MOSBY BOOK 1 SAMPLE EXAMINATIONS

Question 1

ALL of the following are supporting cusps EXCEPT?

A. Buccal cusp of Tooth #29.
B. Lingual cusp of tooth #4.
C. ML cusp of tooth #3.
D. ML cusp of tooth #19.

Answer 1

D. ML cusp of tooth #19.

Question 2

The lateral pterygoid muscle attaches to which of the following?

A. Lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate.
B. Medial surface of the lateral pterygoid plate.
C. Lateral surface of the medial pterygoid plate.
D. Medial surface of the medial pterygoid plate.
E. Pyramidal process of palatine bone.

Answer 2

A. Lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate.

Question 3

A transverse ridge is:

A. The combination name for joining oblique and triangular ridges
B. A combination name for joining buccal and
lingual cusp triangular ridges
C. Characteristically found on all primary and
permanent molars
D. Found occasionally on maxillary primary first molar

Answer 3

B. A combination name for joining buccal and
lingual cusp triangular ridges

Question 4

Bronchogenic carcinoma is a complication most characteristic of which of the following conditions?

A. Silicosis.
B. Asbestosis.
C. Anthracosis.
D. Sarcoidosis.
E. Bronchiectasis.

Answer 4

B. Asbestosis.

Question 5

Which of the following statements regarding
tubular reabsorption is true?

A. Most calcium filtered is passively reabsorbed and not regulated under any conditions.
B. Most urea is reabsorbed passively and is
unaffected by regulatory mechanisms.
C. Glucose is reabsorbed by secondary active
transport and facilitated diffusion.
D. Most filtered phosphate is reabsorbed in the collecting ducts and is unaffected by regulatory mechanisms.

Answer 5

C. Glucose is reabsorbed by secondary active
transport and facilitated diffusion.

Question 6

The class of antibodies that plays an important role in type I hypersensitivity reactions is _____.

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM

Answer 6

C. IgE

Question 7

The amount of cytosine will be equal to the amount of guanine in which of the following molecules?

A. DNA.
B. RNA.
C. DNA and RNA.
D. mRNA.

Answer 7

A. DNA.

Question 8

The branchial arches disappear when the _____ branchial arch grows down to contact the _____.

A. second; third branchial arch
B. second; fifth branchial arch
C. third; fifth branchial arch
D. first; first branchial groove
E. first; sixth branchial groove

Answer 8

B. second; fifth branchial arch

Question 9

Glucagon will decrease which of the
following?

A. Glycogenolysis.
B. Gluconeogenesis.
C. Glycogenesis.
D. Blood glucose.

Answer 9

C. Glycogenesis.

Question 10

When an enzyme is competitively inhibited,
which of the following changes occur?

A. The apparent Km is unchanged.
B. The apparent Km is decreased.
C. Vmax is decreased.
D. Vmax is unchanged.

Answer 10

D. Vmax is unchanged.

Question 11

A typical primary mandibular first molar has
how many pulp horns?

A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.

Answer 11

D. 4.

Question 12

A 3-year-old African girl presents in the emergency room with a palpable mass in her lower right mandible. She is currently in the United States visiting relatives with her parents. Her mom claims that a few days ago she noticed a growing mass in her daughter’s jaw. There appears to be slight swelling around the area, although it is painless and not tender to the touch. After further examination, a biopsy was taken, and the diagnosis of Burkitt’s lymphoma was made.

Burkitt’s lymphoma is a malignancy that affects which of the following cells?

A. Macrophages.
B. T lymphocytes.
C. B lymphocytes.
D. Neutrophils.
E. Keratinocytes.

Answer 12

D. Neutrophils.

Question 13

The pathology report reveals a characteristic
pattern of tumor cells that is classically associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma. Which of the following describes this histopathologic pattern?

A. Honeycomb.
B. Cobweb.
C. Cotton wool.
D. Sun ray.
E. Starry sky.

Answer 13

E. Starry sky.

Question 14

The African form of Burkitt’s lymphoma has
been linked to the Epstein-Barr virus. This virus is also responsible for which of the following diseases?

A. Mononucleosis.
B. Shingles.
C. Chicken pox.
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma.
E. Herpangina.

Answer 14

A. Mononucleosis.

Question 15

Measurement of horizontal overlap (over jet) of the teeth is easily done by which of the
following methods?

A. Measure from the facial surface of a mandibular incisor to the facial surface of a maxillary incisor with the subject in intercuspal position.
B. With the subject intercuspal position, mark the position of the maxillary incisal edge on the facial surface of the mandibular incisor with a pencil. Then have the subject open the mouth and measure from the mark that you made to the incisal edge of the mandibular incisor.
C. Measure from the midline between the
maxillary central incisors to the midline of the mandibular central incisors.
D. Measure from the incisal edge of a maxillary incisor to the incisal edge of a mandibular incisor with the mandible in the maximum open position.

Answer 15

A. Measure from the facial surface of a mandibular incisor to the facial surface of a maxillary incisor with the subject in intercuspal position.

Question 16

Increasing the radius of arterioles will increase which of the following?

A. Systolic blood pressure.
B. Diastolic blood pressure.
C. Viscosity of the blood.
D. Capillary blood flow.

Answer 16

D. Capillary blood flow.

Question 17

Which of the following nerves supplies taste
sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the
tongue?

A. Hypoglossal.
B. Glossopharyngeal.
C. Lingual.
D. Facial.
E. Mental.

Answer 17

D. Facial.

Question 19

Which of the following statements regarding the regulation of gastrointestinal motility is true?

A. Sympathetic stimulation inhibits motility.
B. Parasympathetic stimulation inhibits motility.
C. Gastrointestinal motility is not influenced by the central nervous system (CNS).
D. Gastrointestinal motility is not influenced by hormones.

Answer 19

A. Sympathetic stimulation inhibits motility.

Question 20

Which of the following structures is the most common site for oral cancer?

A. Soft palate.
B. Lateral border of the tongue.
C. Lower lip.
D. Floor of mouth.
E. Buccal mucosa.

Answer 20

C. Lower lip.

Question 21

Mandibular movement resulting from occlusal contacts of the teeth from retruded contact position (CRC) to intercuspal position (slide in centric) may show all except one of the following directional components when viewed only in the horizontal plane. Which is the exception?

A. Vertical component.
B. Horizontal component.
C. Lateral component.
D. Protrusive component.

Answer 21

A. Vertical component.

Question 22

Which of the following muscles is responsible for the formation of the posterior tonsillar pillar?

A. Stylopharyngeus.
B. Tensor veli palatine.
C. Palatoglossus.
D. Palatopharyngeus.
E. Levator veli palatine.

Answer 22

D. Palatopharyngeus.

Question 23

Which of the following does not occur to compensate for a fall in blood pressure below normal values?

A. Increased cardiac output.
B. Increased stroke volume.
C. Increased heart rate.
D. Decreased total peripheral resistance

Answer 23

D. Decreased total peripheral resistance

Question 24

Relative or absolute lack of insulin in humans
would result in which one of the following
reactions in the liver?

A. Increased glycogen synthesis.
B. Increased gluconeogenesis.
C. Decreased glycogen breakdown.
D. Increased amino acid uptake.

Answer 24

B. Increased gluconeogenesis.

Question 25

In 2% glutaraldehyde, which of the following
times is minimally sufficient for achieving
sterilization?

A. 15 minutes.
B. 1–2 hours.
C. 6 hours.
D. 12 hours.

Answer 25

D. 12 hours.

Question 26

Which of the following bones is part of the
superior wall (roof) of the orbit?

A. Zygomatic.
B. Lacrimal.
C. Sphenoid.
D. Maxilla.
E. Ethmoid.

Answer 26

C. Sphenoid.

Question 27

On average, approximately what is the dimension of the permanent maxillary canine at the widest mesiodistal diameter of the crown?

A. 5.5 mm.
B. 6.5 mm.
C. 7.5 mm.
D. 8.5 mm

Answer 27

C. 7.5 mm.

Question 28

Both active transport and facilitated diffusion
are characterized by which of the following?

A. Transport in one direction only.
B. Hydrolysis of ATP.
C. Transport against a concentration gradient.
D. Competitive inhibition.

Answer 28

D. Competitive inhibition.

Question 29

Which of the following bacteria would be
expected to first colonize onto plaque?

A. Streptococci.
B. Bacteroides.
C. Fusobacterium.
D. Actinomyces.
E. Prevotella.

Answer 29

A. Streptococci.

Question 30

Cell membrane typically contain the following
compounds except:

A. Phospholipids
B. Proteins
C. Cholesterols
D. Triacylglycerols
E. Sphingolipids

Answer 30

D. Triacylglycerols

Question 31

Which of the following muscles adducts the
vocal cords?

A. Lateral cricoarytenoid.
B. Posterior cricoarytenoid.
C. Cricothyroid.
D. Vocalis.
E. Tensor veli palatine.

Answer 31

A. Lateral cricoarytenoid.

Question 32

Which of the following best describes anaplastic cells that have not invaded the basement membrane and are confined within their epithelium of origin?

A. Dysplasia.
B. Hyperplasia.
C. Metaplasia.
D. Sarcoma.
E. Carcinoma in situ.

Answer 32

E. Carcinoma in situ.

Question 33

Which muscle of the anterolateral abdominal
wall is described as being belt- or strap-like?

A. External oblique muscle.
B. Internal oblique muscle.
C. Transversus abdominis muscle.
D. Rectus abdominis muscle.
E. Quadratus lumborum muscle.

Answer 33

D. Rectus abdominis muscle.

Question 34

In a comparison of maxillary, primary and
permanent second molars, which of the
following differences are noted?

A. Enamel rods at the cervix slope gingivally in the primary molar.
B. Enamel rods at the cervix slope occlusally in the permanent molar.
C. Buccal cervical ridges are less pronounced in the primary molar.
D. Roots of primary teeth are longer and more slender in comparison with crown size than those of permanent teeth.

Answer 34

D. Roots of primary teeth are longer and more slender in comparison with crown size than those of permanent teeth.

Question 35

A mother brings her 6-year-old daughter in for an examination because she noticed brown macules on her daughter’s leg. The macules have jagged edges but do not appear raised. The mother is worried that her daughter may have a malignancy. After further evaluation and tests, the macules are identified as café au lait spots.

Café au lait spots are seen in conjunction with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and endocrine abnormalities in which of the following disorders?

A. McCune-Albright’s syndrome.
B. Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
C. Marfan’s syndrome.
D. Gorlin-Goltz syndrome.
E. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.

Answer 35

A. McCune-Albright’s syndrome.

Question 36

The patient with fibrous dysplasia could be described as having what type of radiographic appearance?

A. Cotton wool.
B. Ground glass.
C. Cobweb.
D. Soap bubble.
E. Starry sky.

Answer 36

B. Ground glass.

Question 37

A bone biopsy was taken from the patient with fibrous dysplasia. Which of the following would most likely be observed under the microscope?

A. A dense inflammatory infiltrate.
B. Fibrous tissue.
C. Pleomorphic cells.
D. Metastatic calcifications.
E. Giant cells.

Answer 37

B. Fibrous tissue.

Question 38

The overall length of the primary teeth that are given here are the average range of dimensions with one exception. Which one is the exception?

A. Maxillary central incisor, 16 to 17 mm.
B. Mandibular central incisor, 16 to 17 mm.
C. Maxillary lateral incisor, 16 to 17 mm.
D. Mandibular lateral incisor, 15 to 17 mm.

Answer 38

B. Mandibular central incisor, 16 to 17 mm.

Question 39

Fibrotic and thickened heart valves that result
in a reduction of blood flow through the valve
characterize which of the following?

A. Stenosis.
B. Regurgitation.
C. Insufficiency.
D. Prolapse.
E. Ischemia.

Answer 39

A. Stenosis.

Question 40

From the occlusal aspect the primary maxillary second molar has which of the following characteristics?

A. Somewhat rhomboidal in form.
B. Three well developed cusps.
C. Two supplemental cusps, including tubercle of Carabelli.
D. Poorly defined mesial triangular fossa.

Answer 40

A. Somewhat rhomboidal in form.

Question 41

All of the following local chemical factors will
cause vasodilatation of the arterioles, except:

A. Decreased K
B. Increased CO2
C. Nitric oxide
D. Decreased O2
E. Histamine release

Answer 41

A. Decreased K

Question 42

The inferior aspect of the diaphragm is supplied with blood by which of the following arteries?

A. Median sacral artery.
B. Lumbar arteries.
C. Inferior phrenic arteries.
D. Celiac trunk.
E. Superior mesenteric artery.

Answer 42

C. Inferior phrenic arteries.

Question 43

The coenzyme essential for normal amino acid metabolism is _____.

A. Biotin
B. Tetrahydrofolate
C. Pyridoxal phosphate
D. Niacin

Answer 43

C. Pyridoxal phosphate

Question 44

Equal contracture of the lateral pterygoid
muscle bilaterally produces which of the
following mandibular movements?

A. Retrusive.
B. Elevation.
C. Protrusive.
D. Lateral.

Answer 44

C. Protrusive.

Question 45

Which of the following cells forms the myelin sheath around myelinated nerves in the central nervous system?

A. Schwann cells.
B. Astrocytes.
C. Microglia.
D. Oligodendrocytes.
E. Amphicytes.

Answer 45

D. Oligodendrocytes.

Schwann cells-PNS

Question 46

Which of the following mineralized tissues have the greatest percentage of inorganic material?

A. Enamel.
B. Dentin.
C. Bone.
D. Calculus.

Answer 46

A. Enamel.

Question 47

Which of the following is not a feature of
poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A. Hematuria.
B. Hypertension.
C. Edema.
D. Polyuria.

Answer 47

D. Polyuria.

Question 48

In a cusp–embrasure relationship, the
maxillary first premolar is most likely to
articulate with which of the following
mandibular teeth?

A. First premolar only.
B. First molar only.
C. Canine and first premolar.
D. First and second premolars.

Answer 48

D. First and second premolars.

Question 49

There are several tooth numbering systems,
some used more than others, and some used by dental specialties or by special organizations. The so-called universal system consists of:

A. Two-digit sets of numbers for each tooth in each arch quadrant (e.g., 18 to 11).
B. Single sequential number for teeth repeated in each quadrant (e.g., 8 to 1).
C. A sequential alphabet letter for each tooth in an entire dentition (e.g., A to T).
D. Different symbols for each numbered tooth in each quadrant (e.g., 8 _ ⎪ to 1_⎪).

Answer 49

C. A sequential alphabet letter for each tooth in an entire dentition (e.g., A to T).

Question 50

A 24-year-old man presents to your office for an emergency visit, after being hit on the left side of his face with a soccer ball. He complains that his “tooth got knocked out” and that his jaw feels “out of place.” He has no other medical conditions.

During intraoral examination, you find that the patient’s lower second premolar is missing. Which type of alveolodental fibers was least involved in resisting the force that pulled this patient’s tooth out of its socket?

A. Apical.
B. Oblique.
C. Alveolar crest.
D. Interradicular.

Answer 50

B. Oblique.

Question 51

You notice that a cusp of his mandibular second molar has fractured off and that dentin is exposed. If this patient were to drink
something cold, what will he sense?

A. Pain.
B. Pressure.
C. Vibration.
D. Temperature

Answer 51

A. Pain.

Question 52

You decide to take a radiograph of the fractured tooth. On the first film you miss the apex of the tooth, so you decide to take another radiograph. Relaxation of which of the patient’s muscles would help you in taking the second film?

A. Geniohyoid.
B. Stylohyoid.
C. Mylohyoid.
D. Levator veli palatine.
E. Palatopharyngeus.

Answer 52

C. Mylohyoid.

Question 53

On further examination, you determine that the articular disc of the patient’s temporomandibular joint has been displaced. If the patient contracts his lateral pterygoid muscle, the disc will move _____.

A. Posteriorly and medially
B. Anteriorly and medially
C. Posteriorly and laterally
D. Anteriorly and laterally

Answer 53

B. Anteriorly and medially

Question 54

During the examination, the patient observes that he cannot feel it when you touch part of his cheek and his upper lip. Which of the following nerves was probably damaged during the accident?

A. Lingual.
B. Maxillary.
C. Long buccal.
D. Superior alveolar.
E. Inferior alveolar.

Answer 54

B. Maxillary.

Question 55

You decide to restore the missing cusp on the patient’s molar. During the administration of the inferior alveolar nerve block, which of the following ligaments is most likely damaged?

A. Sphenomandibular.
B. Stylomandibular.
C. Temporomandibular.
D. Interdental.

Answer 55

A. Sphenomandibular.

Question 56

Polycystic kidney disease is most commonly associated with _____.

A. Renal cell carcinoma
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Urolithiasis
D. Berry aneurysm
E. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Answer 56

D. Berry aneurysm

Question 57

Which of the following types of epithelium lines the oropharynx?

A. Simple squamous.
B. Stratified squamous.
C. Simple cuboidal.
D. Simple columnar.
E. Pseudostratified columnar.

Answer 57

B. Stratified squamous.

Question 58

A scientist has discovered a new peptide
hormone. He thinks it acts through the second messenger system, which utilizes cAMP. If this is true, which of the following substances should decrease the response of this new peptide hormone in cells?

A. Adenylate cyclase.
B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
C. Phosphodiesterase.
D. Aspirin.

Answer 58

C. Phosphodiesterase.

Question 59

From the occlusal perspective, which tooth in
the primary dentition varies the most in form
from that of any tooth in the permanent
dentition?

A. Maxillary first primary molar.
B. Maxillary second primary molar.
C. Mandibular first primary molar.
D. Mandibular primary second molar.

Answer 59

A. Maxillary first primary molar.

Question 60

The most common cause of osteomyelitis is
_____.

A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Lactobacillus casei
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Escherichia coli

Answer 60

B. Staphylococcus aureus

Question 61

The muscle that is found in the walls of the
heart is characterized by _____.

A. A peripherally placed nucleus
B. Multiple nuclei
C. Intercalated discs
D. Fibers with spindle-shaped cells

Answer 61

C. Intercalated discs

Question 62

The smallest cusp on the crown of a 5 lobed
mandibular second premolar is the:

A. Buccal cusp.
B. Distobuccal cusp.
C. Distal cusp.
D. Distolingual cusp.

Answer 62

D. Distolingual cusp.

Question 63

Which of the following is not involved in the
process of mineralization?

A. Matrix vesicles.
B. Amelogenins.
C. Fluoride.
D. Phosphoryns.

Answer 63

D. Phosphoryns.

Question 64

T-cell lymphoma is most likely to occur in a
patient with which of the following conditions?

A. Chronic granulomatous disease.
B. Myasthenia gravis.
C. Osteochondroma.
D. Wilson’s disease.
E. Celiac sprue.

Answer 64

E. Celiac sprue.

Question 65

For which of the following substances would you expect the renal clearance to be the lowest, under normal conditions?

A. Urea.
B. Creatinine.
C. Sodium.
D. Water.
E. Glucose

Answer 65

E. Glucose

Question 66

DiGeorge’s syndrome is characterized by a
deficiency of _____.

A. B lymphocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. Both B and T lymphocytes
D. Antibodies
E. Complement inhibitor

Answer 66

B. T lymphocytes

Question 67

Which of the following phrases best describes restriction enzymes?

A. Site-specific endonucleases.
B. Enzymes that regulate RNA.
C. Nonspecific endonucleases.
D. Topoisomerases.

Answer 67

A. Site-specific endonucleases.

Question 68

The gallbladder arises from the _____.

A. Common hepatic duct
B. Common bile duct
C. Left hepatic duct
D. Cystic duct
E. Bile canaliculi

Answer 68

A. Common hepatic duct

Question 69

Which one of the following disorders is the
least likely to be a differential diagnostic factor in the patient’s limited jaw opening?

A. Exacerbation of TMJ and TMD.
B. Trismus secondary to TMJ pain.
C. Myalgia secondary to TMD.
D. Myositis secondary to bruxing.

Answer 69

D. Myositis secondary to bruxing.

Question 70

The superior and inferior ophthalmic veins
drain into the _____.

A. Internal jugular vein
B. Pterygoid plexus
C. Frontal vein
D. Infraorbital vein
E. Facial vein

Answer 70

E. Facial vein

Question 71

A 6-year-old boy presents with a history of severe epistaxis. For the past 3 years the patient has experienced these nose bleeds, often without any apparent cause. The patient is otherwise in good health, but his mother has noticed that he “bruises easily.” Laboratory tests are ordered.

The laboratory test results show a normal PT but a prolonged PTT. A prolonged PTT test suggests that the patient has an abnormality affecting which component of the coagulation cascade?

A. Activation of platelets.
B. Activation of thromboplastin.
C. Activation of plasminogen.
D. Intrinsic pathway.
E. Extrinsic pathway.

Answer 71

D. Intrinsic pathway.

Question 72

The diagnosis of hemophilia A is made. This
disease is caused by a deficiency of _____.

A. Factor V.
B. Factor VII.
C. Factor VIII.
D. Factor IX.
E. Factor X.

Answer 72

C. Factor VIII.

Question 73

Which of the following describes the hereditary transmission of Hemophilia A?

A. Autosomal dominant.
B. Autosomal recessive.
C. X-linked.
D. It is not genetically transmitted.

Answer 73

C. X-linked.

Hemophilia A- affects only males but females may be carriers

Question 74

The clinical presentation of hemophilia B is
indistinguishable from hemophilia A. Which of the following best describes the laboratory
method needed to distinguish these two conditions?

A. Bleeding time.
B. Assay of coagulation factor levels.
C. Assay of von Willebrand’s factor.
D. Blood smear.
E. Platelet count.

Answer 74

B. Assay of coagulation factor levels.

Question 75

Hydrolysis of which of the following
compounds yields urea?

A. Ornithine.
B. Argininosuccinate.
C. Aspartate.
D. Citrulline.
E. Arginine

Answer 75

E. Arginine

Question 76

The median pharyngeal raphe serves as the
attachment site for which of the following
muscles?

A. Lateral pterygoid muscle
B. Palatopharyngeus muscle
C. Levator veli palatine muscle
D. Salpingopharyngeus
E. Superior constrictor muscle

Answer 76

E. Superior constrictor muscle

Question 77

A most favorable sequence of eruption for the permanent dentition is which of the following (right side)? (Eruption sequence given by numbers in parentheses.)

A. (1) 3, 30; (2) 8, 25; (3) 7, 26; (4) 27, 5; (5) 28, 4;(6) 29, 6; (7) 31, 2.
B. (1) 3, 30; (2) 8, 25; (3) 26, 7; (4) 27, 6; (5) 28, 5;(6) 29, 4; (7) 31, 2.
C. (1) 30, 3; (2) 25, 8; (3) 26, 7; (4) 27, 5; (5) 28, 4;(6) 29, 6; (7) 31, 2.
D. (1) 30, 3; (2) 25, 8; (3) 26, 7; (4) 27, 6; (5) 28, 5;(6) 29, 4; (7) 2, 31.

Answer 77

C. (1) 30, 3; (2) 25, 8; (3) 26, 7; (4) 27, 5; (5) 28, 4;(6) 29, 6; (7) 31, 2.

Question 78

Which of the following metabolic activities is increased 1 hour after a meal (during the absorptive state)?

A. Glycogenolysis.
B. Oxidation of free fatty acids.
C. Glucagon release.
D. Glycolysis

Answer 78

D. Glycolysis

Question 79

The most prominent mechanism of spread of
the hepatitis A virus is by which of the
following routes?

A. Oral-anal.
B. Respiratory.
C. Sexual contact.
D. Perinatal.
E. Insect vectors.

Answer 79

A. Oral-anal.

Question 80

If the molar percentage of guanine in a human DNA is 30%, what is the molar percentage of adenine in that molecule?

A. 10%.
B. 20%.
C. 30%.
D. 40%.
E. 50%

Answer 80

B. 20%.

Question 81

The muscularis externa has a third layer in the _____.

A. Esophagus
B. Stomach
C. Liver
D. Small intestine
E. Large intestine

Answer 81

B. Stomach

Question 82

An infection by which of the following bacteria may result in the formation of gummas?

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
C. Treponema pallidum.
D. Bordetella pertussis.
E. Streptococcus pyogenes.

Answer 82

C. Treponema pallidum.

Question 83

Hassall’s corpuscles are found in the medulla
of which of the following glands?

A. Thymus.
B. Thyroid.
C. Parathyroid.
D. Pineal.
E. Suprarenal

Answer 83

A. Thymus.

Question 84

The masseter originates from the _____.

A. Condyle of the mandible.
B. Infratemporal crest of the sphenoid bone.
C. Inferior border of the zygomatic arch.
D. Pyramidal process of the palatine bone.
E. Mastoid process of temporal bone.

Answer 84

C. Inferior border of the zygomatic arch.

Question 85

Considering the period of 2 1/2 months to about 6 years of age which of the following is true?

A. Not all the primary teeth have attained their occlusal level.
B. Parts of both jaws containing primary teeth change noticeably in size.
C. A significant increase in intercanine width occurs shortly before and during the time the
primary teeth are lost and the permanent teeth emerge.
D. Dental arch form is more or less constant and practically no dimensional changes take place in depth or width after 9 months of age.

Answer 85

D. Dental arch form is more or less constant and practically no dimensional changes take place in depth or width after 9 months of age.

Question 86

The primary factor determining the percent of hemoglobin saturation is:

A. Blood PO2.
B. Blood PCO2.
C. Diphosphoglycerate concentration.
D. The temperature of the blood.
E. The acidity of the blood.

Answer 86

A. Blood PO2.

Question 87

What is the average height of curvature of the cervical line (CEJ) on the mesial and distal of the permanent maxillary and mandibular incisors?

A. About 3.5 mm on the mesial of the maxillary central incisor.
B. About 1.5 mm on the distal of the maxillary central incisor.
C. About 2.0 mm on the mesial of the mandibular central incisor.
D. About 1.0 mm on the distal of the mandibular central incisor.

Answer 87

A. About 3.5 mm on the mesial of the maxillary central incisor.

Question 88

Which of the following describes cells that are abnormal in appearance and may become premalignant?

A. Aplasia.
B. Dysplasia.
C. Karyomegaly.
D. Pleomorphism.
E. Metaplasia.

Answer 88

B. Dysplasia.

Question 89

Which jaw activity does not involve one of the
following muscles?

A. Clenching, superior heads of lateral pterygoid muscles (LPM).
B. Clenching, inferior heads of LPM.
C. Ipsilateral jaw movements, inferior heads of LPM.
D. Simple jaw opening, deep masseter muscle.

Answer 89

D. Simple jaw opening, deep masseter muscle.

Question 90

Hemorrhagic infarction and tissue necrosis suggest which of the following?

A. Aspergillosis.
B. Blastomycosis.
C. Histoplasmosis.
D. Mucormycosis.
E. Toxoplasmosis.

Answer 90

D. Mucormycosis.

Question 91

Which of the following ribs cannot be
palpated?

A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. A and B

Answer 91

A. First

Question 92

Which of the following is released by mast cells after antigen binding?

A. IgE.
B. Lysozyme.
C. IL-4.
D. Leukotriene.
E. Interferon

Answer 92

D. Leukotriene.

Question 93

Where are the temperature control centers
located?

A. Cerebellum.
B. Hypothalamus.
C. Medulla.
D. Cerebral cortex.

Answer 93

B. Hypothalamus.

Question 94

Which of the following is a major complication
of chronic bronchitis?

A. Myxedema.
B. Pneumothorax.
C. Emphysema.
D. Pernicious anemia.
E. Malignant transformation.

Answer 94

E. Malignant transformation.

Question 95

A comparison occlusally between the primary
mandibular second molar and the permanent mandibular first molar shows which of the following differences?

A. The mesio-, distobuccal, and distal cusps of the primary molar are almost equal in size; the distal cusp of the permanent molar is smaller than the other two cusps.
B. The primary molar crown is wider
buccolingually (in comparison with its
mesiodistal measurement) than is the
permanent molar.
C. The primary molar outline is somewhat
hexagonal; the permanent molar is
rhomboidal.
D. The ratio of the crown/root length of both
molars is the same.

Answer 95

A. The mesio-, distobuccal, and distal cusps of the primary molar are almost equal in size; the distal cusp of the permanent molar is smaller than the other two cusps.

Question 96

Calcium binds to which of the following for
contraction in smooth muscle?

A. Troponin C.
B. Calmodulin.
C. Myosin.
D. Actin.
E. Desmosomes.

Answer 96

B. Calmodulin.

Question 97

The effects of which one of the following
hormones are not mediated through cAMP?

A. Estrogen.
B. Glucagon.
C. Epinephrine.
D. Norepinephrine.

Answer 97

A. Estrogen.

Question 98

A 43-year-old man presents for an emergency dental appointment complaining of a burning sensation in his mouth. Upon examination, white plaques are observed along the oral mucosa. The patient otherwise appears healthy. There is no history of systemic illness, but the patient did state that he had a blood transfusion more than 10 years ago following a car accident. The doctor referred the patient to emergency room for further tests.

Upon further evaluation, the doctor requests
an HIV and hepatitis test. The laboratory performed both an ELISA test and Western blot, revealing that the patient is HIV-positive.
The Western blot is used to identify which of the following?

A. Antibodies.
B. DNA.
C. RNA.
D. Proteins.
E. Plaque-forming units.

Answer 98

D. Proteins.

Question 99

If the patient was later diagnosed with active hepatitis, which of the following would most likely be the causative agent?

A. Hepatitis A.
B. Hepatitis B.
C. Hepatitis C.
D. Hepatitis D.
E. Hepatitis E.

Answer 99

C. Hepatitis C.

Question 100

Which of the following would the doctor likely prescribe for the patient’s intraoral infection? (Hepatitis)

A. Amoxicillin.
B. Vancomycin.
C. Ciprofloxacin.
D. Nystatin.
E. Chlorhexidine.

Answer 100

D. Nystatin.

Question 101

All of the following molecules may be found
within the nucleocapsid of an HIV virus
except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Reverse transcriptase.
B. Integrase.
C. Neuraminidase.
D. Protease.
E. Ribonucleic acid.

Answer 101

C. Neuraminidase.

Question 102

The patient is referred to an infectious disease specialist and placed on “triple therapy.” Two years later, the patient is admitted to the emergency room with a dry cough and shortness of breath. His temperature is 101° F. The most likely cause of the patient’s pneumonia is _____.

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii)
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer 102

C. Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii)

Question 103

The primary maxillary first molar has which of the following characteristics?

A. It is larger in all dimensions than the primary maxillary second molar.
B. All three roots can be seen from mesial perspective.
C. Bifurcation of roots begins almost immediately at the site of the cervical line (CEJ).
D. The mesial root is considerably shorter than the distal one.

Answer 103

C. Bifurcation of roots begins almost immediately at the site of the cervical line (CEJ).

Question 104

Which of the following is the end product of
purine degradation in humans?

A. Urea.
B. Uric acid.
C. Adenosine.
D. Xanthine.

Answer 104

B. Uric acid.

Question 105

Which of the following is an essential amino
acid?

A. Tyrosine.
B. Tryptophan.
C. Proline.
D. Serine.
E. Alanine.

Answer 105

B. Tryptophan.

Question 106

Which of the following are the most abundant in the fovea centralis of the eyeball?

A. Rod cells.
B. Cone cells
C. Rod and cone cells.
D. Amacrine cells.

Answer 106

B. Cone cells

Question 107

The middle trunk of the brachial plexus of
nerves arises from:

A. C5
B. C6
C. C7
D. C8

Answer 107

C. C7

Question 108

Tinea pedis, which is commonly known as
athlete’s foot, is a fungal infection that is caused by the following dermatophyte(s):

A. Microsporum
B. Trichophyton
C. Epidermophyton
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C

Answer 108

E. Both B and C

Question 109

In comparing permanent and primary teeth, which of the following differences are noted?

A. Crowns of anterior primary teeth are narrower mesiodistally (in comparison to their crown length) than the permanent teeth.
B. Comparatively, the roots of primary anterior teeth are narrower and longer.
C. Cervical ridges of enamel of the primary anterior teeth are less prominent.
D. Buccal and lingual surfaces of primary molars are less flat above the cervical curvature than those of permanent molars

Answer 109

B. Comparatively, the roots of primary anterior teeth are narrower and longer.

Question 110

Cystic fibrosis is a hereditary disorder that
results from defective _____.

A. Collagen
B. Lysosomal enzymes
C. Chloride channels
D. Fibrillin
E. Myelin

Answer 110

C. Chloride channels

Question 111

Which of the following strata of oral
epithelium is engaged in mitosis?

A. Basale.
B. Granulosum.
C. Corneum.
D. Spinosum.

Answer 111

A. Basale.

Question 112

The class of antibodies that plays an important role in mucosal immunity is _____.

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM

Answer 112

A. IgA

Question 113

Which of the following cells are defective in chronic granulomatous disease?

A. Neutrophils.
B. Lymphocytes.
C. Plasma cells.
D. Killer T cells.
E. Macrophages.

Answer 113

A. Neutrophils.

Question 114

The coenzyme that serves as an intermediate
carrier of one-carbon units in the synthesis of nucleic acids is which of the following?

A. Ascorbic acid.
B. Tetrahydrofolic acid.
C. Biotin.
D. Pyridoxine.

Answer 114

B. Tetrahydrofolic acid.

Question 115

Which of the following genetic diseases that
results from a deficiency in the liver enzyme
that converts phenylalanine to tyrosine?

A. Albinism.
B. Homocystinuria.
C. Porphyria.
D. Phenylketonuria.

Answer 115

D. Phenylketonuria.

Question 116

A 35-year-old woman presents with a painful limitation of jaw opening (28 mm), a painful tooth on the right side, and swelling at the angle of the jaw. She has a history of temporomandibular disease (TMD) and conservative treatment. Medical history reveals that the patient is being treated for tuberculosis with combination antituberculo sis drugs including rifampin (Rifadin). She is also being treated with an anticoagulant, warfarin (Coumadin), a low level of aspirin, and paroxetine (Paxil) for depression. The intraoral examination shows extensive teeth wear from bruxism, diagnosed by a sleep specialist as sleep bruxism. Tooth 32 has a deep carious lesion and, on radiographic examination, a periapical radiolucency.

The incidence of tuberculosis is increasing as
a result of an association with AIDS. Oral
infections of tuberculosis (TBC) do occur but are uncommon. Diagnosis of oral lesions may present several challenges, as set forth in all of the following statements except one. Which one of the following statements is false?

A. Lesions secondary to HIV may be present.
B. Isolation of M. tuberculosis by culture requires 4 to 6 weeks or longer.
C. Mycobacteria can be demonstrated by special stains in only 27% to 60% of cases.
D. Molecular tests (e.g., polymerase chain reaction) show slow turnaround times.

Answer 116

D. Molecular tests (e.g., polymerase chain reaction) show slow turnaround times.

Question 117

All the following side effects have been reported to be related to the use of rifampin except one. Which is the exception?

A. Green bodily fluids—sweat, tears, urine.
B. Hepatitis.
C. Leucopenia.
D. Nephrotoxicity.

Answer 117

A. Green bodily fluids—sweat, tears, urine.
(ORANGE)

Question 118

Which of the following modes of action does not relate to rifampin?

A. Inhibits RNA synthesis.
B. Binds tightly to eukaryotic RNA polymerase.
C. Tuberculocidal to intracellular and extracellular organisms.
D. Reduces activity of hepatic mixed-function oxidases.

Answer 118

B. Binds tightly to eukaryotic RNA polymerase.

Question 119

Exacerbation of bruxism has been reported to occur with all the following agents except one? Which is the exception?

A. Paroxetine (Paxil).
B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
C. Naproxen (Naprosyn).
D. Amphetamine derivative (“Ecstasy”).

Answer 119

C. Naproxen (Naprosyn).

Question 120

Migraine is a form of headache that is
currently thought to be best understood on the basis of all the following with one exception. The exception is which of the following?

A. As a dysfunction of brainstem pathways or
diencephalic nuclei.
B. As a primary disorder of the brain.
C. As similar in mechanism to tension
headaches.
D. As a neurovascular headache.

Answer 120

C. As similar in mechanism to tension
headaches.

Question 121

Three key factors in the pathogenesis of pain
in migraine are usually considered. Which of
the following is not considered to be a key
factor?

A. Cranial blood vessels.
B. β-amyloid–containing plaques in the brain.
C. Trigeminal innervation of the vessels.
D. Reflex connection of trigeminal system with cranial parasympathetic outflow.

Answer 121

B. β-amyloid–containing plaques in the brain

Question 122

The treatment of the patient with low levels of aspirin is done for which of the following reasons?

A. To reduce the likelihood of platelet aggregation.
B. To stimulate cyclo-oxygenase in the platelets.
C. To increase the formation of thromboxane.
D. To cause platelets to regenerate cyclooxygenase.

Answer 122

A. To reduce the likelihood of platelet aggregation.

Question 123

When there is a pulpal-periodontal infection
of a mandibular third molar, which of the
following listed facial and cervical spaces is most likely to have become infected when there is swelling at the angle of the jaw?

A. Retromolar space.
B. Submaxillary space.
C. Submasseteric space.
D. Parotid space.

Answer 123

B. Submaxillary space.

Question 124

Lymphatic drainage from tooth 32 will
first involve which of the following node
groups?

A. Lateral upper deep cervical node.
B. Medial upper deep cervical node.
C. Lateral lower deep cervical node.
D. Submaxillary node.

Answer 124

A. Lateral upper deep cervical node.

Question 125

All but one the following are considerations relevant to the diagnosis and treatment of tuberculosis. Which of the following statements is not true?

A. Increase in the prevalence of TB.
B. Oral TB lesions occur most frequently on the gingival.
C. Emergence of multidrug-resistant strains.
D. High risk of M. tuberculosis infection in patients infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

Answer 125

B. Oral TB lesions occur most frequently on the gingival.

Question 126

Extraction of tooth 32 revealed attached soft tissue. Which of the following is most important for a presumptive diagnosis of
tuberculosis?

A. Caseous necrotic areas.
B. Acid-fast bacilli.
C. Epithelioid histiocytes.
D. Langerhans giant cells.

Answer 126

B. Acid-fast bacilli.

Question 127

The patient is on an anticoagulant drug (e.g., warfarin [Coumadin] ) as well as rifampin. What is the effect of rifampin on the anticoagulation effect of warfarin (Coumadin)?

A. Increases the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
B. Increases the cyclic conversion of vitamin K epoxide reductase.
C. Anticoagulation effect is inhibited.
D. Decreases its metabolic clearance by inducing activity of hepatic oxidases.

Answer 127

C. Anticoagulation effect is inhibited.

Question 128

Gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)
produces secretory _____.

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM

Answer 128

A. IgA

Question 129

Antinuclear antibodies are seen in the serum samples from patients with _____.

A. Hypogammaglobulinemia
B. Chronic granulomatous disease
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Multiple myeloma
E. Pheochromocytoma

Answer 129

C. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Question 130

What is the correct general structure of the
backbone of DNA and RNA?

A. Sugar-base–sugar.
B. Bases linked through phosphodiester linkages.
C. Bases linked through hydrogen bonds.
D. Sugars linked through phosphodiester link
ages.

Answer 130

D. Sugars linked through phosphodiester link
ages.

Question 131

All of the following are found in the posterior
triangle of the neck except one. Which one is the exception?

A. External jugular vein.
B. Subclavian vein.
C. Hypoglossal nerve.
D. Phrenic nerve.
E. Brachial plexus.

Answer 131

C. Hypoglossal nerve.

Question 132

Which of the following amino acids is
positioned at every third residue in the primary structure of the helical portion of the collagen-α chains?

A. Glycine.
B. Glutamate.
C. Proline.
D. Lysine.
E. Hydroxyproline.

Answer 132

A. Glycine.

Question 133

Which of the following factors would result in decreased glomerular filtration rate?

A. A fall in plasma protein concentration.
B. An obstruction of the tubular system which would increase capsular hydrostatic pressure.
C. Vasodilation of the afferent arterioles.
D. Inulin administration.

Answer 133

B. An obstruction of the tubular system which would increase capsular hydrostatic pressure.

Question 134

The most common form of breast cancer is _____.

A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Teratoma
C. Follicular lymphoma
D. Sarcoma
E. Carcinoma

Answer 134

A. Adenocarcinoma

Question 136

The apex of a medullary pyramid in the
kidney is called the _____.

A. Cortex
B. Medulla
C. Renal papilla
D. Major calyx
E. Minor calyx

Answer 136

C. Renal papilla

Question 137

All of the following conditions are commonly associated with a group A, β-hemolytic streptococci infection except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Scarlet fever.
B. Toxic shock syndrome.
C. Pharyngitis.
D. Endocarditis.
E. Impetigo.

Answer 137

D. Endocarditis.

Question 138

The auriculotemporal nerve encircles which
of the following vessels?

A. Maxillary artery.
B. Superficial temporal artery.
C. Deep auricular artery.
D. Middle meningeal artery.
E. Anterior tympanic artery.

Answer 138

D. Middle meningeal artery.

Question 139

A 55-year-old man presents with malaise and dyspnea. He has a low-grade fever and reports that his shortness of breath has increased steadily over the past week and a half. He has a history of rheumatic fever and denies ever using recreational drugs. He is currently being treated by a dentist for full mouth reconstruction.

Upon further examination, a heart murmur
was detected. Given the patient’s past medical history, which heart valve is most likely affected?

A. Mitral valve.
B. Tricuspid valve.
C. Aortic valve.
D. Pulmonary valve.

Answer 139

A. Mitral valve.

Question 140

Before the patient’s development of rheumatic fever, he likely suffered from which of the following conditions?

A. Cystitis.
B. Pharyngitis.
C. Food poisoning.
D. Thrombocytopenia.
E. Meninigitis

Answer 140

B. Pharyngitis.

Question 141

After further evaluation and tests, the patient is diagnosed with subacute endocarditis. If the infecting microbe was cultured in the laboratory, the results would most likely show that this microbe is positive for _____.

A. α-hemolysis
B. β-hemolysis
C. γ-hemolysis
D. Coagulase
E. Lecithinase

Answer 141

A. α-hemolysis

Question 142

Which of the following is the most likely complication that may occur from the vegetations forming on the patient’s defective heart valve?

A. Myocardial infarction.
B. Hemorrhage.
C. Petechiae.
D. Cor pulmonale.
E. Embolus.

Answer 142

E. Embolus.

Question 143

After the diagnosis is made, the patient is immediately placed on high-dose, IV antibiotics. One of the antibiotics that is administered to the patient is streptomycin, an aminoglycoside. The antimicrobial effect of
streptomycin is to inhibit the synthesis of
_____.

A. The bacterial cell wall
B. Folate
C. Proteins
D. Nucleic acids
E. β-lactamase

Answer 143

C. Proteins

Question 144

The conversion of information from DNA into
mRNA is called which of the following?

A. Translation.
B. Transcription.
C. Transduction.
D. Transformation.

Answer 144

B. Transcription.

Question 145

Maximum rotation and translation of both
condyles takes place at:

A. Maximum opening.
B. Maximum protrusive.
C. Right and left lateral excursive movements.
D. Hinge movement.

Answer 145

A. Maximum opening.

Question 146

The right subclavian artery arises from the
_____ and the left subclavian artery arises
from the _____.

A. Axillary artery; aortic arch
B. Brachiocephalic artery; aortic arch
C. Aortic arch; brachiocephalic artery
D. Brachiocephalic artery; axillary artery
E. Axillary artery; brachial artery

Answer 146

B. Brachiocephalic artery; aortic arch

Question 147

Rest position (RP) is defined:

A. As any position of the mandible that lacks
contact of the teeth.
B. As the centric relation position of the
condyles with the teeth apart.
C. As a mandibular position with masticatory
muscles at complete rest.
D. As a clinical mandibular position in relation to the interocclusal space.

Answer 147

D. As a clinical mandibular position in relation to the interocclusal space.

Question 148

Which of the following ions has a higher intracellular concentration compared to the extracellular fluid?

A. Na+.
B. K+.
C. Cl−.
D. HCO3−
E. Ca2+.

Answer 148

B. K+.

Question 149

All of the following cells are associated with
chronic inflammation except one. Which one
is the exception?

A. Macrophages.
B. Neutrophils.
C. T lymphocytes.
D. B lymphocytes.
E. Plasma cells.

Answer 149

B. Neutrophils

Question 150

When is the crown of the permanent
mandibular second molar completed?

A. About 7–8 years.
B. About 8–9 years.
C. About 9–10 years.
D. About 10–11 years.

Answer 150

A. About 7–8 years.

Question 151

The pancreas is enveloped at its head by the _____.

A. First part of the duodenum
B. Second part of the duodenum
C. Third part of the duodenum
D. Fourth part of the duodenum
E. First part of the jejunum

Answer 151

A. First part of the duodenum

Question 152

Which of the following proteoglycans is
present in extracellular space?

A. Hyaluronic acid.
B. Keratan sulfate.
C. Chondroitin sulfate.
D. Dermatan sulfate.
E. Heparin.

Answer 152

E. Heparin.

Question 153

Mucopolysaccharidoses are hereditary disorders that are characterized by the accumulation of glycosaminoglycans in various tissues due to which of the following?

A. Overproduction (synthesis) of proteoglycans.
B. Deficiency of one of the lysosomal, hydrolytic enzymes normally involved in the
degradation of one or more of the glycosaminoglycans.
C. The synthesis of abnormal proteoglycans.
D. The synthesis of highly branched glycosaminoglycan chains.
E. Arginine.

Answer 153

B. Deficiency of one of the lysosomal, hydrolytic enzymes normally involved in the
degradation of one or more of the glycosaminoglycans.

Question 154

A hormone acts to stimulate its neighboring cell to divide. This hormone would best be described as belonging to which category of hormones?

A. Paracrine.
B. Autocrine.
C. Endocrine.

Answer 154

A. Paracrine.

Question 155

The most common cause of pyelonephritis is _____.

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Helicobacter pylori
E. Bordetella pertussis

Answer 155

C. Escherichia coli

Question 156

Which of the following types of epithelium
acimar units of lines salivary glands?

A. Simple squamous.
B. Stratified squamous.
C. Simple cuboidal.
D. Simple columnar.
E. Pseudostratified columnar.

Answer 156

C. Simple cuboidal.

Question 157

The _____ is a component of the juxtaglomerular apparatus which functions in regulation of blood pressure.

A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Bowman’s capsule
D. Glomerulus
E. Macula densa

Answer 157

E. Macula densa

Question 158

The masseter muscle, which has a complex of internal components, includes all the
following EXCEPT?

A. Pennation.
B. Structural composition permitting regional
activation.
C. Multiple internal aponeuroses.
D. Internal aponeuroses that do not move or deform.

Answer 158

D. Internal aponeuroses that do not move or deform.

Question 159

The cricopharyngeus muscle of the esophagus _____.
A. Is a parasympathetic stimulator of peristalsis
B. Is a sympathetic inhibitor of peristalsis
C. Prevents swallowing air at the pharyngeal end
D. Prevents regurgitation of stomach contents at the abdominal end
E. Controls the gag reflex

Answer 159

C. Prevents swallowing air at the pharyngeal end

Question 160

The most common cause of bacterial
meningitis in newborns is _____.

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Haemophilus influenzae
E. Listeria monocytogenes

Answer 160

C. Escherichia coli

Question 161

In which one of the following tissues is glucose transport into the cell unaffected by insulin?

A. Skeletal muscle.
B. Liver.
C. Adipose tissue.
D. Smooth muscle.

Answer 161

B. Liver.

Question 162

Deoxygenated blood from the transverse sinus drains into the _____.

A. Inferior sagittal sinus
B. Confluence of sinuses
C. Sigmoid sinus
D. Straight sinus
E. Internal jugular vein

Answer 162

C. Sigmoid sinus

Question 163

The primary maxillary second molar has what characteristics?

A. Does not have a well-defined mesial triangular fossa.
B. Oblique ridge absent or not well developed.
C. Development (central) groove is well defined.
D. A tubercle of Carabelli (Supplementary cusp) is well developed.

Answer 163

C. Development (central) groove is well defined.

Question 164

Facial nerves are derived from the ____
branchial arch.

A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
E. Fifth and sixth

Answer 164

B. Second

Question 165

Analysis of DNA fragments (probing) is possibly due to which of the following properties of DNA?

A. Phosphodiester bonds.
B. Complimentary strands.
C. Protein binding.
D. Western blotting.

Answer 165

B. Complimentary strands.

Question 166

From the occlusal aspect, the primary mandibular second molar has which of the following characteristics?

A. Somewhat rectangular in form.
B. The outline of the crown converges mesially.
C. Three buccal cusps are dissimilar in size.
D. Cusps do not have well defined triangular ridges

Answer 166

A. Somewhat rectangular in form.

Question 168

A cotton wool appearance may be used to
describe the radiograph of a patient with _____.

A. Osteopetrosis
B. Osteitis deformans
C. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
D. Seborrheic keratosis
E. Osteogenesis imperfecta

Answer 168

B. Osteitis deformans or Paget’s disease

Question 169

The energy for skeletal muscle contraction is derived from which of the following processes?

A. Calcium release from sarcoplasmic mem
branes and binding to troponin.
B. Cleavage of ATP by the myosin head.
C. Membrane sodium-potassium ATPase pump.
D. Sodium influx during the action potential.

Answer 169

B. Cleavage of ATP by the myosin head

Question 170

Which of the following is a property of C fibers?

A. Have the slowest conduction velocity of any nerve fiber type.
B. Have the largest diameter of any nerve fiber type.
C. Are afferent nerves from muscle spindles.
D. Are afferent nerves from Golgi tendon organs.
E. Are preganglionic autonomic fibers.

Answer 170

A. Have the slowest conduction velocity of any nerve fiber type

Question 171

To which of the following bones is the tensor tympani attached?

A. Incus.
B. Malleus.
C. Stapes.
D. Hyoid.
E. Mandible.

Answer 171

B. Malleus.

Question 172

An increase in alkaline phosphatase may be seen in all of the following conditions except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Hyperparathyroidism.
B. Osteoporosis.
C. Osteitis deformans.
D. Adenocarcinoma of the prostate.
E. Multiple myeloma.

Answer 172

B. Osteoporosis.

Question 173

The hereditary transmission of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is _____.

A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Sex-linked dominant
D. Sex-linked recessive

Answer 173

A. Autosomal dominant

Question 174

Which one of the following is considered a
primary ligament of the TMJ?

A. Stylomandibular.
B. Sphenomandibular.
C. Stylohyoid.
D. Temporomandibular.

Answer 174

D. Temporomandibular.

Question 175

A 60-year-old homeless man who lives in a community shelter presents with history of coughing for the past 6 months. He has a slight fever, hemoptysis, and productive cough with a yellowish sputum discharge. After further examination and tests, the patient is diagnosed with active tuberculosis.

When the sputum samples were taken to the laboratory, what test did the doctor order to be performed to help make the diagnosis?

A. Gram stain.
B. Acid-fast stain.
C. Spore stain.
D. PPD test (tuberculin test).
E. Voges-Proskauer test.

Answer 175

B. Acid-fast stain.

Question 176

After 2 weeks, the bacterial cultures came back from the lab confirming the initial diagnosis, positively identifying the organism. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. M. tuberculosis is known to infect which of the following cells?

A. Fibroblasts.
B. Basal cells.
C. Type I pneumocytes.
D. Macrophages.
E. Erythrocytes.

Answer 176

D. Macrophages.

Question 177

Which of the following is a glycolipid found on the surface of M. tuberculosis that plays a role in its pathogenesis?

A. Cord factor.
B. O antigen.
C. Protein A.
D. Exotoxin A.
E. Lecithinase.

Answer 177

A. Cord factor.

Question 178

Since the patient was living in a homeless shelter, the tuberculin test was administered to all of the staff and residents living at the shelter. This test is based on a delayed type hypersensitivity reaction that is mediated by _____.

A. Only IgG
B. IgG and IgM
C. IgE
D. T cells and macrophages
E. Mast cells and basophils

Answer 178

D. T cells and macrophages

Question 179

Which of the following is the most appropriate drug used in combination therapy for tuberculosis to treat the patient?

A. Amoxicillin.
B. Clindamycin.
C. Cephalosporin.
D. Tetracycline.
E. Rifampin.

Answer 179

E. Rifampin.

Question 180

After 3 weeks, the patient was feeling “much better” and was discharged from the hospital, although he remained on his drug therapy for another 6 months. Which of the following best describes the calcified scar that later formed in the affected lung parenchyma and hilar lymph node?

A. Gumma.
B. Chancre.
C. Metastatic calcifications.
D. Tubercle.
E. Ghon complex

Answer 180

E. Ghon complex

Question 181

An infection in a mandibular incisor with an
apex below the mylohyoid muscle drains into which of the following spaces?

A. Sublingual space
B. Submental space
C. Submandibular space
D. Parapharyngeal space

Answer 181

B. Submental space

Question 182

Phospholipase C is an enzyme that plays an
important role in the production of second messengers, which produce intracellular responses. Which two second messengers are produced through the action of this enzyme?

A. cAMP and tyrosine kinase.
B. Acetylcholine and histidine.
C. Adenylate cyclase and protein kinase.
D. 1,2-diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate.

Answer 182

D. 1,2-diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate.

Question 183

Which of the following cytokines stimulate B lymphocytes to differentiate into plasma cells?

A. IL-1.
B. IL-2.
C. IL-3.
D. IL-4.
E. IL-5.

Answer 183

E. IL-5.

Question 184

Which of the following statements regarding the parasympathetic nervous system is true?

A. The third cranial nerve (the oculomotor
nerve) carries sympathetic fibers to the
smooth muscles of the eye.
B. The facial and the glossopharyngeal cranial nerves carry the parasympathetic preganglionic fibers for the autonomic innervation to the salivary glands.
C. The parasympathetic nervous system innervates primarily striated muscle in the body.
D. The parasympathetic nervous system is organized for diffuse activation and responses.

Answer 184

B. The facial and the glossopharyngeal cranial nerves carry the parasympathetic preganglionic fibers for the autonomic innervation to the salivary glands.

Question 185

From the incisal view, a greater mesiodistal measurement than faciolingual measurement can be seen in which of the following permanent anterior crowns?

A. Maxillary central incisor.
B. Maxillary canine.
C. Mandibular canine.
D. Mandibular central incisor.

Answer 185

A. Maxillary central incisor.

Question 186

The vestigial cleft of Rathke’s pouch in the hypophysis is located between the _____.

A. Anterior and posterior lobes
B. Anterior lobe and hypothalamus
C. Posterior lobe and hypothalamus
D. Median eminence and the optic chiasm

Answer 186

A. Anterior and posterior lobes

Question 187

A comparison of the pulp chambers and root canals of maxillary primary and permanent second molars shows which of the following?
A. Enamel cap of primary tooth is relatively thick but less consistent in depth.
B. Comparatively less thickness of dentin at the occlusal fossa of primary molars.
C. Pulp chambers are proportionally larger in primary molars.
D. Pulp horns are lower in primary molars, especially distal horns.

Answer 187

C. Pulp chambers are proportionally larger in primary molars.

Question 188

The center that provides output to the
respiratory muscles is located in the _____.

A. Pons
B. Medulla
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Cerebellum
E. Hypothalamus

Answer 188

B. Medulla

Question 189

The brachial plexus of nerves arises from
which of the following roots of the anterior
primary rami of spinal nerves?

A. All cervical roots (C1–C8).
B. All thoracic roots (T1–T12).
C. C8 and T1.
D. C5 through C8 and T1.
E. C5 through C8 and T1 through T4.

Answer 189

D. C5 through C8 and T1.

Question 190

Aschoff bodies are observed in which of the
following conditions?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia.
B. Pheochromocytoma.
C. Osteopetrosis.
D. Rheumatic fever.
E. Scleroderma.

Answer 190

D. Rheumatic fever.

Question 191

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents are
painrelieving and anti-inflammatory. They are effective since they act to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis by:

A. Inhibiting fatty acid lipo-oxygenase activity.
B. Inhibiting fatty acid-specific cyclo-oxygenase activity.
C. Inhibiting fatty acid-specific hydroperoxidase activity.
D. Inhibiting phospholipase A2.

Answer 191

B. Inhibiting fatty acid-specific cyclo-oxygenase activity.

Question 192

Terminal bronchioles are characterized by _____ cells.

A. Goblet
B. Ciliated cuboidal
C. Nonciliated cuboidal
D. Ciliated squamous
E. Nonciliated squamous

Answer 192

B. Ciliated cuboidal

Question 193

A major anatomical variant of the two-rooted mandibular molar is a tooth with an additional distolingual and third root. What is the prevalence of these three-rooted mandibular first molars?

A. May exceed 10% in Caucasians.
B. Less than 1% in Eurasian and Asian populations.
C. Greater than 5% (even up to 40%) in populations with Mongolian traits.
D. Greater than 8% in African populations

Answer 193

C. Greater than 5% (even up to 40%) in populations with Mongolian traits.

Question 194

Which one of the following statements regarding the regulation of gastrointestinal function is true?

A. The main sympathetic nerve supply to the digestive tract is the vagus.
B. In general, sympathetic stimulation is excitatory to digestive activity.
C. Salivary secretion is stimulated by both branches of the autonomic nervous system, although not to the same degree.
D. Parasympathetic stimulation of the salivary glands produces a saliva rich in mucus.

Answer 194

C. Salivary secretion is stimulated by both branches of the autonomic nervous system, although not to the same degree.

Question 195

The occlusal surface of a primary mandibular first molar often has a prominent faciolingual ridge. This transverse ridge connects which two cusps?

A. Buccal and distolingual.
B. Mesiolingual and distobuccal.
C. Mesiobuccal and mesiolingual.
D. Distobuccal and distolingual.

Answer 195

C. Mesiobuccal and mesiolingual.

Question 196

Which of the following disorders is least likely to be included in the differential diagnosis of a patient with jaundice?

A. Hepatitis.
B. Hemolytic anemia.
C. Cholelithiasis.
D. Glomerulonephritis.
E. Carcinoma of the pancreas.

Answer 196

D. Glomerulonephritis.

Question 197

Arteriovenous anastomoses in deeper skin are important in _____.

A. Immunity
B. Thermoregulation
C. Controlling the arrector pili muscle
D. Pigmentation
E. Pain sensation

Answer 197

B. Thermoregulation

Question 198

Complications of Barrett’s esophagus include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Varices.
B. Stricture.
C. Hemorrhage.
D. Adenocarcinoma.
E. Ulceration.

Answer 198

A. Varices.

Question 199

A 30-year-old woman comes to your office for a dental examination. She has not been to the dentist in 2 years. The patient has type I diabetes, which requires her to take insulin. She is otherwise in good health. On intraoral examination, you notice that the dorsum of her tongue has a thick, matted appearance and diagnose her with hairy
tongue. You also find that the patient has deep caries in her upper second maxillary molar.

Which type of papillae is affected that causes the hair-like appearance of her tongue?

A. Foliate.
B. Circumvallate.
C. Fungiform.
D. Filiform.

Answer 199

D. Filiform.

Question 200

On the patient’s radiograph, you notice that
the pulp chamber in the carious molar appears smaller than the surrounding teeth. This is most likely due to the deposition of which type of dentin?

A. Secondary.
B. Tertiary.
C. Mantle.
D. Sclerotic.

Answer 200

B. Tertiary.

Question 201

You decide to remove the caries and prepare the patient for anesthesia. Which nerve must you anesthetize to ensure adequate anesthesia for the patient?

A. Nasopalatine nerve.
B. Greater palatine nerve.
C. Anterior superior alveolar nerve.
D. Middle superior alveolar nerve.
E. Posterior superior alveolar nerve.

Answer 201

E. Posterior superior alveolar nerve.

Question 202

After administering the anesthetic, the patient complains that her “heart feels like it’s racing.” You explain to her that it may be
from the epinephrine in the anesthesia. Which of the following glands could most likely cause the same symptoms in the patient?

A. Hypophysis.
B. Thyroid.
C. Pineal.
D. Suprarenal.

Answer 202

D. Suprarenal.

Question 204

Name the point angle which represents the junction of the cutting edge of an incisor with the surface that is toward the tongue and the surface that is away from the midline.

A. Distoproximoincisal.
B. Distolabioincisal.
C. Distolinguoincisal.
D. Labioincisolinguo.

Answer 204

C. Distolinguoincisal.

Question 205

Ureters travel inferiorly just _____ the parietal peritoneum of the posterior body wall. They pass _____ to the common iliac arteries as they enter the pelvis.

A. Above; posterior
B. Above; anterior
C. Below; posterior
D. Below; anterior
E. Above; superior

Answer 205

D. Below; anterior

Question 206

Aspartame contains aspartic acid and which of the following amino acids?

A. Phenylalanine.
B. Leucine.
C. Isoleucine.
D. Lysine.
E. Proline.

Answer 206

A. Phenylalanine.

Question 207

Injury to which of the following nerves would affect abduction of the eyeball?

A. Optic nerve.
B. Oculomotor.
C. Trochlear.
D. Trigeminal.
E. Abducens

Answer 207

E. Abducens

Question 208

Which of the following statements regarding tubular secretion in the kidney is true?

A. The secretion of K+ increases when a person is in acidosis.
B. The secretion of H+ increases when a person is in alkalosis.
C. It is a process that transports substances from the filtrate to the capillary blood.
D. It accounts for most of the K+ in the urine.

Answer 208

D. It accounts for most of the K+ in the urine.

Question 209

_____ marks the end of growth in length of long bones.

A. Diaphyseal closure
B. Epiphyseal closure
C. Ossification
D. Formation of periosteum
E. Cessation of bone remodeling

Answer 209

B. Epiphyseal closure

Question 210

The presence of M-protein antibodies suggests immunity to infection by which type of bacteria?

A. Streptococcus pyogenes.
B. Streptococcus viridans.
C. Streptococcus sanguis.
D. Staphylococcus aureus.
E. Lactobacillus casei.

Answer 210

A. Streptococcus pyogenes.

Question 211

The synthesis of all steroid hormones involves which of the following compounds?

A. Pregnenolone.
B. Progesterone.
C. Aldosterone.
D. Cortisone.
E. Testosterone.

Answer 211

A. Pregnenolone.

Question 212

A mother brings her 12-year-old boy to the dentist to ask about her son grinding his teeth and about some white “spots” located on the smooth-sur faced enamel of several of his anterior teeth and premolars. Among other questions about the cause of the defects, the mother then asks when a systemic disturbance occurred that may have caused the “spots”. The patient has excessive tooth wear from bruxing and clenching. The dentist measures the cervical-incisal length of the permanent maxillary central incisor (10.5 mm). Also
measured is the distance from the CEJ to the midpoint of the defect (5.5 mm). Given that the crown is completed over a period of 4 to 5 years it is possible to estimate the age at which the hypoplasia occurred using 6 months or yearly periods in the following formula:

ADF = ACF − (yrs. of formation/crown height × distance of defect from CEJ).

Using an average age of crown formation (ACF) of both 4 and 5 years, the age of defect formation (ADF) is estimated to be about what time?

A. 7–9 months in utero.
B. 0–1 years of age.
C. 1–2 years.
D. 2–3 years.

Answer 212

D. 2–3 years.

Question 213

The increase of fluorosis of permanent teeth in both nonfluoridated and optimally fluoridated populations points to the need for dentists to caution parents with children about potential causes of fluorosis in children. Which of the following cautions about fluoride is correct, but the age or implied age is NOT Correct?

A. Excess (> 1 ppm) fluoride in the drinking
water during enamel formation.
B. Excessive (> pea-sized amount) use of fluoride toothpaste under 6 years of age.
C. Use of fluoride toothpaste only for children under 4 years of age.
D. Use of a 1.1% sodium fluoride toothpaste or gel by pediatric patients only when 6 years of age and older.

Answer 213

C. Use of fluoride toothpaste only for children under 4 years of age.

Question 214

Systemic etiologic factors that are said to be associated with enamel defects such as hypoplasia occur generally in what period of time?

A. Before birth.
B. Generally after birth and before the age of 6 years.
C. During the first year postpartum for
Hutchinson’s incisors.
D. During birth.

Answer 214

B. Generally after birth and before the age of 6 years.

Question 215

The differential diagnosis of white “spots” of the enamel of primary and permanent teeth should include disorders that have a substantiated cause. Which of the following DO NOT have an evidence-based causal relationship with enamel hypoplasia?

A. Rickets.
B. Congenital syphilis.
C. Measles.
D. Fluorosis.

Answer 215

C. Measles.

Question 216

Clenching and grinding of teeth involves contraction of skeletal type muscles. Several types of myofilaments are present in the contractile elements of skeletal muscles. Which statement about muscle filaments IS NOT true?

A. Myosin forms the thick filament of muscle.
B. Actin is a major protein of thin filaments.
C. Titin is a protein of elastic filament.
D. Connectin is a protein of intermediate
filament.

Answer 216

D. Connectin is a protein of intermediate
filament.

Question 217

The clinical examination of the patient reveals extensive wear of the right canines, and somewhat less wear of the lateral incisors. Also there is tenderness of the jaw closing muscles, particularly on the right side. The muscle(s) that would be involved primarily in providing most of the force for anterior tooth clenching include which of the following masticatory muscles?

A. Inferior lateral pterygoid muscle.
B. Superior lateral pterygoid muscle.
C. Anterior temporalis muscle.
D. Masseter muscle.

Answer 217

D. Masseter muscle.

Question 218

Sleep bruxism (SB) is defined by many but not all of the following characteristics. Which is the EXCEPTION?

A. Stereotypical movement disorder.
B. Grinding and clenching of the teeth during sleep.
C. More frequent in the younger generation.
D. Individuals who brux during the daytime
inevitably brux at night.

Answer 218

D. Individuals who brux during the daytime
inevitably brux at night.

Question 219

Recent physiologic evidence suggests that central and/or autonomic nervous systems rather than peripheral sensory factors play a dominant role in the genesis of sleep bruxism (SB). Which statement about the central genesis of SB is NOT true?

A. During sleep the mouth is usually open due to motor repression.
B. Tooth contact most likely occurs in association with sleep arousal.
C. Some peripheral sensory factors may exert an influence on SB through their interaction with sleep-awake mechanisms.
D. Sequential change from autonomic (cardiac)/brain cortical activities follows SB
related jaw motor activity

Answer 219

D. Sequential change from autonomic (cardiac)/brain cortical activities follows SB
related jaw motor activity

Question 220

Aggravation of bruxism has been suggested to occur secondarily to all of the following occlusal relationships except one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Occlusal interferences in centric relation.
B. Occlusal interferences in the intercuspal position.
C. Iatrogenic occlusal relations that interfere with bruxism.
D. Angle Class III malocclusion (prognathism)

Answer 220

D. Angle Class III malocclusion (prognathism)

Question 221

The differential diagnosis of enamel hypoplasia should take into account suggested differences between non-fluoride and fluoride opacities. Which of the following statements does not suggest a basis for a diagnosis of non-fluoride (NF) enamel hypoplasia?

A. Levels of F in drinking water that range from 0.2 to 0.34 ppm have been reported to be associated with prevalences of NF enamel opacities ranging from 22% to 35%.
B. At a level of 1 to 1.5 ppm of F in drinking
water, only few F opacities occur.
C. Most NF enamel opacities appear as white, opaque spots in smooth surface enamel; areas of mild dental fluorosis are lusterless, opaque white patches.
D. Fluorosis and NF opacities are clinically significantly different.

Answer 221

D. Fluorosis and NF opacities are clinically significantly different.

Question 222

During muscle contraction what physical
change DOES NOT occur relative to muscle
fiber contraction?

A. Sarcomeres—shorten.
B. Thick and thin filaments—shorten.
C. I Band—shortens.
D. H zone—shortens.

Answer 222

B. Thick and thin filaments—shorten.

Question 223

Regarding the superior and inferior heads of the lateral pterygoid muscle (SHLP and IHLP), which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?

A. Hypothetically, SHLP and IHLP can be considered to be parts of one muscle.
B. Distributions of SHLP and IHLP activities are shaded according to biochemical demands of tasks.
C. SHLP stabilizes the condyle and disk against the articular eminence in a wide range of jaw movements and forces.
D. IHLP plays a major role in the generation and fine control of horizontal forces.

Answer 223

C. SHLP stabilizes the condyle and disk against the articular eminence in a wide range of jaw movements and forces.

Question 224

The process of active sodium transport in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is
absolutely essential for which of the following processes?

A. Regulation of chloride excretion.
B. Regulation of pH in extracellular fluid.
C. Regulation of aldosterone excretion.
D. Regulation of water excretion

Answer 224

D. Regulation of water excretion

Question 225

Hypertension (long-term) will be compensated by which of the following renal mechanisms?

A. Increased circulating ADH (vasopressin).
B. Increased sympathetic activity.
C. Decreased circulating aldosterone.
D. Increased circulating angiotensin II.

Answer 225

C. Decreased circulating aldosterone.

Question 226

The most superficial layer of the epidermis is the stratum _____.

A. Spinosum
B. Basale
C. Granulosum
D. Lucidum
E. Corneum

Answer 226

E. Corneum

Question 227

Where are the cells that produce calcitonin
located?

A. Red marrow.
B. Adrenal gland.
C. Parathyroid gland.
D. Thyroid gland.
E. Spleen.

Answer 227

D. Thyroid gland.

Question 228

In mature dentin, the ratio of inorganic to organic matter is approximately _____.

A. 94:6
B. 50:50
C. 70:30
D. 80:20
E. 60:40

Answer 228

C. 70:30

Question 229

All of the following symptoms are mediated by antibodies except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Arthus reaction.
B. Tuberculin reaction.
C. Asthma.
D. Erythroblastosis fetalis.
E. Serum sickness.

Answer 229

B. Tuberculin reaction.

Question 230

The pancreas produces enzymes that are responsible for the digestion of dietary compounds. Which of the following foods would not be digested by enzymes synthesized and secreted by the pancreas?

A. Carbohydrates.
B. Lipids.
C. Vitamins.
D. Protein

Answer 230

C. Vitamins.

Question 231

The primary sensory neurons’ nucleus of termination involved in the jaw jerk reflex is the _____.

A. Facial nucleus
B. Trochlear nucleus
C. Mesencephalic nucleus
D. Spinal trigeminal nucleus
E. Nucleus of solitary tract

Answer 231

C. Mesencephalic nucleus

Question 232

Aldosterone _____.

A. Stimulates N reabsorption in the distal and collecting ducts
B. Is secreted by the juxtaglomerular apparatus
C. Stimulates K absorption in the distal tubule
D. Stimulates bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule

Answer 232

A. Stimulates N reabsorption in the distal and collecting ducts

Question 233

The first evidence of calcification (weeks in
utero) in the primary dentition occurs in
which of the following teeth at about what
age?

A. Maxillary central incisor—14 (13–16) weeks.
B. Mandibular central incisor—12 (10–13) weeks.
C. Maxillary lateral incisor—14 (13–16) weeks.
D. Mandibular lateral incisor—14 (13–15)
weeks.

Answer 233

A. Maxillary central incisor—14 (13–16) weeks.

Question 234

From the lingual perspective, the crown of the primary maxillary second molar shows which of the following?

A. Small, well-developed mesiolingual cusp.
B. Distolingual (DL) cusp smaller than the maxillary primary first molar DL cusp.
C. There is no supplemental cusp apical to the mesiolingual cusp.
D. Developmental groove separating the mesiolingual and distolingual cusps.

Answer 234

D. Developmental groove separating the mesiolingual and distolingual cusps.

Question 235

An 8-year-old boy presents with macroglossia and delayed eruption of his primary teeth. Of the following choices, which one is most likely?

A. Plummer’s disease.
B. Osteochondroses.
C. Cretinism.
D. Wilson’s disease.
E. Mallory-Weiss syndrome

Answer 235

C. Cretinism.

Question 236

A major function of surfactant is to increase which of the following?

A. Pulmonary compliance.
B. Alveolar surface tension.
C. The work of breathing.
D. The tendency of the lungs to collapse.

Answer 236

A. Pulmonary compliance.

Question 237

Red pulp in the spleen consists of _____.

A. Fibroblasts
B. T lymphocytes
C. B lymphocytes
D. Macrophages
E. Chromaffin cells

Answer 237

D. Macrophages

Question 238

The velocity of blood flow _____.

A. Is higher in the capillaries than the arterioles
B. Is higher in the veins than in the venules
C. Is higher in the veins than in the arteries
D. Falls to zero in the descending aorta during diastole

Answer 238

B. Is higher in the veins than in the venules

Question 239

Neuraminidase is produced by _____.

A. Influenza virus
B. Hepatitis C viruses
C. Human immunodeficiency virus
D. Measles virus
E. Rubella virus

Answer 239

A. Influenza virus

Question 240

Which sequence of eruption of permanent teeth occurs most often? (8-7-6-5-4-3-2-1 = M3-M2-M1-P2-P1-C-LI-CI). First #, #’s in each series is considered to be the first to erupt.

A. 6-1-2-4-3-5-7-8 (Maxilla).
B. 6-1-2-3-4-5-7-8 (Maxilla).
C. (6-1)-2-4-3-5-7-8 (Mandible).
D. 1-6-2-4-5-3-7-8 (Mandible).

Answer 240

C. (6-1)-2-4-3-5-7-8 (Mandible).

Question 241

All of the following are histopathologic features of malignant cells except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Anaplasia.
B. Pleomorphism.
C. Aneuploidy.
D. Large nuclei.
E. Low nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio.

Answer 241

E. Low nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio.

Question 242

The vertebral artery meets with the basilar artery at the lower border of the _____.

A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Temporal lobe
E. C1

Answer 242

B. Pons

Question 243

Which of the following is not involved in the process of gene cloning?

A. DNA polymerase.
B. RNA ligase.
C. RNA polymerase.
D. Restriction endonuclease.
244. Which of the following is the

Answer 243

C. RNA polymerase.

Question 244

Which of the following is the most significant stimulant of the respiratory center?

A. Decreased blood oxygen tension.
B. Increased blood hydrogen ion concentration.
C. Decreased blood hydrogen ion concentration.
D. Increased blood carbon dioxide tension

Answer 244

D. Increased blood carbon dioxide tension

Question 245

The infraorbital nerve is a branch of the _____.

A. Optic nerve
B. Oculomotor nerve
C. Ophthalmic nerve
D. Maxillary nerve
E. Mandibular nerve

Answer 245

D. Maxillary nerve

Question 246

Root bifurcation would be a more likely finding in which of the following permanent teeth?

A. Maxillary canine.
B. Mandibular canine.
C. Maxillary central incisor.
D. Mandibular lateral incisor.

Answer 246

B. Mandibular canine.

Question 247

Which one of the following carbohydrates is a ketose sugar?

A. Galactose.
B. Fructose.
C. Glucose.
D. Mannose.
E. Glyceraldehydes

Answer 247

B. Fructose.

Question 248

Which of the following antimicrobials is bacteriostatic and inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria?

A. Streptomycin.
B. Penicillin V.
C. Ciprofloxacin.
D. Cephalexin.
E. Tetracycline.

Answer 248

E. Tetracycline.

Question 249

The auricular hillocks are derived from the _____.

A. First branchial arch
B. Second branchial arch
C. First and second branchial arch
D. Lateral nasal process
E. Medial nasal process

Answer 249

C. First and second branchial arch

Question 250

Comparing the overall length of primary central incisors (E⎪F ) with permanent maxillary central incisors (8⎪9), which is the
correct ratio expressed as a percentage?

A. About 50%.
B. About 60%.
C. About 70%.
D. About 80%.

Answer 250

C. About 70%.

Question 251

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a disease affecting _____.

A. Bone
B. Connective tissue
C. Muscle
D. Joints
E. Glycogen synthesis

Answer 251

B. Connective tissue

Question 252

Which of the following participate in both fatty acid biosynthesis and b-oxidation of fatty acids?

A. Malonyl CoA.
B. FAD.
C. Acetyl CoA.
D. NAD.

Answer 252

C. Acetyl CoA.

Question 253

Insulin produces which of the following
changes in mammalian cells?

A. Increase in liver glycogen production.
B. Increase in blood glucose concentration.
C. Decrease in the transport of glucose into
muscle.
D. Increase in the transport of glucose into the brain.

Answer 253

A. Increase in liver glycogen production.

Question 254

Osteocytes are found in _____ in mature bone.

A. Trabeculae
B. Lacunae
C. The central canal
D. Canaliculi
E. Spicules

Answer 254

B. Lacunae

Question 255

Which one of the following morphological
characteristic is representative of all
posterior maxillary teeth?

A. Marked mesial concavity on crowns and
roots.
B. Tips of cusps are well within the confines of the root trunks.
C. From mesial/distal aspect, crowns are rhomboidal in shape.
D. From mesial/distal aspect, all maxillary posterior crowns are trapezoidal with shortest uneven side toward occlusal surface.

Answer 255

D. From mesial/distal aspect, all maxillary posterior crowns are trapezoidal with shortest uneven side toward occlusal surface.

Question 256

Nephrolithiasis is most likely to be associated with which of the following conditions?

A. Hyperparathyroidism.
B. Myxedema.
C. Pyelonephritis.
D. Wilson’s disease.
E. Thrombocytopenia

Answer 256

A. Hyperparathyroidism.

Question 257

The rate-limiting enzyme in glycolysis is which of the following?

A. Fructose bisphosphatase.
B. Phosphofructokinase.
C. Phosphoglucose isomerase.
D. Glucokinase.

Answer 257

B. Phosphofructokinase.

Question 258

The type of collagen characteristically found in cartilage is which of the following?

A. Type I.
B. Type II.
C. Type III.
D. Type IV.

Answer 258

B. Type II.

Question 259

A most characteristic feature of the primary maxillary central incisor is which of the following?

A. Faciolingual breadth of the crown.
B. Mesiodistal width of the crown.
C. Mesial and distal margin outlines in line with profiles of root.
D. Root/crown ratio.

Answer 259

B. Mesiodistal width of the crown.

Question 260

The spread of an odontogenic infection to
which of the following spaces would MOST
likely be considered life-threatening?

A. Submandibular space
B. Sublingual space
C. Parapharyngeal space
D. Retropharyngeal space
E. Pterygomandibular space

Answer 260

D. Retropharyngeal space

Question 261

The most common mutation accounting for
the pathogenesis of trisomy 21 is _____.

A. Chromosome translocation
B. Meiotic nondisjunction
C. Mitotic nondisjunction
D. Single deletion
E. X-linked inheritance

Answer 261

B. Meiotic nondisjunction

Question 262

What type of collagen is found in cementum?

A. Type I collagen.
B. Type II collagen.
C. Type III collagen.
D. Type IV collagen.
E. Type V collagen

Answer 262

A. Type I collagen.

Question 263

What happens to net filtration in the
glomerulus when plasma protein
concentration is decreased?

A. Net filtration (ultrafiltration) increases.
B. Net filtration (ultrafiltration) decreases.
C. Net filtration remains unchanged.
D. Net filtration ceases

Answer 263

A. Net filtration (ultrafiltration) increases.

Question 264

The presence of Auer rods in a peripheral blood smear suggests which of the following conditions?

A. Acute lymphocytic leukemia.
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
C. Acute myelogenous leukemia.
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
E. Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

Answer 264

C. Acute myelogenous leukemia.

Question 265

Hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland include which of the following?

A. Prolactin.
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone.
C. Luteinizing hormone.
D. Vasopressin

Answer 265

D. Vasopressin

Question 266

Which of the following is the predominant
immunoglobulin in whole saliva?

A. Secretory IgA.
B. Secretory IgG.
C. Secretory IgM.
D. Secretory IgB

Answer 266

A. Secretory IgA.

Question 267

Which of the following is not an arch trait of the maxillary canine?

A. In the same dentition, the crown is larger than the mandibular canine.
B. The incisal margin of the crown occupies at least one third to one half of crown height.
C. Labial aspect: mesial and distal marginal
ridges converge toward cervix.
D. Marked symmetry of mesial/distal halves when viewed from incisal.

Answer 267

D. Marked symmetry of mesial/distal halves when viewed from incisal.

Question 268

During exercise, which of the following is
decreased?

A. Oxidation of fatty acids.
B. Glucagon release.
C. Glycogenolysis.
D. Lipogenesis.

Answer 268

D. Lipogenesis.

Question 269

Involution of the thymus would occur following which year in a healthy
individual?

A. 0 years (at birth).
B. 12th year.
C. 20th year.
D. 60th year.

Answer 269

B. 12th year.

Question 270

Monoamine oxidase (MAO) _____.

A. Inactivates reduced steroid derivatives
B. Is activated by MAO inhibitors
C. Inactivates catecholamines by oxidative
deamination
D. Is located in the synapse where it inactivates
the neurotransmitter acetylcholine

Answer 270

C. Inactivates catecholamines by oxidative
deamination

Question 271

Sleep bruxism can be characterized by which of the following?

A. Episodes of massive, bilateral clenching.
B. Tooth grinding that may last for up to 20 minutes.
C. Often coincides with passage from lighter to deeper sleep.
D. Occurs approximately every 20 minutes in the sleep cycle.

Answer 271

A. Episodes of massive, bilateral clenching

Question 272

An endocrine disorder that causes an early loss of primary teeth and the early eruption of secondary teeth is _____.

A. Myxedema
B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
C. DiGeorge’s syndrome
D. Plummer’s disease
E. Dwarfism

Answer 272

D. Plummer’s disease

Question 273

Which of the following factors will not influence the rate at which a meal will leave the stomach?

A. Acidification of the duodenum.
B. Increasing the tonicity of the intestine.
C. Saline in the duodenum.
D. Lipid in the intestine.

Answer 273

C. Saline in the duodenum.

Question 274

Occlusal interferences can be defined by all of the following except:
A. Occlusal contact relations that interfere with function.
B. Interference to jaw closure into the intercuspal position.
C. Interferences to laterotrusive movements.
D. Interferences to jaw opening.

Answer 274

D. Interferences to jaw opening.

Question 275

The olecranon fossa is located on the _____
surface of the _____.

A. Superior; radius
B. Anterior; humerus
C. Posterior; humerus
D. Anterior; radius

Answer 275

C. Posterior; humerus

Question 276

Which of the following is usually least malignant?

A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
B. Acute lymphocytic leukemia.
C. Acute myelogenous leukemia.
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
E. Chronic myelogenous leukemia.

Answer 276

D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia.

Question 277

Each of the following describes collagen
except one. Which is the exception?

A. Most abundant protein in the body.
B. Modifications to procollagen occur in the
extracellular matrix.
C. Incorporates hydroxyproline into the molecule by Trna.
D. Hydroxylation of proline requires vitamin C and molecular oxygen.

Answer 277

C. Incorporates hydroxyproline into the molecule by Trna.

Question 278

Which position of the mental foramen relative to the mandibular premolars and first molar occurs most frequently?

A. Between the first and second premolars.
B. In line with the second premolar.
C. Distal to the second premolar.
D. In line with the mesial root of the first molar.

Answer 278

C. Distal to the second premolar.

Question 279

From the lingual perspective the primary maxillary first molar has which of the following characteristics?

A. Distolingual cusp is the most prominent cusp.
B. Mesiolingual cusp poorly defined.
C. Distobuccal cusp cannot be seen from lingual aspect.
D. Crown converges considerably in a lingual direction.

Answer 279

D. Crown converges considerably in a lingual direction.

Question 280

In addition to the esophagus itself, which of the following structures also passes through the diaphragm through the esophageal opening?

A. The aorta.
B. The inferior vena cava.
C. The azygos vein.
D. The posterior and anterior vagal trunks.
E. The splanchnic nerves.

Answer 280

D. The posterior and anterior vagal trunks.