for Leptospirosis

A

Serology: antibodies to Leptospira develop after about 7 days

PCR

Culture

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18
Q

Coagulase-positive

Causes skin infections, abscesses, osteomyelitis, toxic shock syndrome

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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19
Q

Coagulase-negative

Cause of central line infections and infective endocarditis

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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20
Q

Tick-borne encephalitis

A

Flavivirus

Supportive management

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21
Q

Risk of vertical transmission for hepatitis C

A

6%

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22
Q

Retro-orbital headache, fever, facial flushing, rash, thrombocytopenia in returning traveller

A

Dengue

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23
Q

Severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever)

A

Form of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) resulting in:

Thrombocytopenia
Spontaneous bleeding

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24
Q

Periodic acid-schiff staining

A

Used on jejunal biopsy specimens to diagnose Whipples disease

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25
Q

Silver staining

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci on sputum samples

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26
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen stain (acid-fast stain) of the stool

A

Red cysts of Cryptosporidium

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27
Q

Relative bradycardia

Abdominal pain, distension
constipation/diarrhoea

Rose spots: present on the trunk

A

Typhoid fever - Salmonella enterica

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28
Q

Management of PCP

A

Co-trimoxazole

IV pentamidine in serious cases

Aerosolized pentamidine - risk of pneumothorax

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29
Q

Norovirus - investigation

A

Faecal/Vomitus Viral PCR

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30
Q

Chikungunya

A

Alphavirus disease caused by infected mosquitoes

Africa, Asia and Indian subcontinent

Severe joint pain and abrupt onset of high fever

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31
Q

HIV, once stable, should be monitored with ?

A

Viral load every six months

CD4 counts annually

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32
Q

Management of Typus

A

Doxycycline

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33
Q

Infectious mononucleosis

A

Epstein-Barr virus

Sore throat
Pyrexia
Lymphadenopathy

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34
Q

Infectious mononucleosis - investigation

A

Heterophil antibody test (Monospot test)

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35
Q

Other features of Infectious Mononucleosis

A

Palatal petechiae

Splenomegaly

Hepatitis, transient rise in ALT

lymphocytosis: presence of 50% lymphocytes with at least 10% atypical lymphocytes

Haemolytic anaemia secondary to cold agglutins (IgM)

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36
Q

Loiasis - define

A

Filarial infection caused by Loa Loa

Pruritus / Urticaria

Calabar swellings: transient, non-erythematous, hot swelling of soft-tissue around joints

‘Eye worm’

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37
Q

Treatment for Loa Loa

A

Ivermectin

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38
Q

Giardiasis - treatment

A

Metronidazole

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39
Q

Giardiasis - bloody or non-bloody

A

Non-bloody

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40
Q

Yellow fever - define

A

Type of viral haemorrhagic fever (also dengue fever, Lassa fever, Ebola)

Zoonotic infection: spread by Aedes mosquitos

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41
Q

The biopsy results show the presence of inclusion bodies in the colonic mucosa - what organism and treatment?

A

CMV colitis - IV Ganciclovir

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42
Q

Cerebral Toxoplasmosis - treatment

A

Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

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43
Q

Treatment of strongyloidiasis

A

Ivermectin + Albendazole

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44
Q

Most common fungal CNS infection in patients with HIV

A

Cryptococcal meningitis

India ink test positive

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45
Q

Q fever - define + features

A

Coxiella burnetii

Fever, malaise

Transaminitis

Atypical pneumonia

Endocarditis (culture-negative)

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46
Q

Q fever - management

A

Doxycycline

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47
Q

Amoebiasis - define

A

Entamoeba histolytica - spread by the faecal-oral route

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48
Q

Amoebic dysentery

A

Pofuse, bloody diarrhoea

There may be a long incubation period

Oral metronidazole - ‘luminal agent’ (to eliminate intraluminal cysts) is recommended usually as well e.g. diloxanide furoate

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49
Q

Amoebic liver abscess - treatment

A

Oral metronidazole

A ‘luminal agent’ (to eliminate intraluminal cysts) is recommended usually as well e.g. diloxanide furoate

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50
Q

Lyme disease - define

A

Spirochaete - Borrelia burgdorferi

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51
Q

Features of Lyme disease

A

Headache, lethargy, fever, arthralgia

Erythema migrans

Heart block

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52
Q

Treatment of Lyme Disease

A

Doxycycline if early disease.
Amoxicillin is an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated (e.g. pregnancy)

Ceftriaxone if disseminated disease

53
Q

Meningitis: causes

0-3 months

A

Group B Streptococcus (most common cause in neonates)

E. coli

Listeria monocytogenes

54
Q

Treatment of Typhoid

A

Quinolones

Ciprofloxacin

55
Q

Main technique used to screen for latent tuberculosis

56
Q

Management fo Cytomegalovirus retinitis

A

IV ganciclovir

57
Q

Herpes simplex virus (HSV) in pregnancy - treatment?

A

Oral Aciclovir

58
Q

Treatment of choice for MRSA septicaemia

A

IV Vancomycin

Vancomycin
Teicoplanin
Linezolid

59
Q

Severe hepatitis in a pregnant woman

A

Hepatitis E

60
Q

Type 1 Necrotising fasciitis

A

Mixed anaerobes and aerobes

61
Q

Type 2 Necrotising fasciitis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

62
Q

Gonorrhoea - organism

A

Gram-negative diplococcus

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

63
Q

Gonorrhoea - treatment

A

Single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g

64
Q

Treatment for Chlamydia

A

Doxycycline

65
Q

Treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Metronidazole

66
Q

Treatment for Gardnerella vaginalis

A

Metronidazole

67
Q

Investigation of choice for Chlamydia

A

Nucleic Acid Amplification Test (NAAT)

68
Q

Cutaneous leishmaniasis is typically diagnosed using?

A

Punch Biopsy

69
Q

Leishmaniasis - vectors

70
Q

First line treatment for early Lyme disease

A

14-21 day course of oral doxycycline

71
Q

Q fever

A

Coxiella burnetii

Fever, malaise

Pyrexia of unknown origin

Transaminitis

Atypical pneumonia
Endocarditis (culture-negative)

72
Q

Treatment for Q Fever

A

Doxycycline

73
Q

Plasmodium vivax - where

A

Central America and the Indian Subcontinent

74
Q

Plasmodium ovale - where

75
Q

Cyclical fever every 48 hours

A

Plasmodium vivax/ovale

76
Q

Cyclical fever every 72 hours

A

Plasmodium malariae

77
Q

Relapse with Malaria - subtypes?

A

Plasmodium Vivax/Ovale

Should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse

78
Q

Brucellosis - define

A

Zoonosis - Middle East and in farmers, vets and abattoir workers

79
Q

Features of Brucellosis

A

Fever, malaise

Hepatosplenomegaly

Sacroiliitis

Osteomyelitis, infective endocarditis, meningoencephalitis, orchitis

leukopenia often seen

80
Q

Treatment for Brucellosis

A

Doxycycline and streptomycin

81
Q

Investigation for Brucellosis

A

Brucella serology is the best test for diagnosis

Rose Bengal plate test can be used for screening

82
Q

Drug of choice for contact prophylaxis - bacterial meningitis

A

Within 7 days of contact

Ciprofloxacin - Single dose

83
Q

HHV-8

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

84
Q

Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)

A

Lamivudine, Abacavir and Zidovudine

85
Q

Gram-positive bacilli (or rods)

A

ABCDL

Actinomyces
Bacillus anthracis
Clostridium, Corynebacterium
Diphtheria
Listeria monocytogenes

86
Q

Gram positive cocci

A

Streptococci

Staphylococci

87
Q

Gram-negative cocci

A

NNM

Neisseria (Neisseria meningitides, Neisseria gonorrhoea)

Moraxella

88
Q

Vancomycin Resistant Enterococcus (VRE) can be treated with

A

Linezolid, daptomycin and tigecycline

89
Q

Investigations for Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Mycoplasma serology

Positive cold agglutination test → peripheral blood smear may show red blood cell agglutination

90
Q

Management of Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Doxycycline

or

Macrolide (e.g. erythromycin/clarithromycin)

91
Q

Management of Leprosy

A

Triple therapy:

Rifampicin, dapsone and clofazimine

92
Q

Confirmatory investigation of TB

A

Multiple respiratory samples

(3 deep cough sputum samples, preferably including 1 early morning sample)

for TB microscopy and culture

93
Q

Two choices for treating latent tuberculosis:

A

3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin

or

6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine)

94
Q

Diagnosis of PCP

A

Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)

Silver stain shows characteristic cysts

95
Q

Extended Spectrum Beta-Lactamases (ESBL) - Treatment

A

Carbapenems - Meropenem

96
Q

Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis - organism

A

Leishmania braziliensis

97
Q

Most common complication of mumps in post-pubertal males.

98
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis - Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar)

A

Bone marrow or splenic aspirate

99
Q

Most common cause of epilepsy worldwide

A

Neurocysticercosis

Management is with praziquantel or albendazole and prednisolone.

100
Q

Which Hepatitis carries a significant mortality during pregnancy?

A

Hepatitis E

101
Q

Amoebiasis - organism

A

Entamoeba histolytica

102
Q

Treatment of Amoebiasis

A

Oral metronidazole

A ‘luminal agent’ (to eliminate intraluminal cysts) e.g. (diloxanide furoate)

103
Q

Treatment of Cutaneous larva migrans

A

Anthelmintic agents:

Ivermectin or albendazole

104
Q

Treatment of non-typhoidal Salmonella gastroenteritis.

A

Ciprofloxacin

105
Q

Treatment of Legionnaires

A

Macrolides or fluoroquinolones (such as levofloxacin)

106
Q

Management of Influenza

A

First line: oseltamivir

Second line: zanamivir

107
Q

Management of PCP in someone who is hypoxic

A

Co-trimoxazole + steroids

108
Q

Vancomycin - class

A

Glycopeptide antibiotic

Treatment of Gram-positive infections, particularly MRSA

109
Q

Mantoux test (6-15)mm indicates:

A

1.Prior BCG vaccination

2.Latent TB

3.Previous history of TB

110
Q

Treatment of Chlamydia

A

Doxycycline

111
Q

Most common cause of necrotising fasciitis is

A

Type 1 : polymicrobial infection

112
Q

Type 2 necrotising fasciitis - most commonly caused by:

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

113
Q

Candidiasis in immunocompromised patients - treatment?

A

High dose fluconazole

114
Q

Treatment of paragonimiasis (lung fluke infection)?

A

Praziquantel

115
Q

Treatment of Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Doxycycline or a macrolide

116
Q

Bed bugs - organism

A

Cimex lectularius

117
Q

Management of Typhus

A

Doxycycline

118
Q

Treatment of Staphylococcus aureus bacteraemia

A

IV Flucloxacillin 2 weeks

119
Q

Treatment of Visceral leishmaniasis

A

Sodium stibogluconate

2nd line - Amphotericin B

120
Q

Human herpes virus 5 (HHV 5)

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

121
Q

Drug of choice for lymphatic filariasis

A

Diethylcarbamazine

122
Q

Treatment for Cryptosporidiosis

A

Supportive for immunocompetent patients

Nitazoxanide/Rifaximin - immunocompromised

123
Q

Main/Serious complications of Typhoid

A

Bowel perforation and haemorrhage

124
Q

Syphilis: management

A

Intramuscular benzathine penicillin

2nd line: doxycycline

125
Q

Treatment of choice for tropical trypanosomiasis

A

Benznidazole

126
Q

Treatment of Botulism

A

Botulism antitoxin and supportive care

127
Q

Risk of infection following splenectomy:

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae. Haemophilus influenzae type B, Neisseria meningitidis

128
Q

What type of feeding is recommended in the UK to all babies with HIV +ve mothers

A

Formula feeding

129
Q

CIprofloxacin is used to treat which GI infections?

A

Salmonella

Shigella

Campylobacter