Haematology/Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Hereditary angioedema

A

Autosomal dominant

Low plasma levels of the C1 inhibitor (C1-INH, C1 esterase inhibitor)

Serum C4 is the most reliable and widely used screening tool

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2
Q

Cancer patients with VTE

A

6 months of a DOAC

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3
Q

Pathogenesis of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

A

Abnormally large and sticky multimers of von Willebrand’s factor cause platelets to clump within vessels

In TTP there is a deficiency of ADAMTS13 (a metalloprotease enzyme) which breakdowns (‘cleaves’) large multimers of von Willebrand’s factor

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4
Q

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura - features

A

Fever

Fluctuating neuro signs (micro-emboli)

Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia

Thrombocytopenia

Renal failure

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5
Q

Initial treatment for CLL

A

Fludarabine, cyclophosphamide and rituximab (FCR)

Ibrutinib may be used in patients who have failed a previous therapy

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6
Q

The following groups of patients require CMV-negative blood

A

Intra-uterine transfusions

Neonates up to 28 days post expected date of delivery

Pregnancy

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7
Q

Fresh frozen plasma

A

Prepared from single units of blood.
Contains clotting factors, albumin and immunoglobulin.

Unit is usually 200 to 250ml.
Usually used in correcting clotting deficiencies in patients with hepatic synthetic failure who are due to undergo surgery.

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8
Q

Cryoprecipitate

A

Formed from supernatant of FFP.

Rich source of Factor VIII and fibrinogen.

Allows large concentration of factor VIII to be administered in small volume.

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9
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis - inheritance and pathophysiology

A

Northern European descent

Autosomal dominant

Red blood cell survival reduced as destroyed by the spleen

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9
Q

Diagnosis of Hereditary spherocytosis

A

EMA binding test

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10
Q

Long term treatment of Hereditary spherocytosis

A

Folate replacement

Splenectomy

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11
Q

1st line imaging in suspected multiple myeloma

A

Whole body MRI

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12
Q

Extravascular haemolysis: causes

A

Haemoglobinopathies: sickle cell, thalassaemia

Hereditary spherocytosis

Haemolytic disease of new-born

Warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

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13
Q

Smear/Smudge cells

A

Chronic lymphoblastic leukaemia (CLL)

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14
Q

Auer rods

A

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia

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15
Q

Basophilic stippling

A

Lead poisoning

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16
Q

Management of Lead Poisoning

A

Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA)

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17
Q

Heinz bodies, bite and blister cells

A

G6PD deficiency

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18
Q

Hairy cell leukaemia - gene

A

BRAF

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19
Q

Management of Hereditary angioedema

A

IV C1-inhibitor concentrate or fresh frozen plasma if this is not available

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20
Q

Secondary causes of Polycythaemia

A

COPD

Altitude

Obstructive sleep apnoea

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21
Q

Warfarin-induced skin necrosis

A

While warfarin blocks the activation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, it also deactivates protein C and protein S, two endogenous anticoagulants.3

Since protein C has a short half-life (8 hours) and warfarin initially decreases protein C levels faster than the coagulation factors, it can paradoxically increase the coagulation tendency when treatment is first begun, leading to massive thrombosis with skin necrosis and gangrene of limbs.

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22
Q

Reversal agent - Rivaroxaban and apixaban

A

Andexanet alfa

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23
Q

Reversal agent for dabigatran

A

Idarucizumab

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24
Q

Useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma

A

B2-microglobulin

25
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria - diagnosis

A

Raised urinary porphobilinogen

26
Q

Management of Acute intermittent porphyria

A

IV haematin/haem arginate

27
Q

First-line treatment for ITP

A

Oral prednisolone

Pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) can also be used - faster inset if needed.

28
Q

Basophilic stippling

A

Lead Poisoning

29
Q

Features of Beta-thalassaemia trait

A

Mild hypochromic, microcytic anaemia

(microcytosis is characteristically disproportionate to the anaemia)

HbA2 raised (> 3.5%)

30
Q

1st line imaging in suspected multiple myeloma

A

Whole body MRI

31
Q

Polycythaemia vera: management

A

Aspirin

Venesection - aim PCV >0.45

Hydroxyurea - slight increased risk of secondary leukaemia

32
Q

Investigation of choice for CLL

A

Immunophenotyping (Flow cytometry)

33
Q

Treatment for acquired methaemoglobinaemia

A

IV methylthioninium chloride

34
Q

Treatment of choice for NADH methaemoglobinaemia reductase deficiency.

(Congenital Methaemoglobinaemia)

A

Ascorbic Acid

35
Q

Causes of Microcytic anaemia

A

Iron-deficiency anaemia

Thalassaemia

Congenital sideroblastic anaemia

36
Q

Poor prognostic features in AML

A

> 60 years

> 20% blasts after first course of chemo

cytogenetics: deletions of chromosome 5 or 7

37
Q

Ki-67 High (>45%)

A

Diffuse Large B Cell Lymphom

38
Q

Ki-67 Low (<40%).

A

Follicular Lymphoma

39
Q

Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is characterised by a peripheral blast count > ?%

40
Q

Most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

Von Willebrand’s disease

41
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

Characterised by a triad of:

Recurrent chest infections/recurrent sinus infections

Atopic dermatitis

Thrombocytopenia and platelet dysfunction

X linked recessive

42
Q

Reversal agent for Apixaban/Rivaroxaban

A

Andexanet alfa

43
Q

Triad of:

Cholestatic jaundice (high ALP/GGT/bilirubin)

DAT-negative haemolytic anaemia

Hyperlipidaemia

A

Zieve’s syndrome

44
Q

Treatment of paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)

A

Eculizumab

45
Q

Lack of NADPH oxidase reduces ability of phagocytes to produce reactive oxygen species

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

46
Q

Most common primary antibody deficiency. Recurrent sinus and respiratory infections

Associated with coeliac disease and may cause false negative coeliac antibody screen

Severe reactions to blood transfusions may occur (anti-IgA antibodies → analphylaxis)

A

Selective immunoglobulin A deficiency

47
Q

Gold standard investigation in PNH

A

Flow cytometry of blood to detect low levels of CD59 and CD55

48
Q

Methaemoglobinaemia - define

A

Haemoglobin which has been oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+

49
Q

Most common inherited thrombophilia

A

Activated protein C resistance (Factor V Leiden)

50
Q

Management of Von Willebrand’s disease

A

Tranexamic acid for mild bleeding

Desmopressin (DDAVP): raises levels of vWF by inducing release of vWF from Weibel-Palade bodies in endothelial cells

Factor VIII concentrate

51
Q

Indications for gamma irradiated blood products include:

A

Immunocompromised marrow or organ transplant recipients

Patients with haematological disorders who will be undergoing allogeneic marrow transplantation imminently

Intrauterine transfusions

Patients with Hodgkin’s disease

Patients treated with purine analogue drugs (e.g. fludarabine)

52
Q

Prophylaxis for Hereditary angioedema

A

Anabolic steroid - Danazol

53
Q

All patients should be screened for ? before treatment with rituximab

A

Hepatitis B (HBV)

54
Q

? mainstay of imaging for staging Hodgkin’s lymphoma

55
Q

? with ondansetron is effective in refractory chemotherapy-induced vomiting

A

Dexamethasone

56
Q

Squamous cell cancer (Lung) - where?

A

Typically central

57
Q

Adenocarcinoma (Lung) - where?

A

Typically peripheral

58
Q

? to treat hiccup

A

Metoclopramide
Chlorpromazine
Dexamethasone

59
Q

The most common side effect of immune checkpoint inhibitors is

A

Dry itchy skin and rashes