CT DRILLS 1 AND 2 Flashcards
If the Board refuses to admit to the licensure examination an applicant who has all the qualifications for admission and none of the disqualifications, or when the Board refuses the issuance of a Certificate of Registration to a successful examinee who has answered all the requirements and the refusal is due to whimsical reasons or for no reason at all, what judicial remedy will compel the Board to issue the certificate?
a. prohibition
b. certiorari
c. injunction
d. mandamus
d. mandamus
NOTES:
Prohibition- Prohibit= Prevent
Certiorari- to be informed; order of the supreme court to inferior court
Injunction
1. Preliminary Injunction= to refrain
2. Preliminary Mandatory Injunction= to require
Mandamus= Mandatory; obliged to do under the law
This doctrine is used as the dentist’s defense, it is a careless act of omission on the part of the patient contributing to the negligence of the dentist
in the production and causation of the patient’s own injury.
a. continuing negligence
b. contributory negligence
c. professional negligence
d. res ipsa loquitor
b. contributory negligence
NOTES:
LEGAL DOCTRINES- currency of the law; sets the futur resolution of the case.
(1) Res Ipsa Loquitor- the thing speaks for itself
(2) Respondent superior- let the master speak
(3) Force majeure- an act of God/ Greater force/ Unforseen event/ Fortuitus event
(4) Stare Decicis- to stand by things already decided
(5) Reasonable Man Standard- man rule
(6) Good Samaritan Doctrine
(7) Assumption Risk
(8) Informed Consent
“Jus Sanguinis” is a principle of citizenship which is acquired by reason of:
a. place of birth
b. place and choice
c. blood and place of birth
d. parentage
d. parentage
NOTES:
JUS SANGUINIS: right of blood; parentage
JUS SOLI- law of the place of birth
This refers to the meeting of the minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect to the other, to give something or to render some service.
A. Obligations
B. Contract
C. Rescissble
D. Fraud
B. Contract
The following cannot give consent:
A. Unemancipated minors
B. Insane or demented persons
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
C. all of the above
NOTES:
INFORMED CONSENT
CANNOT GIVE
(1) Unemancipated minors
(2) Insane/ Demented persons
(3) Deaf/ Mutes who do not know how to write
CAN GIVE
(1) Any capacitated patient
(2) Spouce
(3) Parent/ Natural guardian in case of minors
(4) A guardian in case a person is incapacitated to give consent
(5) A legal guardian appointed by the court
(6) Dulu appointed officers of DSWD
These are damages that are agreed upon by the parties to a contract, to be paid in case of breach thereof:
a. Temperate damages
b. Moral damages
c. Actual damages
d. Liquidated damages
e. Nominal damages
d. Liquidated damages
NOTES:
DAMAGES:
a. Temperate damages- cannot be provided with certainty
b. Moral damages- causes moral shock/ anxiety
c. Actual damages- proven and can be calculated
d. Liquidated damages- in case of breach of contract
e. Nominal damages- entited to a large sum of money
f. exemplary damages- sets an example to the public
Insanity is an example of:
A. alternative circumstances
B. exempting circumstances
C. justifying circumstances
D. aggravating circumstances
E. mitigating circumstances
B. exempting circumstances
NOTES:
MODYFYING CIRCUMSTANCES AFFECTING CRIMINAL LIABILITY
(1) Exempting circumstances- ex: insanity/ imbecility
(2) Justifying circumstances- ex: self defense
(3) Aggravating circumstances- ↑ sentence; lack of remorse
(4) Mitigating circumstances- ↓ sentence; show of remorse
The Professional Regulation Commission, in which the Board of Dentistry belongs, is directly under what department/office?
a. legislative department
b. the Office of the President
c. executive department
d. Commission on Higher Education
e. The Judiciary
b. the Office of the President
NOTES:
REPUBLIC ACT NO. 9484
ARTICLE II SECTION 5. COMPOSITION OF THE BOARD.
- BOARD= BOD
- Appointed by: President of the Philippines
- 5 members: 1 Chairman + 4 members
- PRC= Commission
The certificate of registration contains the following, except:
a. a serial number
b. signatures of the chairman and members of the Board of Dentistry
c. signature of the PRC chairman
d. name of school where dentist graduated
e. none of the choices.
d. name of school where dentist graduated
NOTES:
ARTICLE III. SECTION 10. ISSUANCE OF THE CERTIFICATE OF REGISTRATION AND PROFESSIONAL IDENTIFICATION CARD.
I. Certificate of Registration shall bear:
- Name of the dentist
- Signature of the chairperson of the Commision, Chairman and members of the board
- Stamped with the official seal of the Board and the Commision
- License number
It is the law-making body of the Philippine government which enacts, repeals or amends the law:
a. legislative branch
b. executive branch
c. judiciary branch
d. none of these
a. legislative branch
NOTES:
BRANCHES OF THE GOVERNMENT
(1) EXECUTIVE: carries out and enforces the law; President
(2) LEGISLATIVE: makes, alter or repeal the law; Senate and House of representatives
(3) JUDICIARY: applies the law and check if the law is violated; Superior & Inferior court
The Board of Dentistry is composed of ____ members:
a. three
b. seven
c. five
d. six
c. five
NOTES:
REPUBLIC ACT NO. 9484
ARTICLE II SECTION 5. COMPOSITION OF THE BOARD.
- BOARD= BOD
- Appointed by: President of the Philippines
- 5 members: 1 Chairman + 4 members
- PRC= Commission
A member of the Board of Dentistry may be removed from office after proper administrative investigation due to the following factor:
a. for honorable conduct or professional conduct
b. commission or toleration of irregularities in the examination
c. when the member reaches the age of 60
d. competency or continued concern for duty
b. commission or toleration of irregularities in the examination
Power and duty/function vested in the Board of Dentistry:
a. to issue summons, subpoena duces tecum to alleged violators or witnesses of the dental law
b. to delegate the bearing or investigation of administrative cases filed before them
c. to prepare, score and rate the licensure examination papers and submit the results to the President of the Philippines
d. to suspend, revoke or re-issue certificate of registration (even without) due process
c. to prepare, score and rate the licensure examination papers and submit the results to the President of the Philippines
Fortuitous event, or force majeure means:
a. an obligation
b. a premeditated circumstance
c. an unforeseen event
d. an act of violence
c. an unforeseen event
NOTES:
LEGAL DOCTRINES- currency of the law; sets the futur resolution of the case.
(1) Res Ipsa Loquitor- the thing speaks for itself
(2) Respondent superior- let the master speak
(3) Force majeure- an act of God/ Greater force/ Unforseen event/ Fortuitus event
(4) Stare Decicis- to stand by things already decided
(5) Reasonable Man Standard- man rule
(6) Good Samaritan Doctrine
(7) Assumption Risk
(8) Informed Consent
The presence of vices of consent renders the contract
A. Void
B. Voidable
C. Rescissible
D. Unenforceable
B. Voidable
NOTES:
TYPES OF DEFECTIVE CONTRACT
A. Void (Inexistent)- contrary to the law
B. Voidable- presence of the vices
C. Rescissible- economic prejudice (discrimination/inequality)
D. Unenforceable
Intentionally defaming someone in writing is known as
a. Fraud
b. Libel
c. Assault
d. Slander
b. Libel
NOTES:
DEFAMATION:
(1) LIBEL = Lapis → writing
(2) SLANDER = Salita → words
This means to do something which a reasonable man, guided by those considerations which ordinarily regulate human affairs, would do; or it is doing something which a prudent and reasonable man would not do
a. Ignorance
b. Negligence
c. Unskillfullness
d. Slander
e. None of the choices
b. Negligence
NOTES:
NEGLIGENCE: due to inappopriate decision; failure to apply proper diligence, skill or judgement
MALPRACTICE: “professional negligence” ; did not do the proper SOP
ILLEGAL PRACTICE: do not have the authorization to do certain procedures
These are unconditional payments for services or payments made after a service is rendered
a. Retainer fee
b. Simple Fee
c. Contingency Fee
d. Wages
e. Commission
b. Simple Fee
NOTES:
a. Retainer fee- “reservaton fee”; agree fee paid to secure services
b. Simple Fee- service=payment
c. Contingency Fee- based on favorability of the results
d. Commission
e. Straight fee- “package deal”
The dentist shall make newspaper announcement only within ___days from date of opening, change, or limitation of practice:
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 20
e. 10
a. 30
NOTES:
CODE FOR ETHICS FOR DENTISTS, DENTAL HYGENIST AND DENTAL TECHNOLOGISTS
ARTICLE III. SECTION 21. ANNOUNCEMENTS
- Newspaper Announcement
(1) Opening a new clinic
(2) Changing location
(3) Limiting the character of practice
Size: not larger than 2x2 or 2 column by 2 column
Duration: within 30 days from the date of opening
The passport in the legitimate practice of dentistry in the country is the:
a. certificate of passing
b. certificate of recognition
c. certificate of participation
d. certificate of registration
e. transcript of records
d. certificate of registration
The dovetail on a modified class III cavity preparation in the primary dentition should be accentual toward the
a. Gingival
b. Incisal
c. Midline
d. Crest of the contour of the tooth
a. Gingival
In tooth preparation for a steel crown, the surface requiring the least amount of reduction is the
a. Distal
b. Buccal
c. Mesial
d. Lingual
e. Occlusal
d. Lingual
During an emergency dental visit in which a tooth is to be extracted due to extensive pulpal involvement, a moderately mentally challenged 5-year-old child becomes physically combative. The parents are unable to calm the child. What should the dentist do?
A. Discuss the situation with the parents.
B. Force the nitrous oxide nosepiece over the child’s mouth and nose.
C. Use the hand over mouth exercise (HOME).
D. Use a firm voice control.
A. Discuss the situation with the parents.
if a vitality test taken immediately after a traumatic blow to a tooth is negative, this indicates that the tooth should be
a. immediately considered for a pulpectomy
b. observed for a period of 10 days to 2 weeks and then another vitality test taken
c. ignored unless it becomes symptomatic
d. given a test cavity preparation without anesthesia to determine vitality
b. observed for a period of 10 days to 2 weeks and then another vitality test taken
The mother of a 5-year-old patient is concerned about the child’s thumbsucking habit. Six months ago, the patient had 5-mm overjet and a 3-mm
anterior open bite. Today, the patient has 10% overbite and 3.5-mm overjet. The mother says that the child only sucks his thumb every night when falling to sleep. Of the following, which is the best advice?
A. Refer to a speech pathologist.
B. Recommend tongue thrust therapy.
C. Recommend a thumb-sucking appliance.
D. Counsel the parent regarding thumb-sucking, and recall the patient in 3 months.
D. Counsel the parent regarding thumb-sucking, and recall the patient in 3 months.
Which of the following depicts the usual order of extraction of teeth if serial extraction is chosen as the treatment to alleviate severe crowding?
A. Primary second molars, primary first molars, permanent first premolars, primary canines
B. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars
C. Primary first molars, primary second molars, primary canines
D. Primary canines, permanent canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars
B. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars
NOTES:
METHODS OF SERIAL EXTRACTION
DEWEL’S METHOD: CD4- most common
TWEED’S METHOD: D4C
A 7-year-old has a 4-mm maxillary midline diastema. Which of the following should be done?
A. Brackets should be placed to close it.
B. A radiograph should be taken to rule out the presence of a supernumerary tooth.
C. Nothing should be done. It will close on its own.
D. Nothing should be done. Treatment should be deferred until the rest of the permanent dentition erupts.
B. A radiograph should be taken to rule out the presence of a supernumerary tooth.
NOTES:
DIASTEMA < 2mm
- Common and normal during the mixed dentition period
- Usually closes after canine erupts
DIASTEMA > 2mm
- Unlikely to close even after canine erupts
- Usually caused by supernumerary teeth
- Radiographs should be taken
Congenitally missing teeth are the result of failure in which stage of development?
A. Initiation
B. Morphodifferentiation
C. Apposition
D. Calcification
A. Initiation
The change in color of a traumatized primary incisor usually results from all the following except
a. laceration of periodontal fibers
b. diffusion of bilverdin into the dentinal tubules
c. development of a heavy layer of secondary dentin
d. internal resorption of dentin within the crown
a. laceration of periodontal fibers
The enamel rods in the gingival third of primary teeth slope occlusally instead of cervically as in permanent teeth, and the interproximal contacts of primary teeth are broader and flatter than permanent teeth
A. The first statement is true and the second statement is true.
B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.
D. The first statement is false and the second statement is false.
A. The first statement is true and the second statement is true.
A 3 year old child is frightened by sudden noises, bright lights, loss of support; this behavior is described as anxiety related to
a. Abstract thinking
b. Slow mental maturation
c. Concrete fears
d. Reflex reaction
c. Concrete fears
What is a second-order bend?
A. A bend to position a tooth buccolingually
B. A bend to provide angulation of a tooth in mesiodistal direction (tip)
C. A bend to provide correct angulation of a tooth in labiolingual direction (torque)
D. A bend to rotate a tooth
B. A bend to provide angulation of a tooth in mesiodistal direction (tip)
NOTES:
THREE ORDER BENDS OF TOOTH MOVEMENT
(1) First-order bend: In and Out bend
- to position a tooth buccolingually/ faciolingually of the CROWN
(2) Second order bend: Tip bends
- to provide angulation of a tooth in mesiodistal direction (tip)
(3) Third order bend: Torque
- to position a tooth buccolingually/ faciolingually of the ROOT
When is a Nance appliance indicated?
A. Bilateral loss of primary maxillary molars
B. Bilateral loss of primary mandibular molars
C. Loss of one primary molar
D. To control thumb-sucking behavior
A. Bilateral loss of primary maxillary molars
NOTES:
NANCE APPLIANCE
- Bilateral loss of primary maxillary molars
LINGUAL HOLDING ARCH
- Bilateral loss of primary mandibular molars
BAND AND LOOP
- Loss of one primary molar
PALATAL CRIB
- To control thumb-sucking behavior
What type of tooth movement are open-coil springs used for?
A. Close spaces between teeth
B. Upright teeth
C. Intrusion
D. Translation
B. Upright teeth
NOTES:
OPEN COIL SPRINGS- Open spaces to upright teeth
CLOSED COIL SPRINGS- Close spaces between teeth
Methods employed in orthodontic treatment to align a crowded dentition include
A. Extraction of teeth
B. Expansion of arches
C. Distalization of teeth
D. Interproximal reduction of teeth
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
This has been adapted as the best horizontal orientation that assesses lateral representation of the skull. Which of the following cephalometric
landmarks make up this plane when a line is drawn to connect them?
A. Sella and nasion
B. Gonion and gnathion
C. Porion and orbitale
D. Spheno-occipital synchondrosis and anterior nasal spine (ANS)
C. Porion and orbitale
What is the most common site to find a supernumerary tooth?
A. Distal to the third molars
B. Between the central incisors
C. Between the central and lateral incisors
D. Inferior border of the mandible
B. Between the central incisors
Disturbances in the morphodifferentiation stage of the development of the tooth germ results in
a. An abnormal number of teeth
b. Ameloblastomas
c. Abnormal forms and sizes of teeth
d. All of the above
c. Abnormal forms and sizes of teeth
In a pseudo–class III malocclusion, the patient has the ability to:
A. Bring the mandible back with strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
B. Bring the mandible forward without strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
C. Bring the mandible forward with strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
D. Bring the mandible back without strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
D. Bring the mandible back without strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
NOTES
CLASS I- Bring the mandible forward without strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
CLASS II- Bring the mandible forward with strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
CLASS III- Bring the mandible back with strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
The final responsibility for the performance of preventive and control dental treatment techniques rest
a. Parents
b. Community programs
c. Practicing dentists
d. School dental clinics
e. Public health departments
a. Parents
The pectinate muscles are located within the heart
A. On the interatrial septum
B. In the right ventricle
C. On the inner surfaces of the right atrium
D. On the sinus venosum
E. On the right side of the interventricular septum
C. On the inner surfaces of the right atrium
All of the following are found in the posterior triangle of the neck except one. Which one is the exception?
A. External jugular vein.
B. Subclavian vein.
C. Hypoglossal nerve.
D. Phrenic
E. Brachial plexus.
C. Hypoglossal nerve.
Erythropoietin:
a. Raises the blood sugar level
b. Controls blood pressure
c. Promotes protein production
d. Stimulates red blood cell production
d. Stimulates red blood cell production
Which of the following factors will not influence the rate at which a meal will leave the stomach?
A. Acidification of the duodenum.
B. Increasing the tonicity of the intestine.
C. Saline in the duodenum.
D. Lipid in the intestine.
C. Saline in the duodenum.
Specialized structures, which are found periodically along lymph vessels, are:
A. Thrombocytes
B. Lacteals
C. Lymph nodes
D. Gap junctions
C. Lymph nodes
Damage to the occipital cortex would interfere directly with
a. audition
b. vision
c. motor control to striated muscles
d. motor control to smooth muscles
e. none of the above
b. vision
The FIRST cell to arrive from the vascular bed to an injured area is the:
a. Eosiniphil
b. Lymphocyte
c. Neutrophil
d. Plasma cell
e. None of the above
c. Neutrophil
In a myelinated axon the depolarization wave moves from one node of Ranvier to the next. This form of conduction is called:
a. antidromic conduction
b. orthodromic conduction
c. saltatory conduction
d. hyperpolarized conduction
c. saltatory conduction
Endotoxin consists of _____.
a. Lipopolysaccharide
b. M protein
c. Hyaluronidase
d. Lactic acid
e. Coagulase
a. Lipopolysaccharide
Which of the following is the number of chromosomes present after fusion of sperm and egg?
a. 1/2N
b. N
c. 2N
d. 3N
c. 2N
Which two muscles form a sling around the mandible?
A. Masseter and temporalis
B. Medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid
C. Masseter and medial pterygoid
D. Masseter and lateral pterygoid
E. None of the above
C. Masseter and medial pterygoid
The gamma motor neurons control which of the following?
A. Muscle spindles.
B. Iris of the eye.
C. Voluntary muscle fibers.
D. Pyloric sphincter.
A. Muscle spindles.
Which of the following statements about the olfactory system is true?
a. The receptor cells are neurons.
b. The receptor cells are sloughed off and are not replaced.
c. Axons of cranial nerve (CN) I are A-delta fibers
d. Axons from receptor cells synapse in the prepiriform cortex.
e. Fractures of the cribiform plate can cause inability to detect ammonia
a. The receptor cells are neurons.
Langerhans cells are located primarily in stratum _____.
A. Corneum
B. Lucidum
C. Granulosum
D. Spinosum
E. Basale
D. Spinosum
To which of the following bones is the tensor tympani attached?
A. Incus.
B. Malleus.
C. Stapes.
D. Hyoid
E. Mandible
B. Malleus.
NOTES:
AUDITORY OSSICLES
(MIS= HAS)
Malleus/ Hammer
Incus/ Anvil
Stapes/ Stirrups
On the playground at recess, a young girl is stung by a bee and immediately breaks out inhives and starts gasping for air. The teacher grabs an epinephrine autoinjector from the first aid kit and is able to save the girl. What cells when bound by IgE, are responsible for this anaphylactic reaction?
a. Mast cells
b. Macrophages
c. Platelets
d. Kupffer cells
a. Mast cells
A 50-year old female was diagnosed with anaphylactic thyroid cancer and underwent aggressive surgery to remove most of the thyroid gland. Unfortunately, the surgeon also excised the parathyroid glands. Which of the following could result from the excision of parathyroid glands?
a. Strengthening of muscles
b. Weakening of bones
c. Muscle cramping
d. Decalcification of bones
c. Muscle cramping
Which artery supplies the maxillary and mandibular teeth?
a. Vertebral artery
b. Maxillary artery
c. Occipital artery
d. Subclavian artery
b. Maxillary artery
Which of the following processes is not a true component of swallowing?
A. Closure of the glottis.
B. Involuntary relaxation of the upper esophageal sphincter.
C. Movements of the tongue against the palate.
D. Esophageal peristalsis.
C. Movements of the tongue against the palate.
Which of the following are the most abundant in the fovea centralis of the eyeball?
A. Rod cells
B. Cone cells
C. Rod and cone cells
D. Amacrine cells.
E. Ganglion cells.
B. Cone cells
An articulator is a mechanical instrument used to represent the temporomandibular joint and mandible. A classification system was developed to determine the variable movements an articulator can produce. Which of the following is the most commonly used type of articulator?
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
E. Class V
C. Class III
A 68-year-old male presents with severe loss of tooth structure on an abutment for an existing removable partial denture. A crown is indicated for the tooth. Which of the following are important considerations when preparing a removable partial denture abutment to receive a crown?
A. Path of draw
B. Location of rests
C. Orientation of guiding planes
D. Placement of porcelain on metal finish lines
E. All of the above.
E. All of the above.
Recognition of wall convergence angles in crown preparation will determine if undercuts are produced when taper is too small and if retention is undermined when taper is too large. What degree of wall convergence during crown preparation will give the prosthesis optimal retention?
A. 1 to 3 degrees
B. 3 to 6 degrees
C. 4 to 8 degrees
D. 6 to 9 degrees
B. 3 to 6 degrees
For a mandibular denture, the secondary peripheral seal area is the:
a. Retromylohyoid space
b. Anterior lingual border
c. Retromolar pad area
d. Buccal shelf
b. Anterior lingual border
In the mesial rest, guide plane and I-bar design, reciprocation is achieved by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Rigid plating
b. Minor connectors
c. Guide planes extended around the vertical line of abutments
d. Achieving balanced occlusion
e. Reciprocal clasp arms
d. Achieving balanced occlusion
Glazed porcelain is:
a. Obtained by heating the previously fired body very slowly for 60 minutes at its fusing temperature
b. Nonporous, resists abrasion, possesses esthetic ability and is well tolerated by the gingiva
c. Not as durable (in its surface characteristics) as an over-glazed porcelain
d. All of the above
b. Nonporous, resists abrasion, possesses esthetic ability and is well tolerated by the gingiva
Glazed porcelain: Seals open pores= resists abrasion
What is the recommended prosthodontic treatment of a patient missing four maxillary incisors with severe ridge resorption and limited finances?
A. No treatment
B. Fixed bridgework
C. Maxillary removable partial denture
D. Maryland bridge
C. Maxillary removable partial denture
A 51-year-old male patient presents for the final impression appointment for the fabrication of a complete upper denture. As you remove the final impression from the patient’s mouth in the custom tray, which of the following structures are you attempting to accurately capture?
I. Residual ridge
II. Labial and buccal frenum
III. Labial and buccal vestibules
IV. Tuberosities
V. Hamular notches
VI. Posterior palatal seal
VII. Fovea
VIII. Hard palate
IX. Rugae
X. Incisive papilla
A. I, II, III, IV, and V
B. II, IV, VI, VIII, and X
C. I, III, V, VII, and XI
D. VI, VII, VIII, IX, and X
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
A 44-year-old male presents with missing teeth #6 to #9. After being presented with many treatment options including rockets power dancers (RPD), dental implants, and bridge, the patient elects for the fabrication of an RPD. Where is the path of insertion going to allow for the best esthetics minimizing space between artificial and natural teeth?
A. Parallel to the most distal maxillary molar or most posterior tooth
B. Extracting remaining anterior teeth and then fabricating RPD would be best for esthetics
C. Parallel to the proximal surfaces of the abutment teeth adjacent to the space
D. Parallel to the mandibular anterior teeth due to occlusion
E. An RPD should not be considered
C. Parallel to the proximal surfaces of the abutment teeth adjacent to the space
Which primary design-quality of the occlusal rest would categorize it as a “positive” rest?
a. Allow no tilting of the appliance
b. Prevent the movement of the appliance
c. Transmit stress down the long axis of the tooth
d. Form acute angles with the minor connectors that connect them to the major connectors
e. Have a thickness of 1.5 mm
d. Form acute angles with the minor connectors that connect them to the major connectors
When surveying casts, the clinician/technician must perform an important step in order to correctly record the path of insertion, the position of the survey line and the location of undercut and non undercut areas. Which of the ff. is considered to be that step?
a. The recontouring of proximal walls of abutments parallel to the path of insertion
b. The use of indelible lead marker
c. Placing tripod marks on the cast to record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor
d. Fixing the casts with screws on the surveying table
e. All of the above steps are equally important
c. Placing tripod marks on the cast to record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor
A patient of yours walks into your office with the following complaint: “When I smile, my upper denture doesn’t hold.” Which area of the denture base needs to be adjusted?
a. Labial notch and labial flange
b. Buccal notch and buccal flange
c. Posterior border
d. Distobuccal flange
b. Buccal notch and buccal flange
Which of the following Kennedy classes of removable partial dentures are not tooth-borne? Select all that apply:
i. Class I
ii. Class II
iii. Class III
iv. Class IV
a. i and iii
b. iii and iv
c. i and ii
d. ii and iii
c. i and ii
Fabricating a complete denture requires many important steps from impression taking to tooth shape and shade selection. What are the three factors for successful fit of a complete denture once it has been fabricated?
A. Stability, resiliency, and temperature
B. Stability, support, and retention
C. Retention, resiliency, and temperature
D. Support, temperature, and retention
E. Retention, flexibility, and support
B. Stability, support, and retention
It is important to select an esthetic tooth shape and to consider alignment features when fabricating any type of prosthesis. Considered in treatment planning and evaluation of patients smile analysis, what is the acceptable midline deviation?
A. 1 mm
B. 2 mm
C. 3 mm
D. 4 mm
E. 5 mm
B. 2 mm
A 28-year-old asymptomatic male patient presents with active caries and active periodontal disease. What is the best treatment for a posterior endodontically treated premolar?
A. Veneer
B. Metal–ceramic crown
C. MO amalgam
D. Extraction
E. Fixed partial denture
C. MO amalgam
At the wax try-in, the maxillary plane appears to be correct, yet when the patient closes lightly in centric relation, the mandibular teeth appear to show too much. The patient’s lips do not contact unless the patient forces them to do so. What is the most likely error that has occurred?
A. Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion
B. Inaccurate face-bow transfer
C. Over closed vertical dimension of occlusion
D. Excessive amount of freeway space
A. Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion
Dental plaster and stone are vibrated after mixing to
a. Minimize distortion
b. Reduce setting time
c. Eliminate air bubbles
d. Increase the setting time
c. Eliminate air bubbles
Which impression material has the best wettability?
a. Polyether
b. Polysulfide
c. Hydrocolloids (reversible and irreversible)
d. Polyvinyl siloxane
c. Hydrocolloids (reversible and irreversible)
All of the following are true regarding indirect retention EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. It is a rest seat
b. It is located as far anterior as possible
c. The function is to prevent vertical dislodgement of the distal extension base of a removable partial denture
d. It is usually an MO rest seat on a first molar
d. It is usually an MO rest seat on a first molar
Karyotyping can be used to diagnose which of the following diseases?
A. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
B. Multiple myeloma.
C. Niemann-Pick disease.
D. Pemphigus.
E. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.
A. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
Gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) produces secretory _____.
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
A. IgA
In pemphigus, autoantibodies are directed against which of the following structures?
A. Acetylcholine receptor.
B. Sarcomere.
C. Epidermis.
D. Thyroid follicle.
E. Lysosomes
C. Epidermis.
The outermost of the three layers of the heart is the:
A .Epicardium
B. Myocardium
C. Endocardium
D. Periocardium
A .Epicardium
Terminal bronchioles are characterized by _____ cells.
A. Goblet
B. Ciliated cuboidal
C. Nonciliated cuboidal
D. Ciliated squamous
E. Nonciliated squamous
B. Ciliated cuboidal
The HIV virus binds directly to the surface receptors of CD4 lymphocytes with _____.
A. Reverse transcriptase
B. Integrase
C. Hemagglutinin
D. Glycoprotein 120
E. Protease
D. Glycoprotein 120
Which salivary gland is the smallest and contains mostly mucous acini
a. Submandibular gland
b. Parotid gland
c. Sublingual gland
d. Any of the above
c. Sublingual gland
Parotid gland
- Stensen’s duct= SEROUS
Submandibular gland
- Wharton’s duct= SEROMUCOUS (MIXED)
Sublingual gland
(1) Bartholin’s duct (Major)- MUCOUS
(2) Rivini’s duct (Minor)- MUCOUS
An autoclave sterilizes dental instruments by causing which of the following?
A. Coagulation of proteins.
B. Denaturing of proteins.
C. Precipitation of nucleic acids.
D. Disruption of cell membranes.
E. Dissolution of lipids.
B. Denaturing of proteins.
Polycystic kidney disease is most commonly associated with _____.
A. Renal cell carcinoma
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Urolithiasis
D. Berry aneurysm
E. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
D. Berry aneurysm
Which of the following types of epithelium lines acinar units of salivary glands?
A. Simple squamous.
B. Stratified squamous.
C. Simple cuboidal.
D. Simple columnar.
E. Pseudostratified columnar.
C. Simple cuboidal.
What is the name of the cell present in mesenchyme that is capable of differentiating into any of the l special types of connective tissue or supporting tissues, smooth muscle, vascular endothelium, or blood cells?
a. Mast cell
b. Mesenchymal cell
c. Macroglia cell
d. Myoepithelial cell
b. Mesenchymal cell
What type of collagen is found in cementum?
A. Type I collagen.
B. Type II collagen.
C. Type III collagen.
D. Type IV collagen.
E. Type V collagen.
A. Type I collagen.
NOTES:
Type I: bONE (connective tissues, tendons, ligaments, bone, teeth, and the dermis of the skin)
Type II: car2lage (hyaline catilage)
Type III: re3cular; iMMune (liver, bone marrow, and lymphoid organs)
Type IV: Floor (basement membranes)
Which gland releases growth hormone?
a. Anterior pituitary
b. Posterior pituitary
c. Adrenal medulla
d. Adrenal cortex
e. Thyroid
a. Anterior pituitary
Excision of the parathyroid glands would result in
a. Strengthening of muscles
b. Weakening of bones
c. Muscle convulsions
d. Decalcification of bones
c. Muscle convulsions
Which hormone is the most plentiful anterior pituitary hormone?
a. Prolactin
b. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
c. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
d. Growth hormone (GH)
e. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
d. Growth hormone (GH)
The facial nerve, the retromandibular vein, and the external carotid artery, lie within which salivary gland?
a. Submandibular gland
b. Parotid gland
c. Sublingual gland
d. Lingual gland
b. Parotid gland
Wharton’s duct is associated with:
a. The parotid glands
b. The submandibular glands
c. The sublingual glands
d. Von Ebner’s glands
b. The submandibular glands
NOTES:
Parotid gland
- Stensen’s duct= SEROUS
Submandibular gland
- Wharton’s duct= SEROMUCOUS (MIXED)
Sublingual gland
(1) Bartholin’s duct (Major)- MUCOUS
(2) Rivini’s duct (Minor)- MUCOUS
Which gland is both an exocrine and endocrine gland?
a. Thyroid gland
b. Thymus
c. Pancreas
d. Parathyroid glands
c. Pancreas
The proper sequence of the adrenal cortex zones, from the inside > out is:
a. Zona glomerulosa > zona fasiculata > zona reticularis
b. Zona fasiculata > zona glomerulosa > zona reticularis
c. Zona reticularis > zona fasiculata > zona glomerulosa
d. Zona reticularis > zona glomerulosa > zona fasiculata
c. Zona reticularis > zona fasiculata > zona glomerulosa
Compared to companion arteries, veins show all of the following, except:
a. Less muscle
b. Lower blood pressure within them
c. Less elastic tissue
d. Same general structure
e. Smaller diameter
e. Smaller diameter
Most commonly used modification in an onlay
preparation for teeth that exhibit the split-tooth
syndrome:
A. Collar preparation
B. Skirt preparation
C. Slot preparation
D. Facial and lingual surface groove extension
B. Skirt preparation
Which species has been implicated in the dental caries process?
A. Staphylococcus
B. Bacteroides
C. Escherichia coli
D. Streptococcus
D. Streptococcus
The occlusal marginal enamel for an onlay restoration:
A. 30 degree
B. 40 degree
C. 140 degree
D. 90 degree
E. None of the above
A. 30 degree
Why is a matrix for a Class II dental amalgam
restoration extended occlusally to the cavity
preparation?
A. It serves as a guide to determine the
completed restoration
B. It allows for overfilling the amalgam
C. It prevents escape of the amalgam during
condensation
B. It allows for overfilling the amalgam
A retention groove whose length is transverse
plane and in dentin:
A. Skirt
B. Slot
C. Lock
D. Collar
E. None
B. Slot
The reduction of which of the following represents the most significant advantage of acid-etch technique?
A. Microleakage
B. Pulpal irritation
C. Setting shrinkage of the matrix
D. Coefficient of thermal expansion
A. Microleakage
To ensure better thermal and protective insulation of the pulp during a capping procedure, calcium hydroxide should be:
A. Applied to a thickness of 3.0mm
B. Covered with a stronger base
C. Preceded by application of a zinc phosphate cement
D. Placed in all cavity preparations
E. Preceded by application of a cavity varnish
B. Covered with a stronger base
After the dentist has completed an etching procedure on a Class III composite preparation, the preparation becomes contaminated with saliva. In response, the dentist should do which of the following?
A. Blow away the saliva with air, then proceed
B. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation, then proceed
C. Wipe away the saliva with a cotton pellet, rinse the preparation with water, dry it with air, then proceed
D. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation with air, then repeat the etching procedure
D. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation with air, then repeat the etching procedure
You are planning your dental office. Which type
of patient chair will most convenient for your
fourhanded dental practice?
A. Straight-backed, thin-backed
B. Straight-backed, thick-backed
C. Contoured, thin-backed
D. Contoured, thick-back
C. Contoured, thin-backed
A person does not seek treatment for bleeding
gums because of a financial handicap. Such an
example comes under the category of
A. Potential demand
B. Effective demand
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
A. Potential demand
From the perspective of resources versus demand, the main problem in obtaining dental care is
A. Inequitable distribution of dentist
B. Shortage of general practice dentists
C. Inefficient delivery
D. High cost
A. Inequitable distribution of dentist
Optimal level of fluoride in drinking water;
A. 7-12ppm
B. 0.7-1.2ppm
C. 0.07-0.12ppm
D. O0.7-12ppm
B. 0.7-1.2ppm
The following are the physical characteristics of a community, except:
A. Size
B. Location
C. Climactic condition
D. Occupational groupings
D. Occupational groupings
It is the laying down of foundation of the organization by bringing together several leaders to have a better understanding of the community.
A. Mobilization
B. Training
C. Core grouping
D. Area selection
E. Setting up an organization
C. Core grouping
It is the adjustment of the fluoride content of a
community’s water supply to an optimal level for the prevention of dental caries.
A. Fluoride supplement
B. School water fluoridation
C. Fluoride mouthrinse program
D. None of these
B. School water fluoridation
Refers to the measures taken to diagnose a disease that is already present:
A. Tertiary prevention
B. Pathogenesis
C. Secondary prevention
D. Prepathogenesis
E. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
NOTES:
Prepathogenesis Phase: Period before the onset of a disease but the ground has been laid by the presence of risk factors
Pathogenesis Phase: Begins with the entry of the disease agent in the susceptible human host
Primary Prevention: Prevents the onset of the disease when the risk factor is present
Secondary Prevention: Eliminates or reduces the complication of diseases after they have occurred
Tertiary Prevention: Prevention of disability or death
It is concerned in making estimates, predictions,
generalizations, conclusions about a population
based on information from a sample.
A. Descriptive statistics
B. Inscriptive statistics
C. Inferential statistics
D. Differential statistics
E. None of these
C. Inferential statistics
It is a set of educational economic and environmental incentives to support behavior changes that leads to a better level of health.
A. Health promotion
B. Public health
C. Preventive dentistry
D. All of these
E. None of these
A. Health promotion
Lack of planning in community layout is evident in ___ community:
A. Mature
B. Immature
C. Progressive
D. Organize
E. None of these
B. Immature
The S for the supportive factor of primary health care program refers to:
A. Success of primary health care
B. Sanitation of community
C. Strengthening intersectoral collaboration
D. Safe water supply
C. Strengthening intersectoral collaboration
This model was developed with the specific intention of addressing noncompliance issues in behavior that results in negative health consequence.
A. Self- care motivational model
B. Contemporary community health model
C. Behavioral learning model
D. Fayol’s model
E. None of the above
A. Self- care motivational model
The most common site of mandibular fracture:
A. angle
B. condylar neck
C. symphysis area
D. coronoid process
B. condylar neck
CAS BARC
Condyle= 29.1%
Angle= 24.5%
Symphysis= 22%
Body =16%
Alveolar process= 3.1%
Ramus= 1.7%
Coronoid process= 1.3%
A straight white border appears on the x-ray film. What is the most likely cause of this?
A. Fixer cut-off
B. Developer cut-off
C. Overlapped films
D. Static electricity
B. Developer cut-off
The number of electrons flowing per second is measured by:
A. kvp
B. mA
C. Time (sec)
D. All of the above
B. mA
The density of a radiograph is influenced by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. kVp
B. rnA
C. Exposure time
D. Whether the film is a one-film packet or a two-film packet
D. Whether the film is a one-film packet or a two-film packet
Which of the following converts electrons into x-rays?
A. Positive anode
B. Negative anode
C. Positive cathode
D. Negative cathode
A. Positive anode
NOTES:
Cathode (-)
Anode (+)
The unit that describes the amount of xray exposure in the air is the:
A. Sievert
B. rem
C. Roentgen
D. Rad
C. Roentgen
Angulation needed to take a radiograph of an adult using a posterior bitewing
A. +12x
B. +10x
C. +8x
D. +6x
B. +10x
The Caldwell-luc procedure is an approach to the
A. Masticator space
B. Maxillary sinus
C. Ethmoid sinus
D. Mediastinum
E. Submandibular space
B. Maxillary sinus
The root of which tooth is most often dislodged into the maxillary sinus during an extraction procedure?
A. Palatal root of the maxillary first premolar
B. Palatal root of the maxillary first molar
C. Palatal root of the maxillary second molar
D. Palatal root of the maxillary third molar
B. Palatal root of the maxillary first molar
Forty-eight hours following the removal of a left
impacted mandibular third molar, the patient
returns to your office complaining of moderate
pain radiating to the left ear. His temperature is
99⁰F and swelling is minimal. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. traumatic injury to the inferior alveolar nerve
during the injection procedure.
B. postoperative infection involving the
masticator fascial space.
C. postoperative infection involving the parotid
space.
D. postextraction alveolitis.
E. None of the above.
D. postextraction alveolitis.
Which type of Le Fort fracture is often referred to as a pyramidal fracture?
A. LeFort I
B. Le Fort II
C. LeFort III
D. LeFort IV
B. Le Fort II
NOTES:
LeFort I: (Horizontal / Guerin’s / Transmaxillary)
LeFort II: (Pyramidal)
LeFort III: (Craniofacial separation/disjunction)
Which of the following is the most common technique used for mandibular advancement?
A. The step osteotomy
B. Mandibular ramus sagittal split osteotomy
C. The vertical ramus osteotomy
D. The vertical bodies osteotomy
B. Mandibular ramus sagittal split osteotomy
The coronoid process often appears on what periapical image?
A. maxillary incisor
B. maxillary molar
C. mandibular incisor
D. mandibular molar
B. maxillary molar
In proper suturing, the needle should be passed
from:
A. free side to the fixed side
B. fixed to free side
C. any choice of the surgeon
D. all of the above
A. free side to the fixed side
This space is usually infected by maxillary 3rd molars?
A. pterygomandibular space
B. buccal space
C. infratemporal space
D. masseteric space
C. infratemporal space
What is the classification of a maxillary impacted tooth that is above the occlusal plane but is below the cervical line?
A. Class A
B. Class I
C. Class C
D. Class B
D. Class B
NOTES:
Relationship to anterior border of ramus:
Class 1: Normal position anterior to the ramus
Class 2: One-half of the crown is within the ramus
Class 3: Entire crown is embedded within the ramus
Relationship to occlusal plane
Position A: Tooth at the same plane as other molars
Position B: Occlusal plane of third molar is between the occlusal plane and the cervical line of the second molar
Position C: Third molar is below the cervical line of the second molar
Type of healing when loss of tissue occurs between the edges of an incision or laceration which prevents close approximation:
A. primary intention
B. secondary intention
C. tertiary intention
D. none of the above
B. secondary intention
NOTES:
Primary Intention
˗ Edges of the wound in which there is no tissue loss are placed and stabilized in essentially the same anatomic position they held before injury and are allowed to heal
Secondary Intention
˗ Tissue loss has occurred in a wound that prevents approximation of wound edges
Tertiary Intention
˗ Healing of wound through the use of tissue grafts to cover large wounds and bridge the gap between wound edges
Water hammer pulse is a finding in
A. Rheumatic heart disease
B. Anemia
C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
D. Tetralogy of fallot
B. Anemia
Multiple fractures of a single bone:
A. simple fracture
B. greenstick fracture
C. compound fracture
D. comminuted fracture
D. comminuted fracture
NOTES:
Simple fracture (complete)
- Fracture bone is not pierced through the skin or mucosa
- No communication between fracture and external environment
Compound fracture (complete)
- Fractured bone is pierced through the skin or mucosa
Greenstick fracture (incomplete)
- One side of bone is broken and other side bent
- Most common fracture in children
Comminuted fracture (fragmented)
- Bone is broken into several pieces
- Example: gun-shot wound
A patient has large SCC of lateral border of the
tongue which is going to require radical neck
dissection. Prophylactic extractions will be done
in order to prevent which of the following?
A. Osteoradionecrosis
B. Bisphosphinate related Osteonecrosis of the jaw
C. Rampant periodontal disease
D. None of the above
A. Osteoradionecrosis
Which premolar is considered to be most molarlike in form?
A. Maxillary first
B. Maxillary second
C. Mandibular first
D. Mandibular second
D. Mandibular second
If vertical dimension of occlusion is VDO, and
vertical dimension of rest is VDR, and freeway space is FS, then:
A. VDO + VDR = FS
B. VDO + FS = VDR
C. VDR + FS = VDO
D. None of the above
B. VDO + FS = VDR
How many teeth (out of 32) in the normal dentition oppose only ONE other tooth?
A. None
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
E. 6
D. 4
TEETH THAT DO NOT OPPOSE TO OTHER TEETH
Maxillary 3rd Molars
Mandibular Central Incisors
Which cusp becomes smaller and less conspicuous as you go from maxillary first to second to third molar?
A. Mesiobuccal
B. Mesiolingual
C. Distobuccal
D. Distolingual
D. Distolingual
Which cusp on the primary mandibular first molar is highest and sharpest?
A. Mesiobuccal
B. Distobuccal
C. Mesiolingual
D. Distolingual
C. Mesiolingual
NOTES:
PEMANENT MAXILLARY
LARGEST-SMALLEST
MLc, MBc, DBc, DLc, Cusp of carabelli
HIGHEST- LOWEST
MLc, DBc, MBc, DLc, Cusp of Carabelli
PERMANENT MANDIBULAR
LARGEST-SMALLEST
MBc, MLc, DBc, DLc, Distal
HIGHEST- LOWEST
MLc, DLc, DBc, MBc, Distal
The anterior tooth with the most pronounced lingual ridge is the:
A. Maxillary central incisor
B. Mandibular lateral incisor
C. Maxillary canine
D. Mandibular canine
C. Maxillary canine
In comparison to those of permanent molars, the common root trunks of primary molars are proportionately:
A. larger
B. smaller
C. relatively equal
D. variable, depending on the tooth
B. smaller
In centric occlusion, the mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary third molar will contact:
A. the central fossa of the mandibular second molar
B. the central fossa of the mandibular third molar
C. the distal marginal ridge of mandibular first molar and mesial marginal ridge of the second molar
D. the distal marginal ridge of mandibular second molar and mesial marginal ridge of the third molar
B. the central fossa of the mandibular third molar
The glenoid (articular) fossa in which the mandibular condyle articulates is a depression within which cranial bone?
A. Sphenoid
B. Zygomatic
C. Temporal
D. Parietal
E. A combination of more than one bone
C. Temporal
The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes in:
A. the mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular
second molar
B. the distal marginal ridge of the mandibular first molar
C. the central groove of the mandibular first molar
D. the facial embrasure between the mandibular first and second molars
E. the buccal groove of the first mandibular molar
E. the buccal groove of the first mandibular molar
Increased alkaline phosphatase levels are seen with:
A. Paget disease
B. Hypophosphatasia
C. Cherubism
D. Hyperparathyroidism
A. Paget disease
Radiographically, driven snow appearance is seen with:
A. Adenomatoid odontogenic cyst
B. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
C. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
D. Keratocyst
C. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
Nystatin may be used to treat oral infections due to
A. Herpesvirus.
B. Candida albicans.
C. Treponema pallidum.
D. Streptococcus pyogenes.
E. Bacteroides melaninogenicus
B. Candida albicans.
The primary effect produced by digitalis at therapeutic dose levels is
A. a slowing of the cardiac rate.
B. a decrease in the venous pressure.
C. a decrease in cardiac enlargement.
D. an increase in the force of myocardial contraction
D. an increase in the force of myocardial contraction
A significant mechanism by which aspirin produces its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects is
A. antagonism of histamine.
B. inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis.
C. local anesthetic effect on pain fibers.
D. release of adrenal steroids from the adrenal cortex.
E. synaptic inhibition in the dorsal column of the spinal cord.
B. inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis.
Which of the following antibiotics may cause discoloration of the teeth of the newborn if administered to the mother in the third trimester of pregnancy?
A. Penicillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Streptomycin
D. Clindamycin
E. Erythromycin
B. Tetracycline
Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause depression of the bone marrow?
A. Streptomycin
B. Penicillin G
C. Tetracycline
D. Chloramphenicol
E. Amphotericin B
D. Chloramphenicol
Which of the following drugs is most commonly employed in an attack of angina pectoris?
A. Sodium nitrate
B. Epinephrine
C. Theophylline
D. Nitroglycerin
E. Isosorbide dinitrate
D. Nitroglycerin
Scopolamine is often used for premedication prior to administration of a general anesthetic because it
A. increases heart rate.
B. decreases heart rate.
C. decreases blood pressure.
D. decreases the possibility of laryngospasm by inhibiting salivation
D. decreases the possibility of laryngospasm by inhibiting salivation
A patient informs his dentist that he has been taking mecamylamine regularly for the past year. Upon oral examination the dentist is most likely to find
A. ptyalism.
B. xerostomia.
C. palatal petechiae.
D. gingival hypertrophy.
E. bullous lesions on the buccal mucosa.
B. xerostomia.
Antihistaminic compounds exert their effect by
A. chemically neutralizing histamine.
B. competing with histamine for peripheral
receptor sites.
C. preventing the release of histamine in
injured tissues.
D. preventing the antigen -antibody reaction upon exposure to an allergen.
B. competing with histamine for peripheral receptor sites.
The cholinergic effect of pilocarpine is due to
A. reversible inactivation of acetylcholinesterase at the postganglionic synapse.
B. irreversible inactivation of acetylcholinesterase at the postganglionic synapse.
C. direct action upon the cholinergic receptor site.
D. stimulation of release of acetylcholine from the nerve terminal.
C. direct action upon the cholinergic receptor site.
The sulfonamides act by
A. suppressing bacterial protein synthesis.
B. inhibiting cytoplasmic bacterial membrane formation.
C. inducing the formation of “lethal” bacterial proteins.
D. inducing folic acid deficiency by competition with para-aminobenzoic acid.
D. inducing folic acid deficiency by competition with para-aminobenzoic acid.
When methohexital is used to induce general anesthesia, the initial effect wears off within a short time and the patient awakens. This occurs because the drug is
A. detoxified.
B. biotransformed.
C. eliminated from the body.
D. redistributed from the brain.
D. redistributed from the brain.
Lidocaine is more widely used than procaine in routine dental practice because lidocaine
A. is a vasoconstrictor.
B. does not cause CNS stimulation.
C. causes fewer allergic reactions.
D. is less likely to cause cardiovascular collapse.
E. is 50 times more potent as a local anesthetic.
C. causes fewer allergic reactions.
The phenomenon in which two drugs produce
opposite effects on a physiologic system but do
not act at the same receptor site is
A. potentiation.
B. chemical antagonism.
C. competitive antagonism.
D. physiologic antagonism.
E. noncompetitive antagonism
D. physiologic antagonism.
An adrenergic drug, such as epinephrine, can be expected to
A. constrict bronchioles, systemic arterioles and cerebral arterioles.
B. increase heart rate, blood pressure and myocardial contractile force.
C. increase G.I. peristalsis and skeletal muscle tone, and dilate the bronchiolar smooth muscle.
D. shunt blood from viscera and skin to muscles, and produce miosis without cycloplegia.
E. increase body temperature, BMR and glucogenesis.
B. increase heart rate, blood pressure and myocardial contractile force.
Oral contraceptives prevent conception primarily by
A. inducing abortion.
B. preventing ovulation.
C. a spermatocidal effect.
D. causing a cessation of menses.
E. preventing implantation of the fertilized
ovum in the endometrial wall.
B. preventing ovulation.
The current drug of choice for the treatment of the manic phase of manic-depressive psychosis is
A. amphetamine.
B. imipramine.
C. pargyline.
D. reserpine.
E. Lithium
E. Lithium
Which of the following penicillins has the best gram-negative spectrum?
A. Nafcillin
B. Ampicillin
C. Methicillin
D. Penicillin V
E. Phenethicillin
B. Ampicillin
Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause depression of the bone marrow?
A. Streptomycin
B. Penicillin G
C. Tetracycline
D. Chloramphenicol
E. Amphotericin B
D. Chloramphenicol
When given together, the ability of two drugs to produce a response greater than either
administered alone is termed
A. synergism.
B. induction.
C. cumulation.
D. antagonism
E. tachyphylaxis.
A. synergism.
Who first used the 3-dimensional obturation technique?
A. Schilder
B. Buchanan
C. Johnson
D. Yee
A. Schilder
Periodontitis that does not resolve with treatment is termed as:
A. Aggressive periodontitis
B. Chronic periodontitis
C. Refractory periodontitis
D. Juvenile periodontitis
C. Refractory periodontitis
An objective of incision and drainage is:
A. To evacuate exudates and purulence from a soft tissue swelling
B. Incision for drainage increases discomfort
C. Drainage through the soft tissue accomplished most effectively when swelling is firm and non- fluctuant
D. Incision for drainage is always made horizontally into the swelling
A. To evacuate exudates and purulence from a soft tissue swelling
An 8-year-old patient presents to your office for an emergency visit with a traumatic exposure of tooth #9. The treatment of choice for this patient is:
A. Root-end closure procedure/apexification
B. Traditional root canal therapy
C. Vital pulp therapy/apexogenesis
D. Partial pulpectomy
E. Temporization and reevaluation in 1 week
C. Vital pulp therapy/apexogenesis
A patient presents to your office with a discolored tooth #24 that was treated with root canal 4 years before. The material of choice for an internal bleaching procedure is:
A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Carbamide peroxide
C. Sodium perporate
D. all of the above
C. Sodium perporate
Root resection involves
A. a biologically acceptable restorative material placed into a root-end preparation
B. surgical removal of a soft and/or hard tissue specimen for histopathologic examination
C. surgical separation of a multi-rooted tooth through the furcation in such a way that a root and the associated portion of the crown may be removed
D. surgical removal of an entire root/s leaving the crown of the tooth intact
D. surgical removal of an entire root/s leaving the crown of the tooth intact
Following obturation, sealer was left in the coronal pulp chamber of tooth #9, and the conservative access was filled with a composite restoration. This could most likely result in:
A. Root canal failure
B. Discoloration of the tooth
C. Vertical root fracture
D. Inadequate coronal seal
E. Bacterial leakage
B. Discoloration of the tooth
A 4-year-old child has fallen and hit his central incisor. Overtime, the tooth has become increasingly more discolored and does not resolve. The most likely cause of the discoloration is:
A. Endemic fluorosis
B. Systemic drugs
C. Enamel hypocalcification
D. Intrapulpal hemorrhage
E. Amelogenesis imperfecta
D. Intrapulpal hemorrhage
Which of the following is not true about root end resection?
A. It removes the untreated apical portion of root
B. It should be perpendicular to long axis of tooth
C. It exposes additional canals, apical deltas, or fractures
D. It should be around half of the root structure to make sure no bacteria is left
D. It should be around half of the root structure to make sure no bacteria is left
A patient presents to your office with pain in tooth #12. You perform a cold test with Endo Ice to determine vitality. If the tooth has irreversible pulpitis, the cold test will result in:
A. No response to the cold test
B. Severe pain that disappears 1 to 2 seconds after removing the cold
C. Mild to moderate pain that disappears 1 to 2 seconds after removing the cold
D. Moderate to severe pain that lingers after removing the cold
D. Moderate to severe pain that lingers after removing the cold
Contrast on a radiograph is:
A. Uneven density on a radiograph
B. Range of densities on a radiograph
C. Overall appearance of the radiograph
D. Overall degree of darkening of the radiograph.
B. Range of densities on a radiograph
The most common elements found in periodontal membrane are:
A. Fibroblast
B. Epithelial cells
C. Erythrocytes
D. Rest cells of malassez
E. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes
A. Fibroblast
Which statement regarding an autogenous free gingival graft is not true?
A. It can be placed to prevent further recession
B. It can be used to effectively widen the attached gingiva
C. lt retains its own blood supply and is not dependent on the bed of recipient blood vessels
D. The greatest amount of shrinkage occurs within the first 6 weeks
E. It is also useful for covering non-pathologic dehiscences and fenestrations
C. lt retains its own blood supply and is not dependent on the bed of recipient blood vessels
The main goal of osseous recontouring (surgery) is:
A. To cure periodontal disease
B. To eliminate the existing microflora
C. To eliminate periodontal pockets
D. To change the existing microflora
C. To eliminate periodontal pockets
Which is an indication for root amputation or hemisection?
A. Preservation of strategically important roots and its accompanying crown
B. Root fusion or proximity
C. Severe periodontal disease
D. Inability to complete root canal treatment on either half
A. Preservation of strategically important roots and its accompanying crown
Prevotella intermedia was formerly known as:
A. Bacteroides melaninogenicus
B. Wolinella intermedius
C. Bacteroides gingivalis
D. Bacteroides intermedius
D. Bacteroides intermedius
A patient received a large MOD composite restoration 1 week ago. She is now experiencing intense, spontaneous pain, with exacerbation of symptoms occurring when she applies heat or cold or when she eats sweets. The pulpal diagnosis is:
A. Pulp necrosis
B. Acute periapical periodontitis
C. Reversible pulpitis
D. Traumatic occlusion
E. Irreversible pulpitis
E. Irreversible pulpitis
Which of the following has been shown to be the most effective antimicrobial agent for reducing plaque and gingivitis long-term?
A. Stannous fluoride
B. Phenolic compounds
C. Chlorhexidine
D. Quaternary ammonium compounds
C. Chlorhexidine
The principal oral site for the growth of spirochetes, fusobacteria, and other gramnegative anaerobes is:
A. Saliva
B. Calculus
C. The gingival margin
D. The gingival sulcus
D. The gingival sulcus
Which one of the following organisms is commonly implicated with the etiology or acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?
A. Streptococcus sanguis
B. Actinomyces israelii
C. Prevotella intermedia
D. Streptococcus uberis
C. Prevotella intermedia
Young plaque is dominated by:
A. Gram-positive cocci
B. Gram-positive rods
C. Gram-negative rods
D. Filaments
A. Gram-positive cocci
Which of the following is a powerful oxidizing agent that inactivates bacteria and most viruses by oxidizing free sulfhydryl groups?
A. Alcohol
B. Chlorine
C. Formaldehyde
D. Phenol
B. Chlorine
How long does it take to kill bacterial spores when a dental Instrument is placed in a 2% solution of glutaraldehyde?
A. 10 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 10 hours
D. 24 hours
C. 10 hours
The proper time and temperature for autoclaving is:
A. 350°F (175 C) for 1 hour
B. 250°F (121°C) for 15-20 minutes
C. 450°F (232°C) for 5 minutes
D. 89°F (31C) for 30 minutes
B. 250°F (121°C) for 15-20 minutes
NOTES:
320°F (160°C) for 2 hours- DRY HEAT
250°F (121°C) for 20-30 minutes- AUTOCLAVE
The proper time and temperature for dry heat sterilization is:
A. 320°F (160°C) for 2 hours
B. 250°F (121°C) for 20-30 minutes
C. 450°F (232°C) for 5 minutes
D. 89°F (31°C) for 30 minutes
A. 320°F (160°C) for 2 hours
NOTES:
320°F (160°C) for 2 hours- DRY HEAT
250°F (121°C) for 20-30 minutes- AUTOCLAVE
Which type of pathogen provides the ultimate test for efficacy of sterilization?
A. Bacteria
B. Spore-forming
C. Viruses
D. Fungi
B. Spore-forming
Hemisection is most likely to be performed on:
A. Mandibular first and second premolars
B. Maxillary first and second molars
C. Maxillary canines
D. Mandibular molars with buccal and lingual class II or III furcation involvements
D. Mandibular molars with buccal and lingual class II or III furcation involvements
