MOSBY BOOK 1 SAMPLE EXAMINATIONS Flashcards
ALL of the following are supporting cusps EXCEPT?
A. Buccal cusp of Tooth #29.
B. Lingual cusp of tooth #4.
C. ML cusp of tooth #3.
D. ML cusp of tooth #19.
D. ML cusp of tooth #19.
The lateral pterygoid muscle attaches to which of the following?
A. Lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate.
B. Medial surface of the lateral pterygoid plate.
C. Lateral surface of the medial pterygoid plate.
D. Medial surface of the medial pterygoid plate.
E. Pyramidal process of palatine bone.
A. Lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate.
A transverse ridge is:
A. The combination name for joining oblique and triangular ridges
B. A combination name for joining buccal and
lingual cusp triangular ridges
C. Characteristically found on all primary and
permanent molars
D. Found occasionally on maxillary primary first molar
B. A combination name for joining buccal and
lingual cusp triangular ridges
Bronchogenic carcinoma is a complication most characteristic of which of the following conditions?
A. Silicosis.
B. Asbestosis.
C. Anthracosis.
D. Sarcoidosis.
E. Bronchiectasis.
B. Asbestosis.
Which of the following statements regarding
tubular reabsorption is true?
A. Most calcium filtered is passively reabsorbed and not regulated under any conditions.
B. Most urea is reabsorbed passively and is
unaffected by regulatory mechanisms.
C. Glucose is reabsorbed by secondary active
transport and facilitated diffusion.
D. Most filtered phosphate is reabsorbed in the collecting ducts and is unaffected by regulatory mechanisms.
C. Glucose is reabsorbed by secondary active
transport and facilitated diffusion.
The class of antibodies that plays an important role in type I hypersensitivity reactions is _____.
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
C. IgE
The amount of cytosine will be equal to the amount of guanine in which of the following molecules?
A. DNA.
B. RNA.
C. DNA and RNA.
D. mRNA.
A. DNA.
The branchial arches disappear when the _____ branchial arch grows down to contact the _____.
A. second; third branchial arch
B. second; fifth branchial arch
C. third; fifth branchial arch
D. first; first branchial groove
E. first; sixth branchial groove
B. second; fifth branchial arch
Glucagon will decrease which of the
following?
A. Glycogenolysis.
B. Gluconeogenesis.
C. Glycogenesis.
D. Blood glucose.
C. Glycogenesis.
When an enzyme is competitively inhibited,
which of the following changes occur?
A. The apparent Km is unchanged.
B. The apparent Km is decreased.
C. Vmax is decreased.
D. Vmax is unchanged.
D. Vmax is unchanged.
A typical primary mandibular first molar has
how many pulp horns?
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
D. 4.
A 3-year-old African girl presents in the emergency room with a palpable mass in her lower right mandible. She is currently in the United States visiting relatives with her parents. Her mom claims that a few days ago she noticed a growing mass in her daughter’s jaw. There appears to be slight swelling around the area, although it is painless and not tender to the touch. After further examination, a biopsy was taken, and the diagnosis of Burkitt’s lymphoma was made.
Burkitt’s lymphoma is a malignancy that affects which of the following cells?
A. Macrophages.
B. T lymphocytes.
C. B lymphocytes.
D. Neutrophils.
E. Keratinocytes.
D. Neutrophils.
The pathology report reveals a characteristic
pattern of tumor cells that is classically associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma. Which of the following describes this histopathologic pattern?
A. Honeycomb.
B. Cobweb.
C. Cotton wool.
D. Sun ray.
E. Starry sky.
E. Starry sky.
The African form of Burkitt’s lymphoma has
been linked to the Epstein-Barr virus. This virus is also responsible for which of the following diseases?
A. Mononucleosis.
B. Shingles.
C. Chicken pox.
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma.
E. Herpangina.
A. Mononucleosis.
Measurement of horizontal overlap (over jet) of the teeth is easily done by which of the
following methods?
A. Measure from the facial surface of a mandibular incisor to the facial surface of a maxillary incisor with the subject in intercuspal position.
B. With the subject intercuspal position, mark the position of the maxillary incisal edge on the facial surface of the mandibular incisor with a pencil. Then have the subject open the mouth and measure from the mark that you made to the incisal edge of the mandibular incisor.
C. Measure from the midline between the
maxillary central incisors to the midline of the mandibular central incisors.
D. Measure from the incisal edge of a maxillary incisor to the incisal edge of a mandibular incisor with the mandible in the maximum open position.
A. Measure from the facial surface of a mandibular incisor to the facial surface of a maxillary incisor with the subject in intercuspal position.
Increasing the radius of arterioles will increase which of the following?
A. Systolic blood pressure.
B. Diastolic blood pressure.
C. Viscosity of the blood.
D. Capillary blood flow.
D. Capillary blood flow.
Which of the following nerves supplies taste
sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the
tongue?
A. Hypoglossal.
B. Glossopharyngeal.
C. Lingual.
D. Facial.
E. Mental.
D. Facial.
Which of the following statements regarding the regulation of gastrointestinal motility is true?
A. Sympathetic stimulation inhibits motility.
B. Parasympathetic stimulation inhibits motility.
C. Gastrointestinal motility is not influenced by the central nervous system (CNS).
D. Gastrointestinal motility is not influenced by hormones.
A. Sympathetic stimulation inhibits motility.
Which of the following structures is the most common site for oral cancer?
A. Soft palate.
B. Lateral border of the tongue.
C. Lower lip.
D. Floor of mouth.
E. Buccal mucosa.
C. Lower lip.
Mandibular movement resulting from occlusal contacts of the teeth from retruded contact position (CRC) to intercuspal position (slide in centric) may show all except one of the following directional components when viewed only in the horizontal plane. Which is the exception?
A. Vertical component.
B. Horizontal component.
C. Lateral component.
D. Protrusive component.
A. Vertical component.
Which of the following muscles is responsible for the formation of the posterior tonsillar pillar?
A. Stylopharyngeus.
B. Tensor veli palatine.
C. Palatoglossus.
D. Palatopharyngeus.
E. Levator veli palatine.
D. Palatopharyngeus.
Which of the following does not occur to compensate for a fall in blood pressure below normal values?
A. Increased cardiac output.
B. Increased stroke volume.
C. Increased heart rate.
D. Decreased total peripheral resistance
D. Decreased total peripheral resistance
Relative or absolute lack of insulin in humans
would result in which one of the following
reactions in the liver?
A. Increased glycogen synthesis.
B. Increased gluconeogenesis.
C. Decreased glycogen breakdown.
D. Increased amino acid uptake.
B. Increased gluconeogenesis.
In 2% glutaraldehyde, which of the following
times is minimally sufficient for achieving
sterilization?
A. 15 minutes.
B. 1–2 hours.
C. 6 hours.
D. 12 hours.
D. 12 hours.
Which of the following bones is part of the
superior wall (roof) of the orbit?
A. Zygomatic.
B. Lacrimal.
C. Sphenoid.
D. Maxilla.
E. Ethmoid.
C. Sphenoid.
On average, approximately what is the dimension of the permanent maxillary canine at the widest mesiodistal diameter of the crown?
A. 5.5 mm.
B. 6.5 mm.
C. 7.5 mm.
D. 8.5 mm
C. 7.5 mm.
Both active transport and facilitated diffusion
are characterized by which of the following?
A. Transport in one direction only.
B. Hydrolysis of ATP.
C. Transport against a concentration gradient.
D. Competitive inhibition.
D. Competitive inhibition.
Which of the following bacteria would be
expected to first colonize onto plaque?
A. Streptococci.
B. Bacteroides.
C. Fusobacterium.
D. Actinomyces.
E. Prevotella.
A. Streptococci.
Cell membrane typically contain the following
compounds except:
A. Phospholipids
B. Proteins
C. Cholesterols
D. Triacylglycerols
E. Sphingolipids
D. Triacylglycerols
Which of the following muscles adducts the
vocal cords?
A. Lateral cricoarytenoid.
B. Posterior cricoarytenoid.
C. Cricothyroid.
D. Vocalis.
E. Tensor veli palatine.
A. Lateral cricoarytenoid.
Which of the following best describes anaplastic cells that have not invaded the basement membrane and are confined within their epithelium of origin?
A. Dysplasia.
B. Hyperplasia.
C. Metaplasia.
D. Sarcoma.
E. Carcinoma in situ.
E. Carcinoma in situ.
Which muscle of the anterolateral abdominal
wall is described as being belt- or strap-like?
A. External oblique muscle.
B. Internal oblique muscle.
C. Transversus abdominis muscle.
D. Rectus abdominis muscle.
E. Quadratus lumborum muscle.
D. Rectus abdominis muscle.
In a comparison of maxillary, primary and
permanent second molars, which of the
following differences are noted?
A. Enamel rods at the cervix slope gingivally in the primary molar.
B. Enamel rods at the cervix slope occlusally in the permanent molar.
C. Buccal cervical ridges are less pronounced in the primary molar.
D. Roots of primary teeth are longer and more slender in comparison with crown size than those of permanent teeth.
D. Roots of primary teeth are longer and more slender in comparison with crown size than those of permanent teeth.
A mother brings her 6-year-old daughter in for an examination because she noticed brown macules on her daughter’s leg. The macules have jagged edges but do not appear raised. The mother is worried that her daughter may have a malignancy. After further evaluation and tests, the macules are identified as café au lait spots.
Café au lait spots are seen in conjunction with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and endocrine abnormalities in which of the following disorders?
A. McCune-Albright’s syndrome.
B. Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
C. Marfan’s syndrome.
D. Gorlin-Goltz syndrome.
E. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.
A. McCune-Albright’s syndrome.
The patient with fibrous dysplasia could be described as having what type of radiographic appearance?
A. Cotton wool.
B. Ground glass.
C. Cobweb.
D. Soap bubble.
E. Starry sky.
B. Ground glass.
A bone biopsy was taken from the patient with fibrous dysplasia. Which of the following would most likely be observed under the microscope?
A. A dense inflammatory infiltrate.
B. Fibrous tissue.
C. Pleomorphic cells.
D. Metastatic calcifications.
E. Giant cells.
B. Fibrous tissue.
The overall length of the primary teeth that are given here are the average range of dimensions with one exception. Which one is the exception?
A. Maxillary central incisor, 16 to 17 mm.
B. Mandibular central incisor, 16 to 17 mm.
C. Maxillary lateral incisor, 16 to 17 mm.
D. Mandibular lateral incisor, 15 to 17 mm.
B. Mandibular central incisor, 16 to 17 mm.
Fibrotic and thickened heart valves that result
in a reduction of blood flow through the valve
characterize which of the following?
A. Stenosis.
B. Regurgitation.
C. Insufficiency.
D. Prolapse.
E. Ischemia.
A. Stenosis.
From the occlusal aspect the primary maxillary second molar has which of the following characteristics?
A. Somewhat rhomboidal in form.
B. Three well developed cusps.
C. Two supplemental cusps, including tubercle of Carabelli.
D. Poorly defined mesial triangular fossa.
A. Somewhat rhomboidal in form.
All of the following local chemical factors will
cause vasodilatation of the arterioles, except:
A. Decreased K
B. Increased CO2
C. Nitric oxide
D. Decreased O2
E. Histamine release
A. Decreased K
The inferior aspect of the diaphragm is supplied with blood by which of the following arteries?
A. Median sacral artery.
B. Lumbar arteries.
C. Inferior phrenic arteries.
D. Celiac trunk.
E. Superior mesenteric artery.
C. Inferior phrenic arteries.
The coenzyme essential for normal amino acid metabolism is _____.
A. Biotin
B. Tetrahydrofolate
C. Pyridoxal phosphate
D. Niacin
C. Pyridoxal phosphate
Equal contracture of the lateral pterygoid
muscle bilaterally produces which of the
following mandibular movements?
A. Retrusive.
B. Elevation.
C. Protrusive.
D. Lateral.
C. Protrusive.
Which of the following cells forms the myelin sheath around myelinated nerves in the central nervous system?
A. Schwann cells.
B. Astrocytes.
C. Microglia.
D. Oligodendrocytes.
E. Amphicytes.
D. Oligodendrocytes.
Schwann cells-PNS
Which of the following mineralized tissues have the greatest percentage of inorganic material?
A. Enamel.
B. Dentin.
C. Bone.
D. Calculus.
A. Enamel.
Which of the following is not a feature of
poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?
A. Hematuria.
B. Hypertension.
C. Edema.
D. Polyuria.
D. Polyuria.
In a cusp–embrasure relationship, the
maxillary first premolar is most likely to
articulate with which of the following
mandibular teeth?
A. First premolar only.
B. First molar only.
C. Canine and first premolar.
D. First and second premolars.
D. First and second premolars.
There are several tooth numbering systems,
some used more than others, and some used by dental specialties or by special organizations. The so-called universal system consists of:
A. Two-digit sets of numbers for each tooth in each arch quadrant (e.g., 18 to 11).
B. Single sequential number for teeth repeated in each quadrant (e.g., 8 to 1).
C. A sequential alphabet letter for each tooth in an entire dentition (e.g., A to T).
D. Different symbols for each numbered tooth in each quadrant (e.g., 8 _ ⎪ to 1_⎪).
C. A sequential alphabet letter for each tooth in an entire dentition (e.g., A to T).
A 24-year-old man presents to your office for an emergency visit, after being hit on the left side of his face with a soccer ball. He complains that his “tooth got knocked out” and that his jaw feels “out of place.” He has no other medical conditions.
During intraoral examination, you find that the patient’s lower second premolar is missing. Which type of alveolodental fibers was least involved in resisting the force that pulled this patient’s tooth out of its socket?
A. Apical.
B. Oblique.
C. Alveolar crest.
D. Interradicular.
B. Oblique.
You notice that a cusp of his mandibular second molar has fractured off and that dentin is exposed. If this patient were to drink
something cold, what will he sense?
A. Pain.
B. Pressure.
C. Vibration.
D. Temperature
A. Pain.
You decide to take a radiograph of the fractured tooth. On the first film you miss the apex of the tooth, so you decide to take another radiograph. Relaxation of which of the patient’s muscles would help you in taking the second film?
A. Geniohyoid.
B. Stylohyoid.
C. Mylohyoid.
D. Levator veli palatine.
E. Palatopharyngeus.
C. Mylohyoid.
On further examination, you determine that the articular disc of the patient’s temporomandibular joint has been displaced. If the patient contracts his lateral pterygoid muscle, the disc will move _____.
A. Posteriorly and medially
B. Anteriorly and medially
C. Posteriorly and laterally
D. Anteriorly and laterally
B. Anteriorly and medially
During the examination, the patient observes that he cannot feel it when you touch part of his cheek and his upper lip. Which of the following nerves was probably damaged during the accident?
A. Lingual.
B. Maxillary.
C. Long buccal.
D. Superior alveolar.
E. Inferior alveolar.
B. Maxillary.
You decide to restore the missing cusp on the patient’s molar. During the administration of the inferior alveolar nerve block, which of the following ligaments is most likely damaged?
A. Sphenomandibular.
B. Stylomandibular.
C. Temporomandibular.
D. Interdental.
A. Sphenomandibular.
Polycystic kidney disease is most commonly associated with _____.
A. Renal cell carcinoma
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Urolithiasis
D. Berry aneurysm
E. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
D. Berry aneurysm
Which of the following types of epithelium lines the oropharynx?
A. Simple squamous.
B. Stratified squamous.
C. Simple cuboidal.
D. Simple columnar.
E. Pseudostratified columnar.
B. Stratified squamous.
A scientist has discovered a new peptide
hormone. He thinks it acts through the second messenger system, which utilizes cAMP. If this is true, which of the following substances should decrease the response of this new peptide hormone in cells?
A. Adenylate cyclase.
B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
C. Phosphodiesterase.
D. Aspirin.
C. Phosphodiesterase.
From the occlusal perspective, which tooth in
the primary dentition varies the most in form
from that of any tooth in the permanent
dentition?
A. Maxillary first primary molar.
B. Maxillary second primary molar.
C. Mandibular first primary molar.
D. Mandibular primary second molar.
A. Maxillary first primary molar.
The most common cause of osteomyelitis is
_____.
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Lactobacillus casei
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
The muscle that is found in the walls of the
heart is characterized by _____.
A. A peripherally placed nucleus
B. Multiple nuclei
C. Intercalated discs
D. Fibers with spindle-shaped cells
C. Intercalated discs
The smallest cusp on the crown of a 5 lobed
mandibular second premolar is the:
A. Buccal cusp.
B. Distobuccal cusp.
C. Distal cusp.
D. Distolingual cusp.
D. Distolingual cusp.
Which of the following is not involved in the
process of mineralization?
A. Matrix vesicles.
B. Amelogenins.
C. Fluoride.
D. Phosphoryns.
D. Phosphoryns.
T-cell lymphoma is most likely to occur in a
patient with which of the following conditions?
A. Chronic granulomatous disease.
B. Myasthenia gravis.
C. Osteochondroma.
D. Wilson’s disease.
E. Celiac sprue.
E. Celiac sprue.
For which of the following substances would you expect the renal clearance to be the lowest, under normal conditions?
A. Urea.
B. Creatinine.
C. Sodium.
D. Water.
E. Glucose
E. Glucose
DiGeorge’s syndrome is characterized by a
deficiency of _____.
A. B lymphocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. Both B and T lymphocytes
D. Antibodies
E. Complement inhibitor
B. T lymphocytes
Which of the following phrases best describes restriction enzymes?
A. Site-specific endonucleases.
B. Enzymes that regulate RNA.
C. Nonspecific endonucleases.
D. Topoisomerases.
A. Site-specific endonucleases.
The gallbladder arises from the _____.
A. Common hepatic duct
B. Common bile duct
C. Left hepatic duct
D. Cystic duct
E. Bile canaliculi
A. Common hepatic duct
Which one of the following disorders is the
least likely to be a differential diagnostic factor in the patient’s limited jaw opening?
A. Exacerbation of TMJ and TMD.
B. Trismus secondary to TMJ pain.
C. Myalgia secondary to TMD.
D. Myositis secondary to bruxing.
D. Myositis secondary to bruxing.
The superior and inferior ophthalmic veins
drain into the _____.
A. Internal jugular vein
B. Pterygoid plexus
C. Frontal vein
D. Infraorbital vein
E. Facial vein
E. Facial vein
A 6-year-old boy presents with a history of severe epistaxis. For the past 3 years the patient has experienced these nose bleeds, often without any apparent cause. The patient is otherwise in good health, but his mother has noticed that he “bruises easily.” Laboratory tests are ordered.
The laboratory test results show a normal PT but a prolonged PTT. A prolonged PTT test suggests that the patient has an abnormality affecting which component of the coagulation cascade?
A. Activation of platelets.
B. Activation of thromboplastin.
C. Activation of plasminogen.
D. Intrinsic pathway.
E. Extrinsic pathway.
D. Intrinsic pathway.
The diagnosis of hemophilia A is made. This
disease is caused by a deficiency of _____.
A. Factor V.
B. Factor VII.
C. Factor VIII.
D. Factor IX.
E. Factor X.
C. Factor VIII.
Which of the following describes the hereditary transmission of Hemophilia A?
A. Autosomal dominant.
B. Autosomal recessive.
C. X-linked.
D. It is not genetically transmitted.
C. X-linked.
Hemophilia A- affects only males but females may be carriers
The clinical presentation of hemophilia B is
indistinguishable from hemophilia A. Which of the following best describes the laboratory
method needed to distinguish these two conditions?
A. Bleeding time.
B. Assay of coagulation factor levels.
C. Assay of von Willebrand’s factor.
D. Blood smear.
E. Platelet count.
B. Assay of coagulation factor levels.
Hydrolysis of which of the following
compounds yields urea?
A. Ornithine.
B. Argininosuccinate.
C. Aspartate.
D. Citrulline.
E. Arginine
E. Arginine
The median pharyngeal raphe serves as the
attachment site for which of the following
muscles?
A. Lateral pterygoid muscle
B. Palatopharyngeus muscle
C. Levator veli palatine muscle
D. Salpingopharyngeus
E. Superior constrictor muscle
E. Superior constrictor muscle
A most favorable sequence of eruption for the permanent dentition is which of the following (right side)? (Eruption sequence given by numbers in parentheses.)
A. (1) 3, 30; (2) 8, 25; (3) 7, 26; (4) 27, 5; (5) 28, 4;(6) 29, 6; (7) 31, 2.
B. (1) 3, 30; (2) 8, 25; (3) 26, 7; (4) 27, 6; (5) 28, 5;(6) 29, 4; (7) 31, 2.
C. (1) 30, 3; (2) 25, 8; (3) 26, 7; (4) 27, 5; (5) 28, 4;(6) 29, 6; (7) 31, 2.
D. (1) 30, 3; (2) 25, 8; (3) 26, 7; (4) 27, 6; (5) 28, 5;(6) 29, 4; (7) 2, 31.
C. (1) 30, 3; (2) 25, 8; (3) 26, 7; (4) 27, 5; (5) 28, 4;(6) 29, 6; (7) 31, 2.
Which of the following metabolic activities is increased 1 hour after a meal (during the absorptive state)?
A. Glycogenolysis.
B. Oxidation of free fatty acids.
C. Glucagon release.
D. Glycolysis
D. Glycolysis
The most prominent mechanism of spread of
the hepatitis A virus is by which of the
following routes?
A. Oral-anal.
B. Respiratory.
C. Sexual contact.
D. Perinatal.
E. Insect vectors.
A. Oral-anal.
If the molar percentage of guanine in a human DNA is 30%, what is the molar percentage of adenine in that molecule?
A. 10%.
B. 20%.
C. 30%.
D. 40%.
E. 50%
B. 20%.
The muscularis externa has a third layer in the _____.
A. Esophagus
B. Stomach
C. Liver
D. Small intestine
E. Large intestine
B. Stomach
An infection by which of the following bacteria may result in the formation of gummas?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
C. Treponema pallidum.
D. Bordetella pertussis.
E. Streptococcus pyogenes.
C. Treponema pallidum.
Hassall’s corpuscles are found in the medulla
of which of the following glands?
A. Thymus.
B. Thyroid.
C. Parathyroid.
D. Pineal.
E. Suprarenal
A. Thymus.
The masseter originates from the _____.
A. Condyle of the mandible.
B. Infratemporal crest of the sphenoid bone.
C. Inferior border of the zygomatic arch.
D. Pyramidal process of the palatine bone.
E. Mastoid process of temporal bone.
C. Inferior border of the zygomatic arch.
Considering the period of 2 1/2 months to about 6 years of age which of the following is true?
A. Not all the primary teeth have attained their occlusal level.
B. Parts of both jaws containing primary teeth change noticeably in size.
C. A significant increase in intercanine width occurs shortly before and during the time the
primary teeth are lost and the permanent teeth emerge.
D. Dental arch form is more or less constant and practically no dimensional changes take place in depth or width after 9 months of age.
D. Dental arch form is more or less constant and practically no dimensional changes take place in depth or width after 9 months of age.
The primary factor determining the percent of hemoglobin saturation is:
A. Blood PO2.
B. Blood PCO2.
C. Diphosphoglycerate concentration.
D. The temperature of the blood.
E. The acidity of the blood.
A. Blood PO2.
What is the average height of curvature of the cervical line (CEJ) on the mesial and distal of the permanent maxillary and mandibular incisors?
A. About 3.5 mm on the mesial of the maxillary central incisor.
B. About 1.5 mm on the distal of the maxillary central incisor.
C. About 2.0 mm on the mesial of the mandibular central incisor.
D. About 1.0 mm on the distal of the mandibular central incisor.
A. About 3.5 mm on the mesial of the maxillary central incisor.
Which of the following describes cells that are abnormal in appearance and may become premalignant?
A. Aplasia.
B. Dysplasia.
C. Karyomegaly.
D. Pleomorphism.
E. Metaplasia.
B. Dysplasia.
Which jaw activity does not involve one of the
following muscles?
A. Clenching, superior heads of lateral pterygoid muscles (LPM).
B. Clenching, inferior heads of LPM.
C. Ipsilateral jaw movements, inferior heads of LPM.
D. Simple jaw opening, deep masseter muscle.
D. Simple jaw opening, deep masseter muscle.
Hemorrhagic infarction and tissue necrosis suggest which of the following?
A. Aspergillosis.
B. Blastomycosis.
C. Histoplasmosis.
D. Mucormycosis.
E. Toxoplasmosis.
D. Mucormycosis.
Which of the following ribs cannot be
palpated?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. A and B
A. First
Which of the following is released by mast cells after antigen binding?
A. IgE.
B. Lysozyme.
C. IL-4.
D. Leukotriene.
E. Interferon
D. Leukotriene.
Where are the temperature control centers
located?
A. Cerebellum.
B. Hypothalamus.
C. Medulla.
D. Cerebral cortex.
B. Hypothalamus.
Which of the following is a major complication
of chronic bronchitis?
A. Myxedema.
B. Pneumothorax.
C. Emphysema.
D. Pernicious anemia.
E. Malignant transformation.
E. Malignant transformation.
A comparison occlusally between the primary
mandibular second molar and the permanent mandibular first molar shows which of the following differences?
A. The mesio-, distobuccal, and distal cusps of the primary molar are almost equal in size; the distal cusp of the permanent molar is smaller than the other two cusps.
B. The primary molar crown is wider
buccolingually (in comparison with its
mesiodistal measurement) than is the
permanent molar.
C. The primary molar outline is somewhat
hexagonal; the permanent molar is
rhomboidal.
D. The ratio of the crown/root length of both
molars is the same.
A. The mesio-, distobuccal, and distal cusps of the primary molar are almost equal in size; the distal cusp of the permanent molar is smaller than the other two cusps.
Calcium binds to which of the following for
contraction in smooth muscle?
A. Troponin C.
B. Calmodulin.
C. Myosin.
D. Actin.
E. Desmosomes.
B. Calmodulin.
The effects of which one of the following
hormones are not mediated through cAMP?
A. Estrogen.
B. Glucagon.
C. Epinephrine.
D. Norepinephrine.
A. Estrogen.
A 43-year-old man presents for an emergency dental appointment complaining of a burning sensation in his mouth. Upon examination, white plaques are observed along the oral mucosa. The patient otherwise appears healthy. There is no history of systemic illness, but the patient did state that he had a blood transfusion more than 10 years ago following a car accident. The doctor referred the patient to emergency room for further tests.
Upon further evaluation, the doctor requests
an HIV and hepatitis test. The laboratory performed both an ELISA test and Western blot, revealing that the patient is HIV-positive.
The Western blot is used to identify which of the following?
A. Antibodies.
B. DNA.
C. RNA.
D. Proteins.
E. Plaque-forming units.
D. Proteins.
If the patient was later diagnosed with active hepatitis, which of the following would most likely be the causative agent?
A. Hepatitis A.
B. Hepatitis B.
C. Hepatitis C.
D. Hepatitis D.
E. Hepatitis E.
C. Hepatitis C.
Which of the following would the doctor likely prescribe for the patient’s intraoral infection? (Hepatitis)
A. Amoxicillin.
B. Vancomycin.
C. Ciprofloxacin.
D. Nystatin.
E. Chlorhexidine.
D. Nystatin.
All of the following molecules may be found
within the nucleocapsid of an HIV virus
except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Reverse transcriptase.
B. Integrase.
C. Neuraminidase.
D. Protease.
E. Ribonucleic acid.
C. Neuraminidase.
The patient is referred to an infectious disease specialist and placed on “triple therapy.” Two years later, the patient is admitted to the emergency room with a dry cough and shortness of breath. His temperature is 101° F. The most likely cause of the patient’s pneumonia is _____.
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii)
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii)
The primary maxillary first molar has which of the following characteristics?
A. It is larger in all dimensions than the primary maxillary second molar.
B. All three roots can be seen from mesial perspective.
C. Bifurcation of roots begins almost immediately at the site of the cervical line (CEJ).
D. The mesial root is considerably shorter than the distal one.
C. Bifurcation of roots begins almost immediately at the site of the cervical line (CEJ).
Which of the following is the end product of
purine degradation in humans?
A. Urea.
B. Uric acid.
C. Adenosine.
D. Xanthine.
B. Uric acid.
Which of the following is an essential amino
acid?
A. Tyrosine.
B. Tryptophan.
C. Proline.
D. Serine.
E. Alanine.
B. Tryptophan.
Which of the following are the most abundant in the fovea centralis of the eyeball?
A. Rod cells.
B. Cone cells
C. Rod and cone cells.
D. Amacrine cells.
B. Cone cells
The middle trunk of the brachial plexus of
nerves arises from:
A. C5
B. C6
C. C7
D. C8
C. C7
Tinea pedis, which is commonly known as
athlete’s foot, is a fungal infection that is caused by the following dermatophyte(s):
A. Microsporum
B. Trichophyton
C. Epidermophyton
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C
E. Both B and C
In comparing permanent and primary teeth, which of the following differences are noted?
A. Crowns of anterior primary teeth are narrower mesiodistally (in comparison to their crown length) than the permanent teeth.
B. Comparatively, the roots of primary anterior teeth are narrower and longer.
C. Cervical ridges of enamel of the primary anterior teeth are less prominent.
D. Buccal and lingual surfaces of primary molars are less flat above the cervical curvature than those of permanent molars
B. Comparatively, the roots of primary anterior teeth are narrower and longer.
Cystic fibrosis is a hereditary disorder that
results from defective _____.
A. Collagen
B. Lysosomal enzymes
C. Chloride channels
D. Fibrillin
E. Myelin
C. Chloride channels
Which of the following strata of oral
epithelium is engaged in mitosis?
A. Basale.
B. Granulosum.
C. Corneum.
D. Spinosum.
A. Basale.
The class of antibodies that plays an important role in mucosal immunity is _____.
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
A. IgA
Which of the following cells are defective in chronic granulomatous disease?
A. Neutrophils.
B. Lymphocytes.
C. Plasma cells.
D. Killer T cells.
E. Macrophages.
A. Neutrophils.
The coenzyme that serves as an intermediate
carrier of one-carbon units in the synthesis of nucleic acids is which of the following?
A. Ascorbic acid.
B. Tetrahydrofolic acid.
C. Biotin.
D. Pyridoxine.
B. Tetrahydrofolic acid.
Which of the following genetic diseases that
results from a deficiency in the liver enzyme
that converts phenylalanine to tyrosine?
A. Albinism.
B. Homocystinuria.
C. Porphyria.
D. Phenylketonuria.
D. Phenylketonuria.
A 35-year-old woman presents with a painful limitation of jaw opening (28 mm), a painful tooth on the right side, and swelling at the angle of the jaw. She has a history of temporomandibular disease (TMD) and conservative treatment. Medical history reveals that the patient is being treated for tuberculosis with combination antituberculo sis drugs including rifampin (Rifadin). She is also being treated with an anticoagulant, warfarin (Coumadin), a low level of aspirin, and paroxetine (Paxil) for depression. The intraoral examination shows extensive teeth wear from bruxism, diagnosed by a sleep specialist as sleep bruxism. Tooth 32 has a deep carious lesion and, on radiographic examination, a periapical radiolucency.
The incidence of tuberculosis is increasing as
a result of an association with AIDS. Oral
infections of tuberculosis (TBC) do occur but are uncommon. Diagnosis of oral lesions may present several challenges, as set forth in all of the following statements except one. Which one of the following statements is false?
A. Lesions secondary to HIV may be present.
B. Isolation of M. tuberculosis by culture requires 4 to 6 weeks or longer.
C. Mycobacteria can be demonstrated by special stains in only 27% to 60% of cases.
D. Molecular tests (e.g., polymerase chain reaction) show slow turnaround times.
D. Molecular tests (e.g., polymerase chain reaction) show slow turnaround times.
All the following side effects have been reported to be related to the use of rifampin except one. Which is the exception?
A. Green bodily fluids—sweat, tears, urine.
B. Hepatitis.
C. Leucopenia.
D. Nephrotoxicity.
A. Green bodily fluids—sweat, tears, urine.
(ORANGE)
Which of the following modes of action does not relate to rifampin?
A. Inhibits RNA synthesis.
B. Binds tightly to eukaryotic RNA polymerase.
C. Tuberculocidal to intracellular and extracellular organisms.
D. Reduces activity of hepatic mixed-function oxidases.
B. Binds tightly to eukaryotic RNA polymerase.
Exacerbation of bruxism has been reported to occur with all the following agents except one? Which is the exception?
A. Paroxetine (Paxil).
B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
C. Naproxen (Naprosyn).
D. Amphetamine derivative (“Ecstasy”).
C. Naproxen (Naprosyn).
Migraine is a form of headache that is
currently thought to be best understood on the basis of all the following with one exception. The exception is which of the following?
A. As a dysfunction of brainstem pathways or
diencephalic nuclei.
B. As a primary disorder of the brain.
C. As similar in mechanism to tension
headaches.
D. As a neurovascular headache.
C. As similar in mechanism to tension
headaches.
Three key factors in the pathogenesis of pain
in migraine are usually considered. Which of
the following is not considered to be a key
factor?
A. Cranial blood vessels.
B. β-amyloid–containing plaques in the brain.
C. Trigeminal innervation of the vessels.
D. Reflex connection of trigeminal system with cranial parasympathetic outflow.
B. β-amyloid–containing plaques in the brain
The treatment of the patient with low levels of aspirin is done for which of the following reasons?
A. To reduce the likelihood of platelet aggregation.
B. To stimulate cyclo-oxygenase in the platelets.
C. To increase the formation of thromboxane.
D. To cause platelets to regenerate cyclooxygenase.
A. To reduce the likelihood of platelet aggregation.
When there is a pulpal-periodontal infection
of a mandibular third molar, which of the
following listed facial and cervical spaces is most likely to have become infected when there is swelling at the angle of the jaw?
A. Retromolar space.
B. Submaxillary space.
C. Submasseteric space.
D. Parotid space.
B. Submaxillary space.
Lymphatic drainage from tooth 32 will
first involve which of the following node
groups?
A. Lateral upper deep cervical node.
B. Medial upper deep cervical node.
C. Lateral lower deep cervical node.
D. Submaxillary node.
A. Lateral upper deep cervical node.
All but one the following are considerations relevant to the diagnosis and treatment of tuberculosis. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Increase in the prevalence of TB.
B. Oral TB lesions occur most frequently on the gingival.
C. Emergence of multidrug-resistant strains.
D. High risk of M. tuberculosis infection in patients infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
B. Oral TB lesions occur most frequently on the gingival.
Extraction of tooth 32 revealed attached soft tissue. Which of the following is most important for a presumptive diagnosis of
tuberculosis?
A. Caseous necrotic areas.
B. Acid-fast bacilli.
C. Epithelioid histiocytes.
D. Langerhans giant cells.
B. Acid-fast bacilli.
The patient is on an anticoagulant drug (e.g., warfarin [Coumadin] ) as well as rifampin. What is the effect of rifampin on the anticoagulation effect of warfarin (Coumadin)?
A. Increases the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
B. Increases the cyclic conversion of vitamin K epoxide reductase.
C. Anticoagulation effect is inhibited.
D. Decreases its metabolic clearance by inducing activity of hepatic oxidases.
C. Anticoagulation effect is inhibited.
Gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)
produces secretory _____.
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
A. IgA
Antinuclear antibodies are seen in the serum samples from patients with _____.
A. Hypogammaglobulinemia
B. Chronic granulomatous disease
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Multiple myeloma
E. Pheochromocytoma
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
What is the correct general structure of the
backbone of DNA and RNA?
A. Sugar-base–sugar.
B. Bases linked through phosphodiester linkages.
C. Bases linked through hydrogen bonds.
D. Sugars linked through phosphodiester link
ages.
D. Sugars linked through phosphodiester link
ages.
All of the following are found in the posterior
triangle of the neck except one. Which one is the exception?
A. External jugular vein.
B. Subclavian vein.
C. Hypoglossal nerve.
D. Phrenic nerve.
E. Brachial plexus.
C. Hypoglossal nerve.
Which of the following amino acids is
positioned at every third residue in the primary structure of the helical portion of the collagen-α chains?
A. Glycine.
B. Glutamate.
C. Proline.
D. Lysine.
E. Hydroxyproline.
A. Glycine.
Which of the following factors would result in decreased glomerular filtration rate?
A. A fall in plasma protein concentration.
B. An obstruction of the tubular system which would increase capsular hydrostatic pressure.
C. Vasodilation of the afferent arterioles.
D. Inulin administration.
B. An obstruction of the tubular system which would increase capsular hydrostatic pressure.
The most common form of breast cancer is _____.
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Teratoma
C. Follicular lymphoma
D. Sarcoma
E. Carcinoma
A. Adenocarcinoma
The apex of a medullary pyramid in the
kidney is called the _____.
A. Cortex
B. Medulla
C. Renal papilla
D. Major calyx
E. Minor calyx
C. Renal papilla
All of the following conditions are commonly associated with a group A, β-hemolytic streptococci infection except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Scarlet fever.
B. Toxic shock syndrome.
C. Pharyngitis.
D. Endocarditis.
E. Impetigo.
D. Endocarditis.
The auriculotemporal nerve encircles which
of the following vessels?
A. Maxillary artery.
B. Superficial temporal artery.
C. Deep auricular artery.
D. Middle meningeal artery.
E. Anterior tympanic artery.
D. Middle meningeal artery.
A 55-year-old man presents with malaise and dyspnea. He has a low-grade fever and reports that his shortness of breath has increased steadily over the past week and a half. He has a history of rheumatic fever and denies ever using recreational drugs. He is currently being treated by a dentist for full mouth reconstruction.
Upon further examination, a heart murmur
was detected. Given the patient’s past medical history, which heart valve is most likely affected?
A. Mitral valve.
B. Tricuspid valve.
C. Aortic valve.
D. Pulmonary valve.
A. Mitral valve.
Before the patient’s development of rheumatic fever, he likely suffered from which of the following conditions?
A. Cystitis.
B. Pharyngitis.
C. Food poisoning.
D. Thrombocytopenia.
E. Meninigitis
B. Pharyngitis.
After further evaluation and tests, the patient is diagnosed with subacute endocarditis. If the infecting microbe was cultured in the laboratory, the results would most likely show that this microbe is positive for _____.
A. α-hemolysis
B. β-hemolysis
C. γ-hemolysis
D. Coagulase
E. Lecithinase
A. α-hemolysis
Which of the following is the most likely complication that may occur from the vegetations forming on the patient’s defective heart valve?
A. Myocardial infarction.
B. Hemorrhage.
C. Petechiae.
D. Cor pulmonale.
E. Embolus.
E. Embolus.
After the diagnosis is made, the patient is immediately placed on high-dose, IV antibiotics. One of the antibiotics that is administered to the patient is streptomycin, an aminoglycoside. The antimicrobial effect of
streptomycin is to inhibit the synthesis of
_____.
A. The bacterial cell wall
B. Folate
C. Proteins
D. Nucleic acids
E. β-lactamase
C. Proteins
The conversion of information from DNA into
mRNA is called which of the following?
A. Translation.
B. Transcription.
C. Transduction.
D. Transformation.
B. Transcription.
Maximum rotation and translation of both
condyles takes place at:
A. Maximum opening.
B. Maximum protrusive.
C. Right and left lateral excursive movements.
D. Hinge movement.
A. Maximum opening.
The right subclavian artery arises from the
_____ and the left subclavian artery arises
from the _____.
A. Axillary artery; aortic arch
B. Brachiocephalic artery; aortic arch
C. Aortic arch; brachiocephalic artery
D. Brachiocephalic artery; axillary artery
E. Axillary artery; brachial artery
B. Brachiocephalic artery; aortic arch
Rest position (RP) is defined:
A. As any position of the mandible that lacks
contact of the teeth.
B. As the centric relation position of the
condyles with the teeth apart.
C. As a mandibular position with masticatory
muscles at complete rest.
D. As a clinical mandibular position in relation to the interocclusal space.
D. As a clinical mandibular position in relation to the interocclusal space.
Which of the following ions has a higher intracellular concentration compared to the extracellular fluid?
A. Na+.
B. K+.
C. Cl−.
D. HCO3−
E. Ca2+.
B. K+.
All of the following cells are associated with
chronic inflammation except one. Which one
is the exception?
A. Macrophages.
B. Neutrophils.
C. T lymphocytes.
D. B lymphocytes.
E. Plasma cells.
B. Neutrophils
When is the crown of the permanent
mandibular second molar completed?
A. About 7–8 years.
B. About 8–9 years.
C. About 9–10 years.
D. About 10–11 years.
A. About 7–8 years.
The pancreas is enveloped at its head by the _____.
A. First part of the duodenum
B. Second part of the duodenum
C. Third part of the duodenum
D. Fourth part of the duodenum
E. First part of the jejunum
A. First part of the duodenum
Which of the following proteoglycans is
present in extracellular space?
A. Hyaluronic acid.
B. Keratan sulfate.
C. Chondroitin sulfate.
D. Dermatan sulfate.
E. Heparin.
E. Heparin.
Mucopolysaccharidoses are hereditary disorders that are characterized by the accumulation of glycosaminoglycans in various tissues due to which of the following?
A. Overproduction (synthesis) of proteoglycans.
B. Deficiency of one of the lysosomal, hydrolytic enzymes normally involved in the
degradation of one or more of the glycosaminoglycans.
C. The synthesis of abnormal proteoglycans.
D. The synthesis of highly branched glycosaminoglycan chains.
E. Arginine.
B. Deficiency of one of the lysosomal, hydrolytic enzymes normally involved in the
degradation of one or more of the glycosaminoglycans.
A hormone acts to stimulate its neighboring cell to divide. This hormone would best be described as belonging to which category of hormones?
A. Paracrine.
B. Autocrine.
C. Endocrine.
A. Paracrine.
The most common cause of pyelonephritis is _____.
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Helicobacter pylori
E. Bordetella pertussis
C. Escherichia coli
Which of the following types of epithelium
acimar units of lines salivary glands?
A. Simple squamous.
B. Stratified squamous.
C. Simple cuboidal.
D. Simple columnar.
E. Pseudostratified columnar.
C. Simple cuboidal.
The _____ is a component of the juxtaglomerular apparatus which functions in regulation of blood pressure.
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Bowman’s capsule
D. Glomerulus
E. Macula densa
E. Macula densa
The masseter muscle, which has a complex of internal components, includes all the
following EXCEPT?
A. Pennation.
B. Structural composition permitting regional
activation.
C. Multiple internal aponeuroses.
D. Internal aponeuroses that do not move or deform.
D. Internal aponeuroses that do not move or deform.
The cricopharyngeus muscle of the esophagus _____.
A. Is a parasympathetic stimulator of peristalsis
B. Is a sympathetic inhibitor of peristalsis
C. Prevents swallowing air at the pharyngeal end
D. Prevents regurgitation of stomach contents at the abdominal end
E. Controls the gag reflex
C. Prevents swallowing air at the pharyngeal end
The most common cause of bacterial
meningitis in newborns is _____.
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Haemophilus influenzae
E. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Escherichia coli
In which one of the following tissues is glucose transport into the cell unaffected by insulin?
A. Skeletal muscle.
B. Liver.
C. Adipose tissue.
D. Smooth muscle.
B. Liver.
Deoxygenated blood from the transverse sinus drains into the _____.
A. Inferior sagittal sinus
B. Confluence of sinuses
C. Sigmoid sinus
D. Straight sinus
E. Internal jugular vein
C. Sigmoid sinus
The primary maxillary second molar has what characteristics?
A. Does not have a well-defined mesial triangular fossa.
B. Oblique ridge absent or not well developed.
C. Development (central) groove is well defined.
D. A tubercle of Carabelli (Supplementary cusp) is well developed.
C. Development (central) groove is well defined.
Facial nerves are derived from the ____
branchial arch.
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
E. Fifth and sixth
B. Second
Analysis of DNA fragments (probing) is possibly due to which of the following properties of DNA?
A. Phosphodiester bonds.
B. Complimentary strands.
C. Protein binding.
D. Western blotting.
B. Complimentary strands.
From the occlusal aspect, the primary mandibular second molar has which of the following characteristics?
A. Somewhat rectangular in form.
B. The outline of the crown converges mesially.
C. Three buccal cusps are dissimilar in size.
D. Cusps do not have well defined triangular ridges
A. Somewhat rectangular in form.
A cotton wool appearance may be used to
describe the radiograph of a patient with _____.
A. Osteopetrosis
B. Osteitis deformans
C. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
D. Seborrheic keratosis
E. Osteogenesis imperfecta
B. Osteitis deformans or Paget’s disease
The energy for skeletal muscle contraction is derived from which of the following processes?
A. Calcium release from sarcoplasmic mem
branes and binding to troponin.
B. Cleavage of ATP by the myosin head.
C. Membrane sodium-potassium ATPase pump.
D. Sodium influx during the action potential.
B. Cleavage of ATP by the myosin head
Which of the following is a property of C fibers?
A. Have the slowest conduction velocity of any nerve fiber type.
B. Have the largest diameter of any nerve fiber type.
C. Are afferent nerves from muscle spindles.
D. Are afferent nerves from Golgi tendon organs.
E. Are preganglionic autonomic fibers.
A. Have the slowest conduction velocity of any nerve fiber type
To which of the following bones is the tensor tympani attached?
A. Incus.
B. Malleus.
C. Stapes.
D. Hyoid.
E. Mandible.
B. Malleus.
An increase in alkaline phosphatase may be seen in all of the following conditions except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Hyperparathyroidism.
B. Osteoporosis.
C. Osteitis deformans.
D. Adenocarcinoma of the prostate.
E. Multiple myeloma.
B. Osteoporosis.
The hereditary transmission of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is _____.
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Sex-linked dominant
D. Sex-linked recessive
A. Autosomal dominant
Which one of the following is considered a
primary ligament of the TMJ?
A. Stylomandibular.
B. Sphenomandibular.
C. Stylohyoid.
D. Temporomandibular.
D. Temporomandibular.
A 60-year-old homeless man who lives in a community shelter presents with history of coughing for the past 6 months. He has a slight fever, hemoptysis, and productive cough with a yellowish sputum discharge. After further examination and tests, the patient is diagnosed with active tuberculosis.
When the sputum samples were taken to the laboratory, what test did the doctor order to be performed to help make the diagnosis?
A. Gram stain.
B. Acid-fast stain.
C. Spore stain.
D. PPD test (tuberculin test).
E. Voges-Proskauer test.
B. Acid-fast stain.
After 2 weeks, the bacterial cultures came back from the lab confirming the initial diagnosis, positively identifying the organism. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. M. tuberculosis is known to infect which of the following cells?
A. Fibroblasts.
B. Basal cells.
C. Type I pneumocytes.
D. Macrophages.
E. Erythrocytes.
D. Macrophages.
Which of the following is a glycolipid found on the surface of M. tuberculosis that plays a role in its pathogenesis?
A. Cord factor.
B. O antigen.
C. Protein A.
D. Exotoxin A.
E. Lecithinase.
A. Cord factor.
Since the patient was living in a homeless shelter, the tuberculin test was administered to all of the staff and residents living at the shelter. This test is based on a delayed type hypersensitivity reaction that is mediated by _____.
A. Only IgG
B. IgG and IgM
C. IgE
D. T cells and macrophages
E. Mast cells and basophils
D. T cells and macrophages
Which of the following is the most appropriate drug used in combination therapy for tuberculosis to treat the patient?
A. Amoxicillin.
B. Clindamycin.
C. Cephalosporin.
D. Tetracycline.
E. Rifampin.
E. Rifampin.
After 3 weeks, the patient was feeling “much better” and was discharged from the hospital, although he remained on his drug therapy for another 6 months. Which of the following best describes the calcified scar that later formed in the affected lung parenchyma and hilar lymph node?
A. Gumma.
B. Chancre.
C. Metastatic calcifications.
D. Tubercle.
E. Ghon complex
E. Ghon complex
An infection in a mandibular incisor with an
apex below the mylohyoid muscle drains into which of the following spaces?
A. Sublingual space
B. Submental space
C. Submandibular space
D. Parapharyngeal space
B. Submental space
Phospholipase C is an enzyme that plays an
important role in the production of second messengers, which produce intracellular responses. Which two second messengers are produced through the action of this enzyme?
A. cAMP and tyrosine kinase.
B. Acetylcholine and histidine.
C. Adenylate cyclase and protein kinase.
D. 1,2-diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate.
D. 1,2-diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate.
Which of the following cytokines stimulate B lymphocytes to differentiate into plasma cells?
A. IL-1.
B. IL-2.
C. IL-3.
D. IL-4.
E. IL-5.
E. IL-5.
Which of the following statements regarding the parasympathetic nervous system is true?
A. The third cranial nerve (the oculomotor
nerve) carries sympathetic fibers to the
smooth muscles of the eye.
B. The facial and the glossopharyngeal cranial nerves carry the parasympathetic preganglionic fibers for the autonomic innervation to the salivary glands.
C. The parasympathetic nervous system innervates primarily striated muscle in the body.
D. The parasympathetic nervous system is organized for diffuse activation and responses.
B. The facial and the glossopharyngeal cranial nerves carry the parasympathetic preganglionic fibers for the autonomic innervation to the salivary glands.
From the incisal view, a greater mesiodistal measurement than faciolingual measurement can be seen in which of the following permanent anterior crowns?
A. Maxillary central incisor.
B. Maxillary canine.
C. Mandibular canine.
D. Mandibular central incisor.
A. Maxillary central incisor.
The vestigial cleft of Rathke’s pouch in the hypophysis is located between the _____.
A. Anterior and posterior lobes
B. Anterior lobe and hypothalamus
C. Posterior lobe and hypothalamus
D. Median eminence and the optic chiasm
A. Anterior and posterior lobes
A comparison of the pulp chambers and root canals of maxillary primary and permanent second molars shows which of the following?
A. Enamel cap of primary tooth is relatively thick but less consistent in depth.
B. Comparatively less thickness of dentin at the occlusal fossa of primary molars.
C. Pulp chambers are proportionally larger in primary molars.
D. Pulp horns are lower in primary molars, especially distal horns.
C. Pulp chambers are proportionally larger in primary molars.
The center that provides output to the
respiratory muscles is located in the _____.
A. Pons
B. Medulla
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Cerebellum
E. Hypothalamus
B. Medulla
The brachial plexus of nerves arises from
which of the following roots of the anterior
primary rami of spinal nerves?
A. All cervical roots (C1–C8).
B. All thoracic roots (T1–T12).
C. C8 and T1.
D. C5 through C8 and T1.
E. C5 through C8 and T1 through T4.
D. C5 through C8 and T1.
Aschoff bodies are observed in which of the
following conditions?
A. Acute myelogenous leukemia.
B. Pheochromocytoma.
C. Osteopetrosis.
D. Rheumatic fever.
E. Scleroderma.
D. Rheumatic fever.
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents are
painrelieving and anti-inflammatory. They are effective since they act to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis by:
A. Inhibiting fatty acid lipo-oxygenase activity.
B. Inhibiting fatty acid-specific cyclo-oxygenase activity.
C. Inhibiting fatty acid-specific hydroperoxidase activity.
D. Inhibiting phospholipase A2.
B. Inhibiting fatty acid-specific cyclo-oxygenase activity.
Terminal bronchioles are characterized by _____ cells.
A. Goblet
B. Ciliated cuboidal
C. Nonciliated cuboidal
D. Ciliated squamous
E. Nonciliated squamous
B. Ciliated cuboidal
A major anatomical variant of the two-rooted mandibular molar is a tooth with an additional distolingual and third root. What is the prevalence of these three-rooted mandibular first molars?
A. May exceed 10% in Caucasians.
B. Less than 1% in Eurasian and Asian populations.
C. Greater than 5% (even up to 40%) in populations with Mongolian traits.
D. Greater than 8% in African populations
C. Greater than 5% (even up to 40%) in populations with Mongolian traits.
Which one of the following statements regarding the regulation of gastrointestinal function is true?
A. The main sympathetic nerve supply to the digestive tract is the vagus.
B. In general, sympathetic stimulation is excitatory to digestive activity.
C. Salivary secretion is stimulated by both branches of the autonomic nervous system, although not to the same degree.
D. Parasympathetic stimulation of the salivary glands produces a saliva rich in mucus.
C. Salivary secretion is stimulated by both branches of the autonomic nervous system, although not to the same degree.
The occlusal surface of a primary mandibular first molar often has a prominent faciolingual ridge. This transverse ridge connects which two cusps?
A. Buccal and distolingual.
B. Mesiolingual and distobuccal.
C. Mesiobuccal and mesiolingual.
D. Distobuccal and distolingual.
C. Mesiobuccal and mesiolingual.
Which of the following disorders is least likely to be included in the differential diagnosis of a patient with jaundice?
A. Hepatitis.
B. Hemolytic anemia.
C. Cholelithiasis.
D. Glomerulonephritis.
E. Carcinoma of the pancreas.
D. Glomerulonephritis.
Arteriovenous anastomoses in deeper skin are important in _____.
A. Immunity
B. Thermoregulation
C. Controlling the arrector pili muscle
D. Pigmentation
E. Pain sensation
B. Thermoregulation
Complications of Barrett’s esophagus include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Varices.
B. Stricture.
C. Hemorrhage.
D. Adenocarcinoma.
E. Ulceration.
A. Varices.
A 30-year-old woman comes to your office for a dental examination. She has not been to the dentist in 2 years. The patient has type I diabetes, which requires her to take insulin. She is otherwise in good health. On intraoral examination, you notice that the dorsum of her tongue has a thick, matted appearance and diagnose her with hairy
tongue. You also find that the patient has deep caries in her upper second maxillary molar.
Which type of papillae is affected that causes the hair-like appearance of her tongue?
A. Foliate.
B. Circumvallate.
C. Fungiform.
D. Filiform.
D. Filiform.
On the patient’s radiograph, you notice that
the pulp chamber in the carious molar appears smaller than the surrounding teeth. This is most likely due to the deposition of which type of dentin?
A. Secondary.
B. Tertiary.
C. Mantle.
D. Sclerotic.
B. Tertiary.
You decide to remove the caries and prepare the patient for anesthesia. Which nerve must you anesthetize to ensure adequate anesthesia for the patient?
A. Nasopalatine nerve.
B. Greater palatine nerve.
C. Anterior superior alveolar nerve.
D. Middle superior alveolar nerve.
E. Posterior superior alveolar nerve.
E. Posterior superior alveolar nerve.
After administering the anesthetic, the patient complains that her “heart feels like it’s racing.” You explain to her that it may be
from the epinephrine in the anesthesia. Which of the following glands could most likely cause the same symptoms in the patient?
A. Hypophysis.
B. Thyroid.
C. Pineal.
D. Suprarenal.
D. Suprarenal.
Name the point angle which represents the junction of the cutting edge of an incisor with the surface that is toward the tongue and the surface that is away from the midline.
A. Distoproximoincisal.
B. Distolabioincisal.
C. Distolinguoincisal.
D. Labioincisolinguo.
C. Distolinguoincisal.
Ureters travel inferiorly just _____ the parietal peritoneum of the posterior body wall. They pass _____ to the common iliac arteries as they enter the pelvis.
A. Above; posterior
B. Above; anterior
C. Below; posterior
D. Below; anterior
E. Above; superior
D. Below; anterior
Aspartame contains aspartic acid and which of the following amino acids?
A. Phenylalanine.
B. Leucine.
C. Isoleucine.
D. Lysine.
E. Proline.
A. Phenylalanine.
Injury to which of the following nerves would affect abduction of the eyeball?
A. Optic nerve.
B. Oculomotor.
C. Trochlear.
D. Trigeminal.
E. Abducens
E. Abducens
Which of the following statements regarding tubular secretion in the kidney is true?
A. The secretion of K+ increases when a person is in acidosis.
B. The secretion of H+ increases when a person is in alkalosis.
C. It is a process that transports substances from the filtrate to the capillary blood.
D. It accounts for most of the K+ in the urine.
D. It accounts for most of the K+ in the urine.
_____ marks the end of growth in length of long bones.
A. Diaphyseal closure
B. Epiphyseal closure
C. Ossification
D. Formation of periosteum
E. Cessation of bone remodeling
B. Epiphyseal closure
The presence of M-protein antibodies suggests immunity to infection by which type of bacteria?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes.
B. Streptococcus viridans.
C. Streptococcus sanguis.
D. Staphylococcus aureus.
E. Lactobacillus casei.
A. Streptococcus pyogenes.
The synthesis of all steroid hormones involves which of the following compounds?
A. Pregnenolone.
B. Progesterone.
C. Aldosterone.
D. Cortisone.
E. Testosterone.
A. Pregnenolone.
A mother brings her 12-year-old boy to the dentist to ask about her son grinding his teeth and about some white “spots” located on the smooth-sur faced enamel of several of his anterior teeth and premolars. Among other questions about the cause of the defects, the mother then asks when a systemic disturbance occurred that may have caused the “spots”. The patient has excessive tooth wear from bruxing and clenching. The dentist measures the cervical-incisal length of the permanent maxillary central incisor (10.5 mm). Also
measured is the distance from the CEJ to the midpoint of the defect (5.5 mm). Given that the crown is completed over a period of 4 to 5 years it is possible to estimate the age at which the hypoplasia occurred using 6 months or yearly periods in the following formula:
ADF = ACF − (yrs. of formation/crown height × distance of defect from CEJ).
Using an average age of crown formation (ACF) of both 4 and 5 years, the age of defect formation (ADF) is estimated to be about what time?
A. 7–9 months in utero.
B. 0–1 years of age.
C. 1–2 years.
D. 2–3 years.
D. 2–3 years.
The increase of fluorosis of permanent teeth in both nonfluoridated and optimally fluoridated populations points to the need for dentists to caution parents with children about potential causes of fluorosis in children. Which of the following cautions about fluoride is correct, but the age or implied age is NOT Correct?
A. Excess (> 1 ppm) fluoride in the drinking
water during enamel formation.
B. Excessive (> pea-sized amount) use of fluoride toothpaste under 6 years of age.
C. Use of fluoride toothpaste only for children under 4 years of age.
D. Use of a 1.1% sodium fluoride toothpaste or gel by pediatric patients only when 6 years of age and older.
C. Use of fluoride toothpaste only for children under 4 years of age.
Systemic etiologic factors that are said to be associated with enamel defects such as hypoplasia occur generally in what period of time?
A. Before birth.
B. Generally after birth and before the age of 6 years.
C. During the first year postpartum for
Hutchinson’s incisors.
D. During birth.
B. Generally after birth and before the age of 6 years.
The differential diagnosis of white “spots” of the enamel of primary and permanent teeth should include disorders that have a substantiated cause. Which of the following DO NOT have an evidence-based causal relationship with enamel hypoplasia?
A. Rickets.
B. Congenital syphilis.
C. Measles.
D. Fluorosis.
C. Measles.
Clenching and grinding of teeth involves contraction of skeletal type muscles. Several types of myofilaments are present in the contractile elements of skeletal muscles. Which statement about muscle filaments IS NOT true?
A. Myosin forms the thick filament of muscle.
B. Actin is a major protein of thin filaments.
C. Titin is a protein of elastic filament.
D. Connectin is a protein of intermediate
filament.
D. Connectin is a protein of intermediate
filament.
The clinical examination of the patient reveals extensive wear of the right canines, and somewhat less wear of the lateral incisors. Also there is tenderness of the jaw closing muscles, particularly on the right side. The muscle(s) that would be involved primarily in providing most of the force for anterior tooth clenching include which of the following masticatory muscles?
A. Inferior lateral pterygoid muscle.
B. Superior lateral pterygoid muscle.
C. Anterior temporalis muscle.
D. Masseter muscle.
D. Masseter muscle.
Sleep bruxism (SB) is defined by many but not all of the following characteristics. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Stereotypical movement disorder.
B. Grinding and clenching of the teeth during sleep.
C. More frequent in the younger generation.
D. Individuals who brux during the daytime
inevitably brux at night.
D. Individuals who brux during the daytime
inevitably brux at night.
Recent physiologic evidence suggests that central and/or autonomic nervous systems rather than peripheral sensory factors play a dominant role in the genesis of sleep bruxism (SB). Which statement about the central genesis of SB is NOT true?
A. During sleep the mouth is usually open due to motor repression.
B. Tooth contact most likely occurs in association with sleep arousal.
C. Some peripheral sensory factors may exert an influence on SB through their interaction with sleep-awake mechanisms.
D. Sequential change from autonomic (cardiac)/brain cortical activities follows SB
related jaw motor activity
D. Sequential change from autonomic (cardiac)/brain cortical activities follows SB
related jaw motor activity
Aggravation of bruxism has been suggested to occur secondarily to all of the following occlusal relationships except one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Occlusal interferences in centric relation.
B. Occlusal interferences in the intercuspal position.
C. Iatrogenic occlusal relations that interfere with bruxism.
D. Angle Class III malocclusion (prognathism)
D. Angle Class III malocclusion (prognathism)
The differential diagnosis of enamel hypoplasia should take into account suggested differences between non-fluoride and fluoride opacities. Which of the following statements does not suggest a basis for a diagnosis of non-fluoride (NF) enamel hypoplasia?
A. Levels of F in drinking water that range from 0.2 to 0.34 ppm have been reported to be associated with prevalences of NF enamel opacities ranging from 22% to 35%.
B. At a level of 1 to 1.5 ppm of F in drinking
water, only few F opacities occur.
C. Most NF enamel opacities appear as white, opaque spots in smooth surface enamel; areas of mild dental fluorosis are lusterless, opaque white patches.
D. Fluorosis and NF opacities are clinically significantly different.
D. Fluorosis and NF opacities are clinically significantly different.
During muscle contraction what physical
change DOES NOT occur relative to muscle
fiber contraction?
A. Sarcomeres—shorten.
B. Thick and thin filaments—shorten.
C. I Band—shortens.
D. H zone—shortens.
B. Thick and thin filaments—shorten.
Regarding the superior and inferior heads of the lateral pterygoid muscle (SHLP and IHLP), which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. Hypothetically, SHLP and IHLP can be considered to be parts of one muscle.
B. Distributions of SHLP and IHLP activities are shaded according to biochemical demands of tasks.
C. SHLP stabilizes the condyle and disk against the articular eminence in a wide range of jaw movements and forces.
D. IHLP plays a major role in the generation and fine control of horizontal forces.
C. SHLP stabilizes the condyle and disk against the articular eminence in a wide range of jaw movements and forces.
The process of active sodium transport in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is
absolutely essential for which of the following processes?
A. Regulation of chloride excretion.
B. Regulation of pH in extracellular fluid.
C. Regulation of aldosterone excretion.
D. Regulation of water excretion
D. Regulation of water excretion
Hypertension (long-term) will be compensated by which of the following renal mechanisms?
A. Increased circulating ADH (vasopressin).
B. Increased sympathetic activity.
C. Decreased circulating aldosterone.
D. Increased circulating angiotensin II.
C. Decreased circulating aldosterone.
The most superficial layer of the epidermis is the stratum _____.
A. Spinosum
B. Basale
C. Granulosum
D. Lucidum
E. Corneum
E. Corneum
Where are the cells that produce calcitonin
located?
A. Red marrow.
B. Adrenal gland.
C. Parathyroid gland.
D. Thyroid gland.
E. Spleen.
D. Thyroid gland.
In mature dentin, the ratio of inorganic to organic matter is approximately _____.
A. 94:6
B. 50:50
C. 70:30
D. 80:20
E. 60:40
C. 70:30
All of the following symptoms are mediated by antibodies except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Arthus reaction.
B. Tuberculin reaction.
C. Asthma.
D. Erythroblastosis fetalis.
E. Serum sickness.
B. Tuberculin reaction.
The pancreas produces enzymes that are responsible for the digestion of dietary compounds. Which of the following foods would not be digested by enzymes synthesized and secreted by the pancreas?
A. Carbohydrates.
B. Lipids.
C. Vitamins.
D. Protein
C. Vitamins.
The primary sensory neurons’ nucleus of termination involved in the jaw jerk reflex is the _____.
A. Facial nucleus
B. Trochlear nucleus
C. Mesencephalic nucleus
D. Spinal trigeminal nucleus
E. Nucleus of solitary tract
C. Mesencephalic nucleus
Aldosterone _____.
A. Stimulates N reabsorption in the distal and collecting ducts
B. Is secreted by the juxtaglomerular apparatus
C. Stimulates K absorption in the distal tubule
D. Stimulates bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule
A. Stimulates N reabsorption in the distal and collecting ducts
The first evidence of calcification (weeks in
utero) in the primary dentition occurs in
which of the following teeth at about what
age?
A. Maxillary central incisor—14 (13–16) weeks.
B. Mandibular central incisor—12 (10–13) weeks.
C. Maxillary lateral incisor—14 (13–16) weeks.
D. Mandibular lateral incisor—14 (13–15)
weeks.
A. Maxillary central incisor—14 (13–16) weeks.
From the lingual perspective, the crown of the primary maxillary second molar shows which of the following?
A. Small, well-developed mesiolingual cusp.
B. Distolingual (DL) cusp smaller than the maxillary primary first molar DL cusp.
C. There is no supplemental cusp apical to the mesiolingual cusp.
D. Developmental groove separating the mesiolingual and distolingual cusps.
D. Developmental groove separating the mesiolingual and distolingual cusps.
An 8-year-old boy presents with macroglossia and delayed eruption of his primary teeth. Of the following choices, which one is most likely?
A. Plummer’s disease.
B. Osteochondroses.
C. Cretinism.
D. Wilson’s disease.
E. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
C. Cretinism.
A major function of surfactant is to increase which of the following?
A. Pulmonary compliance.
B. Alveolar surface tension.
C. The work of breathing.
D. The tendency of the lungs to collapse.
A. Pulmonary compliance.
Red pulp in the spleen consists of _____.
A. Fibroblasts
B. T lymphocytes
C. B lymphocytes
D. Macrophages
E. Chromaffin cells
D. Macrophages
The velocity of blood flow _____.
A. Is higher in the capillaries than the arterioles
B. Is higher in the veins than in the venules
C. Is higher in the veins than in the arteries
D. Falls to zero in the descending aorta during diastole
B. Is higher in the veins than in the venules
Neuraminidase is produced by _____.
A. Influenza virus
B. Hepatitis C viruses
C. Human immunodeficiency virus
D. Measles virus
E. Rubella virus
A. Influenza virus
Which sequence of eruption of permanent teeth occurs most often? (8-7-6-5-4-3-2-1 = M3-M2-M1-P2-P1-C-LI-CI). First #, #’s in each series is considered to be the first to erupt.
A. 6-1-2-4-3-5-7-8 (Maxilla).
B. 6-1-2-3-4-5-7-8 (Maxilla).
C. (6-1)-2-4-3-5-7-8 (Mandible).
D. 1-6-2-4-5-3-7-8 (Mandible).
C. (6-1)-2-4-3-5-7-8 (Mandible).
All of the following are histopathologic features of malignant cells except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Anaplasia.
B. Pleomorphism.
C. Aneuploidy.
D. Large nuclei.
E. Low nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio.
E. Low nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio.
The vertebral artery meets with the basilar artery at the lower border of the _____.
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Temporal lobe
E. C1
B. Pons
Which of the following is not involved in the process of gene cloning?
A. DNA polymerase.
B. RNA ligase.
C. RNA polymerase.
D. Restriction endonuclease.
244. Which of the following is the
C. RNA polymerase.
Which of the following is the most significant stimulant of the respiratory center?
A. Decreased blood oxygen tension.
B. Increased blood hydrogen ion concentration.
C. Decreased blood hydrogen ion concentration.
D. Increased blood carbon dioxide tension
D. Increased blood carbon dioxide tension
The infraorbital nerve is a branch of the _____.
A. Optic nerve
B. Oculomotor nerve
C. Ophthalmic nerve
D. Maxillary nerve
E. Mandibular nerve
D. Maxillary nerve
Root bifurcation would be a more likely finding in which of the following permanent teeth?
A. Maxillary canine.
B. Mandibular canine.
C. Maxillary central incisor.
D. Mandibular lateral incisor.
B. Mandibular canine.
Which one of the following carbohydrates is a ketose sugar?
A. Galactose.
B. Fructose.
C. Glucose.
D. Mannose.
E. Glyceraldehydes
B. Fructose.
Which of the following antimicrobials is bacteriostatic and inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria?
A. Streptomycin.
B. Penicillin V.
C. Ciprofloxacin.
D. Cephalexin.
E. Tetracycline.
E. Tetracycline.
The auricular hillocks are derived from the _____.
A. First branchial arch
B. Second branchial arch
C. First and second branchial arch
D. Lateral nasal process
E. Medial nasal process
C. First and second branchial arch
Comparing the overall length of primary central incisors (E⎪F ) with permanent maxillary central incisors (8⎪9), which is the
correct ratio expressed as a percentage?
A. About 50%.
B. About 60%.
C. About 70%.
D. About 80%.
C. About 70%.
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a disease affecting _____.
A. Bone
B. Connective tissue
C. Muscle
D. Joints
E. Glycogen synthesis
B. Connective tissue
Which of the following participate in both fatty acid biosynthesis and b-oxidation of fatty acids?
A. Malonyl CoA.
B. FAD.
C. Acetyl CoA.
D. NAD.
C. Acetyl CoA.
Insulin produces which of the following
changes in mammalian cells?
A. Increase in liver glycogen production.
B. Increase in blood glucose concentration.
C. Decrease in the transport of glucose into
muscle.
D. Increase in the transport of glucose into the brain.
A. Increase in liver glycogen production.
Osteocytes are found in _____ in mature bone.
A. Trabeculae
B. Lacunae
C. The central canal
D. Canaliculi
E. Spicules
B. Lacunae
Which one of the following morphological
characteristic is representative of all
posterior maxillary teeth?
A. Marked mesial concavity on crowns and
roots.
B. Tips of cusps are well within the confines of the root trunks.
C. From mesial/distal aspect, crowns are rhomboidal in shape.
D. From mesial/distal aspect, all maxillary posterior crowns are trapezoidal with shortest uneven side toward occlusal surface.
D. From mesial/distal aspect, all maxillary posterior crowns are trapezoidal with shortest uneven side toward occlusal surface.
Nephrolithiasis is most likely to be associated with which of the following conditions?
A. Hyperparathyroidism.
B. Myxedema.
C. Pyelonephritis.
D. Wilson’s disease.
E. Thrombocytopenia
A. Hyperparathyroidism.
The rate-limiting enzyme in glycolysis is which of the following?
A. Fructose bisphosphatase.
B. Phosphofructokinase.
C. Phosphoglucose isomerase.
D. Glucokinase.
B. Phosphofructokinase.
The type of collagen characteristically found in cartilage is which of the following?
A. Type I.
B. Type II.
C. Type III.
D. Type IV.
B. Type II.
A most characteristic feature of the primary maxillary central incisor is which of the following?
A. Faciolingual breadth of the crown.
B. Mesiodistal width of the crown.
C. Mesial and distal margin outlines in line with profiles of root.
D. Root/crown ratio.
B. Mesiodistal width of the crown.
The spread of an odontogenic infection to
which of the following spaces would MOST
likely be considered life-threatening?
A. Submandibular space
B. Sublingual space
C. Parapharyngeal space
D. Retropharyngeal space
E. Pterygomandibular space
D. Retropharyngeal space
The most common mutation accounting for
the pathogenesis of trisomy 21 is _____.
A. Chromosome translocation
B. Meiotic nondisjunction
C. Mitotic nondisjunction
D. Single deletion
E. X-linked inheritance
B. Meiotic nondisjunction
What type of collagen is found in cementum?
A. Type I collagen.
B. Type II collagen.
C. Type III collagen.
D. Type IV collagen.
E. Type V collagen
A. Type I collagen.
What happens to net filtration in the
glomerulus when plasma protein
concentration is decreased?
A. Net filtration (ultrafiltration) increases.
B. Net filtration (ultrafiltration) decreases.
C. Net filtration remains unchanged.
D. Net filtration ceases
A. Net filtration (ultrafiltration) increases.
The presence of Auer rods in a peripheral blood smear suggests which of the following conditions?
A. Acute lymphocytic leukemia.
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
C. Acute myelogenous leukemia.
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
E. Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
C. Acute myelogenous leukemia.
Hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland include which of the following?
A. Prolactin.
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone.
C. Luteinizing hormone.
D. Vasopressin
D. Vasopressin
Which of the following is the predominant
immunoglobulin in whole saliva?
A. Secretory IgA.
B. Secretory IgG.
C. Secretory IgM.
D. Secretory IgB
A. Secretory IgA.
Which of the following is not an arch trait of the maxillary canine?
A. In the same dentition, the crown is larger than the mandibular canine.
B. The incisal margin of the crown occupies at least one third to one half of crown height.
C. Labial aspect: mesial and distal marginal
ridges converge toward cervix.
D. Marked symmetry of mesial/distal halves when viewed from incisal.
D. Marked symmetry of mesial/distal halves when viewed from incisal.
During exercise, which of the following is
decreased?
A. Oxidation of fatty acids.
B. Glucagon release.
C. Glycogenolysis.
D. Lipogenesis.
D. Lipogenesis.
Involution of the thymus would occur following which year in a healthy
individual?
A. 0 years (at birth).
B. 12th year.
C. 20th year.
D. 60th year.
B. 12th year.
Monoamine oxidase (MAO) _____.
A. Inactivates reduced steroid derivatives
B. Is activated by MAO inhibitors
C. Inactivates catecholamines by oxidative
deamination
D. Is located in the synapse where it inactivates
the neurotransmitter acetylcholine
C. Inactivates catecholamines by oxidative
deamination
Sleep bruxism can be characterized by which of the following?
A. Episodes of massive, bilateral clenching.
B. Tooth grinding that may last for up to 20 minutes.
C. Often coincides with passage from lighter to deeper sleep.
D. Occurs approximately every 20 minutes in the sleep cycle.
A. Episodes of massive, bilateral clenching
An endocrine disorder that causes an early loss of primary teeth and the early eruption of secondary teeth is _____.
A. Myxedema
B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
C. DiGeorge’s syndrome
D. Plummer’s disease
E. Dwarfism
D. Plummer’s disease
Which of the following factors will not influence the rate at which a meal will leave the stomach?
A. Acidification of the duodenum.
B. Increasing the tonicity of the intestine.
C. Saline in the duodenum.
D. Lipid in the intestine.
C. Saline in the duodenum.
Occlusal interferences can be defined by all of the following except:
A. Occlusal contact relations that interfere with function.
B. Interference to jaw closure into the intercuspal position.
C. Interferences to laterotrusive movements.
D. Interferences to jaw opening.
D. Interferences to jaw opening.
The olecranon fossa is located on the _____
surface of the _____.
A. Superior; radius
B. Anterior; humerus
C. Posterior; humerus
D. Anterior; radius
C. Posterior; humerus
Which of the following is usually least malignant?
A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
B. Acute lymphocytic leukemia.
C. Acute myelogenous leukemia.
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
E. Chronic myelogenous leukemia.
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
Each of the following describes collagen
except one. Which is the exception?
A. Most abundant protein in the body.
B. Modifications to procollagen occur in the
extracellular matrix.
C. Incorporates hydroxyproline into the molecule by Trna.
D. Hydroxylation of proline requires vitamin C and molecular oxygen.
C. Incorporates hydroxyproline into the molecule by Trna.
Which position of the mental foramen relative to the mandibular premolars and first molar occurs most frequently?
A. Between the first and second premolars.
B. In line with the second premolar.
C. Distal to the second premolar.
D. In line with the mesial root of the first molar.
C. Distal to the second premolar.
From the lingual perspective the primary maxillary first molar has which of the following characteristics?
A. Distolingual cusp is the most prominent cusp.
B. Mesiolingual cusp poorly defined.
C. Distobuccal cusp cannot be seen from lingual aspect.
D. Crown converges considerably in a lingual direction.
D. Crown converges considerably in a lingual direction.
In addition to the esophagus itself, which of the following structures also passes through the diaphragm through the esophageal opening?
A. The aorta.
B. The inferior vena cava.
C. The azygos vein.
D. The posterior and anterior vagal trunks.
E. The splanchnic nerves.
D. The posterior and anterior vagal trunks.
Which one of the following does not release acetylcholine?
A. Sympathetic preganglionic fibers.
B. Sympathetic postganglionic fibers that innervate the heart.
C. Parasympathetic postganglionic fibers to effector organs.
D. Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers.
B. Sympathetic postganglionic fibers that innervate the heart.
An infant diagnosed with osteopetrosis has
dysfunctional _____.
A. Chondrocytes
B. Osteoblasts
C. Osteoclasts
D. Fibroblasts
E. Lymphocytes
C. Osteoclasts
Langerhans’ cells are located primarily in stratum _____.
A. Corneum
B. Lucidum
C. Granulosum
D. Spinosum
E. Basale
D. Spinosum
Which of the following would be expected to raise blood pressure?
A. A drug that inhibits the angiotensin II converting enzyme and thus the production
of angiotensin II (ACE inhibitors).
B. A drug that inhibits the synthesis of nitric oxide.
C. A drug that blocks vasopressin receptors.
D. Increased stimulation of the carotid baroreceptor.
B. A drug that inhibits the synthesis of nitric oxide.
When are the crowns of the primary maxillary second molars completed?
A. 11 months.
B. 10 months.
C. 9 months.
D. 8 months.
A. 11 months.
Which of the following processes is not a true component of swallowing?
A. Closure of the glottis.
B. Involuntary relaxation of the upper esophageal sphincter.
C. Involuntary movements of the tongue against the palate.
D. Esophageal peristalsis.
C. Involuntary movements of the tongue against the palate.
Which of the following receptors are recognized by CD8 lymphocytes?
A. Class I MHC molecules.
B. Class II MHC molecules.
C. Surface IgE.
D. Surface IgM.
E. Histamine receptor.
A. Class I MHC molecules.
Which one of the following is not a normal anatomical feature of mandibular
incisors?
A. Bifurcated roots.
B. Inconspicuous cingula.
C. Four developmental lobes.
D. Incisal edges placed slightly lingually
A. Bifurcated roots.
The _____ differentiates into ameloblasts.
A. Stellate reticulum
B. Inner enamel epithelium in the cap stage
C. Inner enamel epithelium in the bell stage
D. Outer enamel epithelium in the cap stage
E. Outer enamel epithelium in the bell stage
C. Inner enamel epithelium in the bell stage
Which of the following statements is true of
the histology of the trachea?
A. The mucosa is covered with oral epithelium.
B. Elastic cartilage rings lie deep to the submucosa.
C. The cartilage is ring-shaped; the open end of the ring faces anterior.
D. The cartilage is covered by a perichondrium.
E. Skeletal muscle extends across the open end of each cartilage.
D. The cartilage is covered by a perichondrium.
In pemphigus, autoantibodies are directed against which of the following structures?
A. Acetylcholine receptor.
B. Sarcomere.
C. Epidermis.
D. Thyroid follicle.
E. Lysosomes.
C. Epidermis.
Which one of the following is elevated in plasma during the absorptive period (compared to the postabsorptive state)?
A. Chylomicrons.
B. Acetoacetate.
C. Lactate.
D. Glucagon
A. Chylomicrons.
Recent focus on causative factors in bruxism include ALL of the following Except?
A. Occlusal interferences.
B. Part of a sleep arousal response.
C. Pathophysiological factors.
D. Neurotransmitters in the central nervous system.
A. Occlusal interferences.
A distinct central developmental groove, prominent buccal triangular ridge, two cusps and distinct mesial and distal occlusal pits would be most characteristic of:
A. Mandibular first premolars.
B. Primary mandibular first molars.
C. Primary mandibular second molars.
D. Mandibular second premolars.
A. Mandibular first premolars.
An autoclave sterilize dental instruments by
causing which of the following?
A. Coagulation of proteins.
B. Denaturing of proteins.
C. Precipitation of nucleic acids.
D. Disruption of cell membranes.
E. Dissolution of lipids.
B. Denaturing of proteins.
Porphyrins use which amino acid in their synthesis?
A. Alanine.
B. Phenylalanine.
C. Cysteine.
D. Glycine.
D. Glycine.
The dental lamina arises from _____.
A. Somites
B. Neural crest cells
C. The first branchial arch
D. The second branchial arch
E. The buccopharyngeal membrane
B. Neural crest cells
Karyotyping can be used to diagnose which of the following diseases?
A. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
B. Multiple myeloma.
C. Niemann-Pick disease.
D. Pemphigus.
E. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.
A. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
Muscle spindle stretching when the patellar tendon is tapped produces which of the following responses?
A. Muscle contraction within muscle where the spindles are located.
B. Increased sympathetic stimulation of the spindles.
C. A reduction in the number of afferent impulses entering the spinal cord.
D. An inhibition of the stretch reflex.
A. Muscle contraction within muscle where the spindles are located.
In terms of vertical dimension, where is the mental foramen found most frequently?
A. At the apices of the premolars.
B. Coronal to the apices.
C. Below the apices.
D. No particular location predominates.
C. Below the apices.
Urinary filtrate is most hypotonic in the _____.
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending limb of Henle’s loop
C. Thin segment of Henle’s loop
D. Thick ascending segment of Henle’s loop
E. Distal convoluted tubule
E. Distal convoluted tubule
There are _____ pairs of true ribs.
A. Four
B. Five
C. Seven
D. Eleven
E. Twelve
C. Seven
Based on average MD diameters of the crowns of primary teeth, the range for average overall length of the primary maxillary arch is about what dimension?
A. 60–68 mm.
B. 68–76 mm.
C. 76–84 mm.
D. 84–92 mm.
B. 68–76 mm.
Symptoms of a myocardial infarction include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Angina.
B. Diaphoresis.
C. Fever.
D. Vomiting.
E. Dyspnea.
C. Fever.
Which process transports amino acids across the luminal surface of the epithelia that lines the small intestine?
A. Simple diffusion.
B. Primary active transport.
C. Cotransport with sodium ion.
D. Cotransport with chloride ion
C. Cotransport with sodium ion.
Which of the following cells are capable of mitosis?
A. Smooth muscle.
B. Skeletal muscle.
C. Cardiac muscle.
D. Type I pneumocytes.
E. Neurons.
A. Smooth muscle.
Vitamin K serves as a coenzyme for:
A. The enzymatic hydroxylation of proline to 4 hydroxyproline.
B. The carboxylation of inactive prothrombin to form active prothrombin.
C. The synthesis of nucleic acids.
D. Protein synthesis
B. The carboxylation of inactive prothrombin to form active prothrombin.
Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common oral cancer. It is a tumor of _____.
A. Melanocytes
B. Basal cells
C. Fibroblasts
D. Keratinocytes
E. Macrophages
D. Keratinocytes
Which of the following is NOT a type trait of the permanent maxillary first premolar?
A. Occlusal table outline, trapezoidal.
B. Generally two roots—mesial and distal.
C. Central groove is long.
D. Supplementary grooves are rare.
B. Generally two roots—mesial and distal.
Which of the following skin lesions is most likely premalignant?
A. Verruca vulgaris.
B. Keloids.
C. Seborrheic keratosis.
D. Actinic keratosis.
E. Compound nevus.
D. Actinic keratosis.
Which of the following statements regarding the hormone secretin is true?
A. It is responsible for activating chymotrypsinogen.
B. It stimulates the release of pancreatic secretion rich in bicarbonate.
C. It stimulates the release of pancreatic enzymes.
D. It stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder to release bile.
B. It stimulates the release of pancreatic secretion rich in bicarbonate.
Which primary tooth generally erupts last?
A. Mandibular second molar.
B. Maxillary second molar.
C. Maxillary canine.
D. Mandibular canine.
B. Maxillary second molar.
The latissimus dorsi muscle is supplied by the _____ nerve.
A. Medial pectoral
B. Cranial nerve XI
C. Dorsal scapular
D. Thoracodorsal
D. Thoracodorsal
Which of the following responses is due to the stimulation of α-adrenergic receptors?
A. Slowing of heart rate.
B. Constriction of blood vessels in skin.
C. Increased gastrointestinal motility.
D. Increased renal blood flow.
B. Constriction of blood vessels in skin.
Which of the following contributes primary sensory innervation to the temporomandibular joint?
A. Auriculotemporal nerve.
B. Infraorbital nerve.
C. Branch of the lingual nerve.
D. Facial nerve.
A. Auriculotemporal nerve.
All of the following arteries are branches of the mandibular division of the maxillary artery except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Incisive artery.
B. Submental artery.
C. Middle meningeal artery.
D. Mylohyoid artery.
E. Deep auricular artery.
B. Submental artery.
Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by
inflammation of the _____.
A. Articular capsule
B. Articular cartilage
C. Cortical bone
D. Perichondrium
E. Synovium
E. Synovium
Which of the following muscles of the back is supplied by the CN XI?
A. Levator scapulae.
B. Latissimus dorsi.
C. Trapezius.
D. Major rhomboid.
E. Minor rhomboid.
C. Trapezius.
A positive quelling reaction can be observed in bacteria with a _____.
A. Thick peptidoglycan layer
B. Capsule
C. Flagella
D. Cell wall that contains teichoic acid
E. Glycocalyx coating
B. Capsule
In which of the following might arterial blood pressure be abnormally high?
A. Ventricular fibrillation.
B. Heart failure.
C. Anaphylactic shock.
D. Increased intracranial pressure
D. Increased intracranial pressure
All of the following can be found in the cell wall of a gram negative bacterium except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Endotoxin.
B. A thin peptidoglycan layer.
C. Lipopolysaccharide.
D. Teichoic acid.
E. O antigen.
D. Teichoic acid. - can be found in a cell wall of gram positive bacteria
The articulating surfaces of the temporomandibular joint are covered with _____.
A. Fibrocartilage
B. Hyaline cartilage
C. Articular cartilage
D. Elastic cartilage
E. Perichondrium
A. Fibrocartilage
The binding of epinephrine or glucagon to the corresponding membrane receptor has which of the following effects on glycogen metabolism?
A. The net synthesis of glycogen is increased.
B. Glycogen phosphorylase is activated while
glycogen synthase is inactivated.
C. Glycogen phosphorylase is inactivated while
glycogen synthase is activated.
D. Both glycogen synthase and phosphorylase
are activated.
E. Both glycogen synthase and phosphorylase
are inactivated.
B. Glycogen phosphorylase is activated while
glycogen synthase is inactivated.
If posterior teeth on the left side contact
occlusally during a right lateral excursion of the mandible, the left side occlusal contact would be referred to as:
A. Laterotrusive contact.
B. Protrusive contact.
C. Mediotrusive contact.
D. Centric relation.
C. Mediotrusive contact.
Blood from the internal carotid artery
reaches the posterior cerebral artery by the
_____.
A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Anterior communicating artery
C. Posterior communicating artery
D. Posterior superior cerebellar artery
E. Basilar artery
C. Posterior communicating artery
ATP is utilized directly for each of the following processes except:
A. Accumulation of Ca2+ by the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B. Transport of Na+ from intracellular to extracellular fluid.
C. Transport of K+ from extracellular to intracellular fluid.
D. Transport of H+ from parietal cells into the lumen of the stomach.
E. Transport of glucose into muscle cells.
E. Transport of glucose into muscle cells.
All of the following microbes listed are associated with infections secondary to an HIV infection except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii).
B. Epstein-Barr virus.
C. Coxsackievirus.
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
E. Candida albicans.
C. Coxsackievirus.
Which of the following is not a type trait of the permanent maxillary second premolar?
A. Buccal view: narrow shoulders (margins of
crown; mesio- and disto-occlusal angles).
B. Occlusal table outline: ovoid.
C. Mesiomarginal groove interrupts mesial marginal ridge.
D. Lingual view: buccal profile is not visible.
C. Mesiomarginal groove interrupts mesial marginal ridge.
What is the correct schematic outline of the following teeth?
A. Mandibular premolars, viewed from occlusal,
rhomboidal.
B. Maxillary central incisors, viewed from facial, triangles.
C. Maxillary lateral incisors, viewed from mesial, trapezoidal.
D. All mandibular posterior teeth, distal aspect, rhomboidal.
D. All mandibular posterior teeth, distal aspect, rhomboidal.
Which of the following consists of glucose molecules linked together that act as the structural component of plaque?
A. Fructose.
B. Sucrose.
C. Levans.
D. Dextrans.
E. Fructans
D. Dextrans.
Hydroxyapatite _____.
A. Is weakened if fluoride is substituted for some of the hydroxyl ions
B. Is a noncrystalline structure
C. If containing carbonate ion becomes more soluble
D. Is composed of calcium and phosphate in a 1:1 ratio
C. If containing carbonate ion becomes more soluble
Tooth enamel is derived from _____.
A. Endoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Ectoderm
D. Endoderm and mesoderm
E. Ectoderm and mesoderm
C. Ectoderm
Which portion of uriniferous tubules contains squamous epithelial cells?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule.
B. Thick descending limb of Henle’s loop.
C. Thin segment of Henle’s loop.
D. Thick ascending segment of Henle’s loop.
E. Distal convoluted tubule.
C. Thin segment of Henle’s loop.
Which of the following enzymes found in the liver is involved in gluconeogenesis during the postabsorptive state?
A. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
B. 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase.
C. Glucose 6-phosphatase.
D. Glucokinase.
C. Glucose 6-phosphatase.
The heights of contour of the distal surfaces of permanent mandibular central incisors are located in which coronal third?
A. Middle.
B. Cervical.
C. Occlusal.
D. Incisal.
D. Incisal.
Accumulation of fluid in the pericardium
occurs most often with which of the following
conditions?
A. Unstable angina.
B. Cardiomyopathy.
C. Myocarditis.
D. Acute pericarditis.
E. Tamponade.
E. Tamponade.
The correct order of tooth formation is _____.
A. Ameloblasts form, odontoblasts form, ameloblasts start to form enamel, odonto blasts start to form dentin
B. Ameloblasts form, odontoblasts form, odontoblasts start to form dentin, ameloblasts start to form enamel
C. Odontoblasts form, odontoblasts start to form dentin, ameloblasts form, ameloblasts start to form enamel
D. Ameloblasts form, ameloblasts start to form enamel, odontoblasts form, odontoblasts start
to form dentin
E. Odontoblasts form, ameloblasts form, odontoblasts start to form dentin, ameloblasts start
to form enamel
B. Ameloblasts form, odontoblasts form, odontoblasts start to form dentin, ameloblasts start to form enamel
Reduction division occurs during the _____.
A. First stage of mitosis
B. Second stage of mitosis
C. First stage of meiosis
D. Second stage of meiosis
E. Third stage of meiosis
C. First stage of meiosis
All of the following factors play a role in the virulence of the microbe that causes whooping cough except one. Which one is the exception?
A. IgA protease.
B. Hemagglutinin.
C. Exotoxin.
D. Capsule.
E. Pili.
A. IgA protease.
The minimum volume of air that remains in the lungs after a maximal expiration is termed the _____.
A. Tidal volume
B. Functional residual capacity
C. Residual volume
D. Vital capacity
C. Residual volume
From a mesial perspective, the primary maxillary first molar has which of the following characteristics?
A. Pronounced convexity on the buccal outline of
the cervical third.
B. The cervical line mesially shows some curvature in an apical direction.
C. The dimension at the occlusal third is the same as at the cervical third.
D. The mesiobuccal cusp is longer and sharper than the mesiolingual cusp.
D. The mesiobuccal cusp is longer and sharper than the mesiolingual cusp.
The embryo develops from the _____.
A. The entire blastocyst
B. The entire trophoblast
C. The embryonic disc
D. The extraembryonic coelem
E. The morula
C. The embryonic disc
Which primary tooth is generally accepted as the first to erupt, and at about what mean age?
A. Maxillary central incisor, 8 to 12 months.
B. Maxillary central incisor, 7 to 9 months.
C. Mandibular central incisor, 6 to 10 months.
D. Mandibular central incisor, 8 to 10 months.
C. Mandibular central incisor, 6 to 10 months.
Blood levels of progesterone are highest during _____.
A. The follicular phase of the ovarian cycle
B. The luteal phase of the ovarian cycle
C. Ovulation
D. Menstruation
B. The luteal phase of the ovarian cycle
The _____ of the heart is also known as the mitral valve.
A. Right atrioventricular valve
B. Left atrioventricular valve
C. Pulmonary valve
D. Aortic valve
E. Tricuspid valve
B. Left atrioventricular valve
The most common cause of death in diabetic patients is _____.
A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Pancreatic cancer
C. Cardiovascular disease
D. Kidney failure
E. Opportunistic infections
C. Cardiovascular disease
At what time is the crown completed for the tooth indicated?
A. Primary maxillary central incisor, 3 weeks.
B. Permanent maxillary central incisor, 2 to 3 years.
C. Primary maxillary lateral incisor, 2 to 3
months.
D. Permanent maxillary lateral incisor, 2 to 3
years.
C. Primary maxillary lateral incisor, 2 to 3
months.
The Y-shaped central developmental groove is most likely found on which of the following
premolars?
A. Maxillary first.
B. Mandibular first.
C. Maxillary second.
D. Mandibular second.
D. Mandibular second.
The sternal angle between the manubrium and the sternum marks the position of the
_____ rib.
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
E. Fifth
B. Second
Which compound is produced in the hexose monophosphate (pentose phosphate)
pathway?
A. ATP.
B. NADH.
C. NADPH.
D. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate.
E. Phosphoenolpyruvate.
C. NADPH.
Which of the following is the most common cause of subacute endocarditis?
A. Staphylococcus aureus.
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
C. Streptococcus viridans.
D. Streptococcus pyogenes.
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus viridans.
From the occlusal aspect, the primary maxillary first molar has all of the following characteristics, EXCEPT?
A. Crown outline diverges lingually and distally.
B. Small traverse ridge frequently present called an oblique ridge.
C. Four cusps are present.
D. Mesial marginal ridge is thin and poorly developed.
A. Crown outline diverges lingually and distally.
Lymph from the mandibular incisors drain chiefly into _____.
A. Submandibular nodes
B. Submental nodes
C. Superficial parotid nodes
D. Deep cervical nodes
E. Occipital nodes
B. Submental nodes
Which of the following may be observed in a child diagnosed with rickets?
A. Dark pigmentation on the oral mucosa.
B. Early eruption of teeth.
C. Hutchinson’s incisors.
D. Abnormal dentin.
E. Macroglossia.
D. Abnormal dentin.
Which of the following coenzymes are involved in the metabolism of pyruvate to acetyl CoA?
A. Thiamin pyrophosphate, lipoic acid, FAD, NAD, and coenzyme A.
B. NAD, tetrahydrofolate, lipoic acid, FAD, and vitamin B12.
C. Mg2, FAD, nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide, and biotin.
D. Coenzyme A, niacin, FAD, and ascorbic acid
A. Thiamin pyrophosphate, lipoic acid, FAD, NAD, and coenzyme A.
The primary mandibular first molar has which of the following characteristics?
A. Resembles other primary and permanent teeth.
B. From the occlusal perspective, has a
heart-shaped outline.
C. The mesiobuccal cusp is smaller than the distobuccal cusp.
D. No developmental groove is evident between the buccal cusps.
D. No developmental groove is evident between the buccal cusps. (rather developmental depression)
Which of the following muscle attaches to the anterior end of the articular disc of the temporomandibular joint?
A. Superficial head of the medial pterygoid muscle.
B. Deep head of the medial pterygoid muscle.
C. Superior head of the lateral pterygoid
muscle.
D. Inferior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle.
D. Inferior head of the lateral pterygoid muscle.
In a cusp-fossa occlusal relationship, the maxillary second premolar is most likely to articulate with which of the following mandibular teeth?
A. First premolar only.
B. Second premolar only.
C. Canine and first premolar.
D. First and second premolars.
B. Second premolar only.
The presence of which of the following in a patient’s serum indicates that the patient is a highly infectious hepatitis B carrier?
A. HBsAg.
B. HBsAb.
C. HBcAg.
D. HBeAg.
E. HBeAb
D. HBeAg.
Which of the following statements regarding salivary secretion is true?
A. In general, saliva is more hypertonic than
plasma.
B. As salivary flow increases, bicarbonate concentration decreases.
C. As salivary flow increases, ionic concentration increases.
D. Salivary secretion is regulated primarily by hormonal stimulation
C. As salivary flow increases, ionic concentration increases.
The pulmonary vein of the lung carries:
A. Unoxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart
B. Oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart
C. Unoxygenated blood to the lungs from the heart
D. Oxygenated blood to the lungs from the heart
E. Oxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs
B. Oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart
_____ vertebrae are characterized by a heartshaped body.
A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral
E. Coccygeal
B. Thoracic
Lipid micelles are stabilized by which of the following?
A. Hydrophobic interactions.
B. Hydrophilic interactions.
C. Interactions of lipid and water.
D. Interaction of hydrophobic lipid tails with hydrophobic domains of proteins.
A. Hydrophobic interactions.
The HIV virus binds directly to the surface receptors of CD4 lymphocytes with _____.
A. Reverse transcriptase
B. Integrase
C. Hemagglutinin
D. Glycoprotein 120
E. Protease
D. Glycoprotein 120
The maxillary sinus overlies the alveolar processes in particular what teeth?
A. First and second maxillary molars.
B. All maxillary molars.
C. First and second premolars.
D. First and second premolars and first and second molars.
A. First and second maxillary molars.
If jaw opening is divided into phases, and it is assumed that the surfaces of the articulating bones and disc are associated throughout jaw opening, what is the relationship of the disc and condyle in the following phases?
A. In the very earliest phase, the condyle moves forward before the disc.
B. In the early phase, the disc and condyle move anteriorly in concert.
C. In an intermediate phase, the condyle moves forward at a slower rate.
D. In the final phase, the disc moves forward at a faster rate.
B. In the early phase, the disc and condyle move anteriorly in concert.
Endotoxin consists of _____.
A. Lipopolysaccharide
B. M protein
C. Hyaluronidase
D. Lactic acid
E. Coagulase
A. Lipopolysaccharide
The trochlea of the humerus bone articulates with the _____.
A. Ulna of the forearm
B. Radius of the forearm
C. Coronoid process of the ulna of the forearm
D. Olecranon of the ulna of the forearm
E. Medial epicondyle
A. Ulna of the forearm
Increased formation of ketone bodies during fasting is a result of which of the following?
A. Increased oxidation of fatty acids as a source of fuel.
B. Decreased formation of acetyl CoA in the liver.
C. Decreased levels of glucagon.
D. Increased glycogenesis in muscle
A. Increased oxidation of fatty acids as a source of fuel.
Nucleus ambiguus contains the cell bodies of which of the following cranial nerves?
A. III, IV, and V.
B. VII, IX ,and X.
C. VII, IX, and XI.
D. IX, X, and XI.
E. IX, X, and XII.
D. IX, X, and XI.
The participation of calcium in the contraction of skeletal muscle is facilitated or associated with which of the following?
A. Calcium release from sarcoplasmic
reticulum.
B. Calcium binding to the myosin heads.
C. Active transport of calcium out of longitudinal
tubules.
D. Uptake of calcium by T-tubules
A. Calcium release from sarcoplasmic
reticulum.
What type of vaccine is used for Clostridium tetani?
A. Capsular polysaccharides.
B. Toxoids.
C. Killed bacteria.
D. Immunoglobulins.
E. No vaccine is available
B. Toxoids.
Where is the height of contour located relative to the following teeth (viewed from the mesial)?
A. Facial surfaces of all molars, middle third.
B. Lingual surfaces of all premolars and molars, cervical third.
C. Lingual surfaces of molars and premolars, cervical or middle third.
D. Anterior teeth, cervical or middle third.
C. Lingual surfaces of molars and premolars, cervical or middle third.
The gamma motor neurons control which of the following?
A. Muscle spindles.
B. Iris of the eye.
C. Voluntary muscle fibers.
D. Pyloric sphincter.
A. Muscle spindles.
Which of the following organelles is surrounded by a double membrane?
A. Ribosome.
B. Golgi apparatus.
C. Lysosome.
D. Cytoplasmic inclusion.
E. Mitochondria.
F. Ganglion cells.
E. Mitochondria.
Calcium that enters the cell during smooth muscle excitation binds with which of the following?
A. Calmodulin.
B. Inactive myosin kinase.
C. Troponin.
D. Myosin.
E. Actin.
A. Calmodulin.
The lumen of the gastrointestinal tract is lined with _____.
A. Mucosa
B. Submucosa
C. Muscularis externa
D. Fibrosa
E. Adventitia
A. Mucosa
Which one of the following is found on the crown of permanent mandibular first molars but is not found on the crowns of mandibular second molars?
A. MB cusp.
B. Distobuccal groove.
C. Lingual groove.
D. DB cusp.
B. Distobuccal groove.
Which of the following mediators aid in the killing of intracellular bacteria?
A. Histamine.
B. Interleukin-2.
C. Catalase.
D. IgG.
E. Lysozyme
E. Lysozyme
Chromosomes line up at a cell’s equator during which phase of mitosis?
A. Telophase.
B. Metaphase.
C. Interphase.
D. Anaphase.
E. Prophase.
B. Metaphase.
Following the production of Okazaki fragments, which of the following is required to close the gap between the fragments?
A. DNA ligase.
B. DNA polymerase.
C. RNA polymerase.
D. Reverse transcriptase.
A. DNA ligase.
The maxillary nerve passes through which of the following?
A. Superior orbital fissure.
B. Internal acoustic meatus.
C. Foramen ovale.
D. Foramen rotundum.
E. Foramen spinosum.
D. Foramen rotundum.
A productive cough may be seen in all of the following conditions except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Pneumonia.
B. Lung abscess.
C. Bronchiectasis.
D. Asthma.
E. Bronchogenic carcinoma.
D. Asthma.
For each type of tooth, the primary teeth consistently show which of the following characteristics?
A. Greater mesiodistal diameter relative to crown height than permanent teeth.
B. An elongated appearance of the primary crowns and roots.
C. Crowns that are translucent white in color.
D. Root trunk one-half that of crown height.
A. Greater mesiodistal diameter relative to crown height than permanent teeth.
All of the following are rotator cuff muscles except:
A. Supraspinatous muscle
B. Infraspinatous muscle
C. Teres minor muscle
D. Teres major muscle
E. Subscapularis muscle
D. Teres major muscle
Which of the following does not affect the muscle tension produced during contraction?
A. The extent of motor-unit recruitment.
B. The proportion of each single motor unit that is stimulated to contract.
C. The number of muscle fibers contracting.
D. The frequency of stimulation.
B. The proportion of each single motor unit that is stimulated to contract.
Cytochrome P450 enzymes may be found in which of the following cellular organelles?
A. Mitochondria.
B. Golgi apparatus.
C. Lysosome.
D. Ribosome.
E. Endoplasmic reticulum.
E. Endoplasmic reticulum.
A patient has a heart rate of 70 bpm.
Her EDV (end-diastolic volume) is 140 mL.
Her ESV (endsystolic volume) is 30 mL. Calculate the CO (cardiac output) of this
individual.
A. 9800 mL.
B. 2100 mL.
C. 7700 mL.
D. 15,400 mL
C. 7700 mL.
Which premolar would be the most likely to have a single pulp horn?
A. Maxillary first.
B. Mandibular first.
C. Mandibular second.
D. Maxillary second.
B. Mandibular first.
Which of the following groups of microorganisms produce dipicolinic acid?
A. Actinomycetes.
B. Histoplasma.
C. Streptococcus.
D. Staphylococcus.
E. Clostridium.
E. Clostridium.
Which of the following describes the function of RNA polymerase?
A. Translates DNA into protein.
B. Terminates transcription.
C. Removes introns during transcription.
D. Synthesizes RNA 5′→3′.
D. Synthesizes RNA 5′→3′.
Which of the following bones is formed by intramembranous ossification?
A. Humerus.
B. Lumbar vertebrae.
C. Frontal bone of the skull.
D. Ribs.
E. Clavicle.
C. Frontal bone of the skull.
The pressure in a capillary in skeletal muscle is 37 mmHg at the arteriolar end and 16mmHg at the venular end. The interstitial pressure is 0 mmHg. The colloid osmotic pressure is 26 mmHg in the capillary and 1mmHg in the interstitial fluid. The net force producing fluid movement across the capillary wall is which of the following?
A. 1 mmHg out of the capillary.
B. 3 mmHg out of the capillary.
C. 12 mmHg out of the capillary.
D. 3 mmHg into the capillary.
B. 3 mmHg out of the capillary.
Which of the following forms of thyroid hormone is most readily found in the circulation?
A. Tri-iodothyronine (T3).
B. Thyroxine (T4).
C. Thyroglobulin.
D. TSH.
B. Thyroxine (T4).
Dust cells can be found in the _____.
A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Lungs
D. Liver
E. Spleen
C. Lungs
The lateral thoracic wall of the axilla is
covered by which of the following muscles?
A. Pectoralis major.
B. Pectoralis minor.
C. Serratus anterior.
D. Subscapularis.
E. Latissimus dorsi.
C. Serratus anterior.
CO2 generated in the tissues is carried in venous blood primarily in which form?
A. CO2 in the plasma.
B. H2
CO3 in the plasma.
C. HCO3− in the plasma.
D. CO2
in the red blood cells.
E. Carboxyhemoglobin in the red blood cells.
C. HCO3− in the plasma.
Oral epithelium is composed of _____ epithelium.
A. Keratinized simple squamous
B. Keratinized stratified squamous
C. Nonkeratinized simple squamous
D. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous
E. Nonkeratinized stratified columnar
D. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous
Chondroitin sulfate is a major component of
which of the following?
A. Bacterial cell walls.
B. Mucin.
C. IgA.
D. Cartilage.
E. Hair.
D. Cartilage.
