Diagnostic Test Flashcards
1
Q
The platysma is supplied by a branch of which of the following cranial nerves?
A. V
B. VII
C. IX
D. X
A
B. VII
2
Q
The salivary, sweat, sebaceous, and mammary glands have the COMMON characteristics of being?
a. Compound
b. Exocrine
c. Simple
d. Holocrine
A
b. Exocrine
3
Q
The dura mater is the
a. outer layer of the meninges
b. inner layer of the meninges
c. membrane covering peripheral nerve fivers
d. membrane which lines the ventricles
A
a. outer layer of the meninges
NOTES:
OUTER-INNER
Skull
(1) Dura
(2) Arachnoid
(3) Pia
Brain
4
Q
In placing a film for a periapical view of the mandibular molars, relaxation of which of the following muscles would aid MOST?
a. Mylohyoid
b. Geniohyoid
c. Buccinator
d. Palatoglossus
A
a. Mylohyoid
5
Q
Food may lodge in the oral vestibule of which of the following muscles is paralyzed?
a. masseter
b. risorius
c. buccinators
d. medial pterygoid
A
c. buccinators
6
Q
Of the lymphoid tissue is the body, which are considered as being subepithelial and nonecapsulated?
a. tonsils and thymes gland
b. peyer’s patches and tonsils
c. thymes gland and lymph nodes
d. lymph nodes and aggregated nodules
A
b. peyer’s patches and tonsils
7
Q
Which artery is most concerned with the blood supply to the upper lip?
a. Facial
b. maxillary
c. external nasal
d. greater palatine
A
a. Facial
8
Q
A patient has profound disturbance in equilibrium, alterations of gait (ataxia), and intention tremor. This patient MOST likely has a massive lesion that involves which of the following?
a. Amygdala
b. Cerebellum
c. Cerebral cortex
d. Caudate nucleus
e. Lenticular nucleus
A
b. Cerebellum
9
Q
Which of the following amino acids is a precursor for epinephrine?
a. Valine
b. Leucine
c. Tyrosine
d. Cysteine
e. Tryptophan
A
c. Tyrosine
10
Q
Facilitated diffusion differs from active transport in that net transport by facilitated diffusion
a. Has a transport maximum
b. Uses ATP as an energy source
c. Requires a concentration gradient
d. Occurs as an endergonic process
A
c. Requires a concentration gradient
11
Q
Which of the following promotes the release of bile from the gallbladder?
a. Gastrin
b. Secretin
c. Galla
d. Bombesin
e. Cholecystokinin
A
e. Cholecystokinin
12
Q
Which of the following best describes the primary ionic movement during the depolarization phase of a nerve action potential?
a. Potassium ions moving from inside to outside the membrane
b. Potassium ions moving into the fiber from interstitial fluid
c. Large organic-negative ions moving from inside the fiber to outside the fiber
d. Sodium ions moving from inside the membrane to outside the membrane
e. Sodium ions moving from outside the membrane to inside the membrane
A
e. Sodium ions moving from outside the membrane to inside the membrane
NOTES:
PISO
REPOLARIZATION= Potassium= INSIDE
DEPOLARIZATION= Sodium= OUTSIDE
13
Q
Internal temperature is monitored by central receptors located in the
a. Medulla
b. Cerebellum
c. Hypothalamus
d. Anterior pituitary
e. Posterior pituitary
A
c. Hypothalamus
14
Q
Which of the following cranial nerves contains parasympathetic components?
a. Facial
b. Abducens
c. Trigeminal
d. Hypoglossal
e. Spinal accessory
A
a. Facial
PARA- CN 10, 9 7, 3
O- 1
O-2
O-3
T-4
T-5
A-6
F-7
V-8
G-9
V-10
A-11
H-12
15
Q
The nerves in dental pulp are:
a. afferent only.
b. sympathetic only.
c. parasympathetic only.
d. afferent and sympathetic.
e. afferent and parasympathetic
A
d. afferent and sympathetic.
16
Q
Which of the following incisal angles of maxillary teeth exhibits the greatest convexity?
a. Mesioincisal of the central
b. Distoincisal of the central
c. Mesioincisal of the lateral
d. Distoincisal of the lateral
A
d. Distoincisal of the lateral
17
Q
Which of the following represents the geometric form of anterior teeth when viewed from the mesial or distal aspect?
a. Rhomboidal
b. Trapezoidal
c. Elliptical
d. Triangular
e. Square
A
d. Triangular
18
Q
Each of the following cusps of the maxillary molars is part of the maxillary molar primary cusp triangle EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Mesiofacial
b. Mesiolingual
c. Distofacial
d. Distolingual
A
d. Distolingual
19
Q
Which of the following incisors has its mesial and distal contact areas at the same incisocervical level?
a. Maxillary central
b. Mandibular central
c. Maxillary lateral
d. Mandibular lateral
A
b. Mandibular central
20
Q
The distal contact area of a maxillary lateral incisor with ideal alignment is located
a. near the incisal edge.
b. in the middle third.
c. in the incisal third.
d. at the junction of the incisal and middle thirds.
e. at the junction of the middle and cervical thirds
A
b. in the middle third.
21
Q
Which of the following teeth have long axes positioned with their root apices facial and their crowns lingual?
a. Maxillary incisors
b. Mandibular incisors
c. Maxillary premolars
d. Maxillary molars
e. Mandibular molars
A
e. Mandibular molars
22
Q
In an ideal intercuspal relation, the lingual cusp of the maxillary second premolar contacts the
a. distal fossa of the mandibular second premolar.
b. mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular first molar.
c. distal marginal ridge of the mandibular second molar.
d. distal marginal ridge of the mandibular first premolar.
A
a. distal fossa of the mandibular second premolar.
23
Q
Which of the following is correct regarding the contact relationship of maxillary central incisor and maxillary lateral incisors?
a. Contacts are centered faciolingually.
b. Contacts are centered incisocervically.
c. Facial embrasures are wider than lingual embrasures.
d. Incisal embrasures are larger than gingival embrasures
A
a. Contacts are centered faciolingually.
24
Q
Which of the following jaw positions is determined almost exclusively by the behavior of the musculature?
a. Postural
b. Intercuspal
c. Retruded contact
d. Protruded contact
A
a. Postural
25
In an ideal intercuspal relation, the mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar contacts the mandibular first molar in (on) the
a. central fossa.
b. distal fossa.
c. mesial fossa.
d. mesial marginal ridge.
e. distal marginal ridge.
a. central fossa.
26
In an ideal intercuspal relation in a normal dentition, each of the following teeth contacts each other EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
a. Maxillary first premolar and mandibular second premolar
b. Maxillary first molar and mandibular second premolar
c. Maxillary second premolar and mandibular first molar
d. Maxillary second molar and mandibular third molar
b. Maxillary first molar and mandibular second premolar
27
In an ideal intercuspal relation, the tip of the mesiofacial cusp of the maxillary second molar opposes which of the following?
a. Facial groove of the mandibular second molar
b. Distofacial developmental groove of the first molar
c. Embrasure between the mandibular first and second molars
d. Embrasure between the mandibular second and third molars
e. Central fossa
a. Facial groove of the mandibular second molar
28
On the non-working side in an ideal occlusion, interfering contacts on posterior teeth will be located on which inclines of which cusps? (inclines --> cusps)
a. Outer incline --> Guiding cusps
b. Inner incline --> Guiding cusps
c. Outer incline --> Supporting cusps
d. Inner incline --> Supporting cusps
d. Inner incline --> Supporting cusps
29
What type of mucosa is normal for the distal esophagus?
a. Ciliated, columnar epithelium
b. Keratinized,stratified squamous epithelium
c. Nonciliated, columnar epithelium
d. Nonkeratinized, simple squamous epithelium
e. Nonkeratinized, stratified, squamous epithelium
e. Nonkeratinized, stratified, squamous epithelium
30
Parathormone will have its greatest effect on which cell type?
a. Osteoclasts
b. Osteobalsts
c. Osteocytes
d. Osteosarcomas
e. Osteoprogenitor cells
a. Osteoclasts
31
In the adult, neurons are an example of which of the following?
a. Continuously dividing cells
b. Labile cells
c. Permanent cells
d. Quiescent cells
e. Stable cells
c. Permanent cells
32
Nissl bodies correspond to which of the following organelles?
a. Golgi apparatus
b. Mitochondria
c. Nucleoli
d. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
e. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
33
Salivary secretions pass through the cell membrane at the apex of the gland cell and enter the duct. This type of secretion is known as:
a. Endocrine
b. Apocrine
c. Holocrine
d. Merocrine
d. Merocrine
34
Which of the following blood elements is a fragment of megakaryocytic cytoplasm?
a. Platelet
b. Normoblast
c. Erythrocyte
d. Promyelocyte
e. Proeryhtroblast
a. Platelet
35
Each of the following statements regarding aldosterone is correct except one. Which one is the exception?
a. Is a mineralocorticoid
b. Increases Na uptake from the kidneys
c. Production is stimulated by angiotensin II
d. Is produced in the zona fasciculate of the adrenal cortex
d. Is produced in the zona fasciculate of the adrenal cortex
Is produced in the zona RETICULARIS of the adrenal cortex
36
Legionella pneumophilia is commonly transmitted by
a. Sexual contact
b. Water contaminated with human waste
c. Aerosolization of organisms in contaminated soil
d. Direct contact with respiratory droplets from a contaminated person
e. Aerosolization of organisms in air conditioning cooling towers
e. Aerosolization of organisms in air conditioning cooling towers
37
Warts are caused by which of the following ?
a. Papillomaviruses
b. Herpesviruses
c. Rhinoviruses
d. Adenoviruses
e. Rotaviruses
a. Papillomaviruses
38
Which of the following is the most important function of bacterial pili in causing human infectious disease?
a. Making the bacteria motile
b. Allowing bacteria to adhere to human cells
c. Transferring DNA from one bacterium to another
d. Destroying phagocytic macrophages and neutrophils
b. Allowing bacteria to adhere to human cells
39
Which of the following general form endospores?
a. Proteus and Escherichia
b. Clostridium and Bacillus
c. Porphyromonas and Streptococcus
d. Mycobacterium and Actinomyces
e. Staphylococcus and Corynebacterium
b. Clostridium and Bacillus
40
An enterotoxin formed by Staphyloccous aureus causes
a. Food poisoning
b. A rash on the skin
c. Neuromuscular paralysis
d. Spasms of voluntary muscles
a. Food poisoning
41
The basic chemical structure of endotoxins includes which of the following?
a. Capsular polysaccharide
b. Acid stable proteoglycan
c. H and L chains glycoproteins
d. Lipoteichoic acid, polysaccharide, protein
e. Somatic O polysaccharide, core polysaccharide, lipid A
e. Somatic O polysaccharide, core polysaccharide, lipid A
42
Which of the following causes whooping cough?
a. Haemophilus influenza
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Bordetella pertussis
d. Brucella melitensis
e. Klebsiella pneumoniae
c. Bordetella pertussis
43
Presents with tall and thin stature, abnormally long legs and arms and spiderlike fingers.
a. Cystic fibrosis
b. von Hippel-Lindau disease
c. Tay-sachs disease
d. Fabry disease
e. Marfan syndrome
e. Marfan syndrome
44
Symptoms like polyarthritis, erythema marginatum, chorea, carditis and subcutaneous nodules are indicative of
a. Rheumatic fever
b. Measles
c. Pneumonia
d. Mumps
e. Parvovirus
a. Rheumatic fever
45
According to the Jones Criteria, how many major and minor criteria are met from the following symptoms – arthritis, fever, ECG changes and arthralgias?
a. 3 major, 1 minor
b. 2 major, 2 minor
c. 1 major, 3 minor
d. 4 major
e. 4 minor
c. 1 major, 3 minor
46
Which of the following is false concerning necrotic changes?
a. Ischemia is seen with coagulative necrosis
b. Fatty acids are released with liquefactive necrosis
c. Myocardial infarcts cause liquefactive necrosis
d. Caseous necrosis is seen in tuberculosis infection
e. Granulomas are considered as being characteristic of caseous necrosis
c. Myocardial infarcts cause liquefactive necrosis
47
Decreased cortisol, increased serum sodium, increased serum potassium are laboratory findings in
a. Cushing’s disease
b. Addison’s disease
c. Primary hyperparathyroidism
d. Cushing syndrome
e. Plummer disease
b. Addison’s disease
48
Which of the following diseases presents with cystic bone lesions, nephrocalcinosis and metastatic calcifications?
a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Grave disease
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Hypoparathyroidism
e. Addison disease
a. Hyperparathyroidism
49
Which of the following endogenous pigments is formed via auto-oxidation, accumulates in Kupffer cells and is indicative of hepatocellular injury?
a. Ceroid
b. Lipofuscin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Melanin
e. Bilirubin
a. Ceroid
50
The primitive streak normally gives rise to which of the following structures?
a. Dorsal root ganglia
b. Lining of the gastrointestinal tract
c. Notochord
d. Spinal cord
e. Thyroid gland
c. Notochord
51
Which of the following is the embryologic precursor of the fibrous remnant that runs in a fissure on the visceral surface of the liver?
a. Ductus venosus
b. Hepatic portal vein
c. Lateral splanchnic artery
d. Ligamentum venosum
e. Vitelline vein
a. Ductus venosus
52
Which of the following structures is lined with epithelium derived from mesoderm of the uteric bud?
a. Bowman’s capsule
b. Distal comvoluted tubule
c. Loop of Henle
d. Proximal convoluted tubule
e. Ureter
e. Ureter
53
A mass is noted at the back of a young man’s tongue. A biopsy’s pathology report comes back with a diagnosis of normal thyroid tissue. This finding is related to the embryonic origin of the thyroid near which of the following structures?
a. First pharyngeal pouch
b. Foramen cecum
c. Nasolacrimal duct
d. Second pharyngeal arch
e. Third pharyngeal pouch
b. Foramen cecum
54
A newborn baby is noted to have a unilateral cleft lip. There are no abnormalities of the baby’s palate. Which of the following developmental defects accounts for this occurrence?
a. Failure of the left lateral palatine process to fuse with the median palatine process
b. Failure of the left maxillary prominence to unite with the left medial nasal prominence
c. Failure of the primary palate to fuse with the secondary palate
d. Failure of the right and left median nasal prominences to merge
e. Failure of the right palatine process to fuse with the left palatine process
b. Failure of the left maxillary prominence to unite with the left medial nasal prominence
55
Which of the following structure does the fetal allantoic duct become in adult?
a. Cloaca
b. Medial umbilical ligament
c. Urachus
d. Ureter
e. Urethra
c. Urachus
56
Mucosa of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue develops primarily from
a. Rathke’s pouch
b. Tuberculum impar
c. Foregut endoderm
d. Hypobranchial eminence
e. Lateral lingual swellings
e. Lateral lingual swellings
57
Which of the following represents the tissue formed in response to stimuli produced by carious penetration of a tooth?
a. Predentin
b. Primary dentin
c. Secondary dentin
d. interglobular dentin
c. Secondary dentin
58
The periodontal ligament fibers are primarily composed of which of the following connective tissues?
a. Hyaline
b. Elastic
c. Collagenous
d. Fibrocartilagenous
c. Collagenous
59
Which fiber group of the periodontal ligament reduces the probability of forceful impaction into the alveolus because of a blow to the crown?
a. Horizontal
b. Apical
c. Oblique
d. Transseptal
e. Gingiva
c. Oblique
60
Following the initial period of functional activity, an appreciable alteration in size of the pulp chamber is a direct result of
a. pulp fibrosis.
b. morphodifferentiation.
c. dentinal dysplasia.
d. deposition of primary dentin.
e. deposition of secondary dentin.
e. deposition of secondary dentin.
61
Perikymata are the result of
a. enamel hyperplasia.
b. enamel hypoplasia.
c. interstitial growth.
d. normal enamel apposition.
e. early ameloblastic degeneration
d. normal enamel apposition
62
The substance that covers the dentin of the root of the tooth is produced by which of the following?
a. Ameloblasts
b. Cementocytes
c. Odontoblasts
d. Osteoblasts
e. Osteocytes
b. Cementocytes
63
With respect to the oral cavity, ameloblasts are cells that produce which of the following?
a. Bone matrix
b. Cementum
c. Dentin
d. Enamel
e. Mature bone
d. Enamel
64
The hardest substance in the human body is produced by which of the following?
a. Ameloblasts
b. Cementocytes
c. Odontoblasts
d. Osteoblasts
e. Parietal cells
a. Ameloblasts
65
The portion of the nephron that is closest to the renal corpuscle is which of the following?
a. Collecting duct
b. Distal convoluted tubule
c. Loop of Henle
d. Papillary duct
e. Proximal convoluted tubule
e. Proximal convoluted tubule
66
Anatomically, the periodontal ligament is attached to which of the following?
a. Apical foramen
b. Cementum
c. Dentin
d. Eamel
e. Gingival attachment
b. Cementum
67
The organic matrix of dentin is synthesized by which of the following?
a. Ameloblasts
b. Cementocytes
c. Odontoblasts
d. Osteoblasts
e. Osteocytes
c. Odontoblasts
68
Which of the following best characterizes the cells lining the oral mucosa?
a. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
b. Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
c. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
d. Simple columnar epithelium
e. Stratified columnar epithelium
b. Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
69
In the life cycle of an ameloblast, there are cells that contain Tomes' processes. These cells are in which of the following stages?
a. Secretory
b. Morphogenic
c. Organizing
d. Maturative
e. Protective
a. Secretory
70
Cementum differs from dentin in that cementum
a. contains more inorganic material than dentin.
b. is not formed following eruption of the tooth.
c. can contain cells, whereas dentin contains cells as well as cell processes.
d. is produced by cells of the periodontal ligament, but dentin is produced by pulp cells.
e. contains some elastic fibers, whereas dentin contains only collagenous fibers.
d. is produced by cells of the periodontal ligament, but dentin is produced by pulp cells.
71
Which of the following is CORRECT for obligate anaerobic microorgansims in the oral cavity?
a. They do not exist in this area.
b. Only gram-positive organisms are found.
c. They are normal flora and opportunistic.
d. They are seldom isolated in the laboratory.
e. They can be completely controlled by using antibiotics.
c. They are normal flora and opportunistic.
72
Which of the following is the single MOST numerous group of microorganisms in the oral cavity?
a. Enterococci
b. Staphylococci
c. Anaerobic streptococci
d. Facultative streptococci
e. Beta-hemolytic streptococci
d. Facultative streptococci
73
The likelihood that oral bacteria play an important role in gingival inflammation is evidenced by which of the following?
a. An increase in salivary hyaluronidase
b. An increased number of bacteria in saliva
c. An increase of neutralizing antibodies in saliva
d. A reduction of inflammation with reduction of plaque
d. A reduction of inflammation with reduction of plaque
74
A 17-year-old patient has periodontitis involving the anterior teeth with sparse plaque. Which of the following is the probable primary pathogen?
a. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
b. Bacteroides forsythus
c. Fusobacterium nucleatum
d. Porphyromonas gingivalis
e. Prevotella intemmedia
a. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
75
The major cariogenic property of Streptococcus mutans is associated with its ability to produce which of the following enzymes?
a. Hyaluronidase
b. Chondroitinase
c. Aminopeptidase
d. Glucosyltransferase
e. Fructosyltransferase
d. Glucosyltransferase
76
The oral lesions of herpangina can often be distinguished from hand-foot-and-mouth disease by which of the following?
a. Their physical appearance
b. Their intraoral locations
c. Their density and number
d. Their gradual confluence
b. Their intraoral locations
77
If serial dilutions of human saliva are inoculated on blood agar plates, then incubated in air for 24 hours at 37°C, which of the following groups of microorganisms will grow in the greatest number?
a. Actinomycetes
b. Streptococcus
c. Lactobacillus
d. Staphylococcus
e. Fusobacterium
b. Streptococcus
78
The mechanism of action by which the fluoride ion when taken orally reduces dental caries is
a. inhibition of bacterial enzymes located in dental plaque.
b. alteration in developing tooth morphology.
c. alteration in developing tooth collagen matrix.
d. alteration in tooth eruption pattern.
e. production of less soluble fluorohydroxyapatite.
e. production of less soluble fluorohydroxyapatite.
79
During preparation for a cast gold restoration, the tooth tissue which is weakened by the cavity preparation and subjected to damage by the forces of mastication must be
a. reduced and covered by the cast restoration.
b. strengthened by the use of cement or an amalgam core.
c. protected by resorting to full coverage of the tooth.
d. beveled, and the patient reminded not to exert undue forces on the tooth.
a. reduced and covered by the cast restoration.
80
For a 12 year old, the treatment of choice for a fractured mandibular lateral incisor involving the mesioincisal angle but not the pulp is
a. etching and placement of a resin restoration.
b. a lingual dovetail inlay.
c. a pin-retained metallic restoration.
d. a porcelain -fused-to-metal crown.
a. etching and placement of a resin restoration.
81
The greatest percentage of tooth loss in the first two decades of life (except natural loss of deciduous teeth) is due to
a. periodontal disease.
b. treated dental caries.
c. untreated dental caries.
d. trauma to teeth from accidents.
c. untreated dental caries.
82
For most effective cutting and long usefulness of a tungsten carbide bur, it should be
a. rotating slowly before contacting the tooth
b. rotating rapidly before contacting the tooth.
c. placed in contact with the tooth before starting.
d. rotating rapidly before entering into the oral cavity.
b. rotating rapidly before contacting the tooth.
83
A posterior tooth under a heavy occlusal load has cusps undermined with caries. The restorative material of choice would be
a. cast gold.
b. silver amalgam.
c. composite resin.
d. direct filling gold.
a. cast gold.
84
On a rubber-dam replacement which isolated the six maxillary anterior teeth, the dentist observed an unusual amount of wrinkling of the rubber dam between the teeth. This wrinkling is the result of
a. punching the holes too small.
b. punching the holes too far apart.
c. punching the holes too close together.
d. crowding and overlapping of the anterior teeth.
e. teeth with broad contacts incisogingivally
b. punching the holes too far apart.
85
These are factors influencing the support of a distal extension base, EXCEPT
a. Total occlusal load applied
b. Type of denture base material
c. Quality of the residual ridge
d. Denture base coverage
b. Type of denture base material
86
Which of the following combinations of artificial teeth should not be sued in complete maxillary and mandibular dentures?
a. Anterior, plastic; posterior, porcelain
b. Anterior, porcelain; posterior plastic
c. Anterior, porcelain; posterior porcelain
d. Anterior, plastic; posterior plastic
b. Anterior, porcelain; posterior plastic
87
The advantage of a wide thin palatal bar as compared to a narrow bar is that the wide bar:
a. Can be adequately rigid with less apparent bulk
b. Is less irritating to soft tissue
c. Is easier to polish
d. Is more stable
a. Can be adequately rigid with less apparent bulk
88
In designing a partial denture with the use of a surveyor, the location of clasps should be determined on:
a. A diagnostic cast before the final impression has been made
b. The master cast after the final impression has been made
c. All of these
d. The refractory cast
a. A diagnostic cast before the final impression has been made
89
Problem areas in an edentulous mouth may be in the form of the following, except
a. Sharp, shiny residual ridges
b. Retained dentition
c. Bony protrusions
d. Soft tissue deformities
b. Retained dentition
90
Preparation for occlusal rest should be made:
a. Before making the master cast
b. Just before seating the completed partial denture
c. After making the master cast
d. Anytime
a. Before making the master cast
91
The anteroposterior curve formed by the occlusal surfaces of the posterior teeth in the artificial dentition called:
a. Incisal guidance curve
b. Cuspal inclination
c. Curve of Spee
d. Compensating curve
c. Curve of Spee
92
The most likely result of excessive relief of the labial frenum in a complete denture
a. Lisping
b. Faulty speech
c. Structural weakness leading to midline fracture
d. Comfortable labial movement
c. Structural weakness leading to midline fracture
93
The vertical dimension in edentulous patient is related to
a. Physiologic position of the mandible
b. Equilibrium of lateral pterygoid muscle
c. Distance between the maxillary and mandibular ridges
d. Length of the face
d. Length of the face
94
In an abutment, that portion of a tooth that lies between the height of contour and the gingival
is called:
a. Neutral
b. Non-undercut area
c. Survey line
d. Undercut area
d. Undercut area
95
Which form of hyperplastic tissue should be removed to provide a firm base for the denture?
a. Fibrous tuberosities
b. Soft flabby ridges
c. Palatal papillomatosis
d. All of these
d. All of these
96
Tooth-borne RPD should normally have the rests located:
a. Primarily on molars because they are the strongest teeth
b. Away from edentulous areas
c. Next to edentulous areas
d. On as few teeth as feasible in order to preserve as many teeth as possible
c. Next to edentulous areas
97
The primary consideration in planning a bilateral extension mandibular partial denture is:
a. Clasp design and contour
b. Stress distribution
c. Artificial tooth position
d. Centric relation
b. Stress distribution
98
Premature occlusion can be detected by
a. Checking with thin wax for indentations
b. All of these
c. Marking with a ribbon
d. Patient’s subjective symptoms
b. All of these
99
To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered joint of a fixed bridge should be so formed that it
a. extends to the buccal margin of the retainer.
b. fills the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally.
c. is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually.
d. is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact area.
d. is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact area.
100
Splinting of several teeth together as abutments for a fixed prosthesis is done to
a. distribute occlusal load.
b. facilitate plaque control.
c. improve retention of the prosthesis.
d. preserve remaining alveolar support.
e. assure optimum design of embrasures.
a. distribute occlusal load.
101
Esthetic results attainable in a treatment plan involving malposed teeth and diastemata can be determined by
a. appearance and health of gingival tissues.
b. proper use of diagnostic casts.
c. periodontal involvement.
d. alveolar bone support.
e. an occlusal analysis.
f. patient's attitude.
b. proper use of diagnostic casts.
102
Metal-ceramic restorations may fail due to fracture of the ceramic material. This can best be avoided if
a. occlusal forces are minimal.
b. the metal is not over 0.5 mm. thick.
c. the ceramic material is at least 1.5 mm. thick.
d. the casting is designed to reduce stress concentration in the ceramic material.
d. the casting is designed to reduce stress concentration in the ceramic material.
103
A thin application of cavity varnish over the cut surface of a prepared tooth just prior to the cementation of a crown or a bridge with zinc phosphate cement will
a. impede the seating of the restoration.
b. insulate the tooth against thermal change.
c. increase the possibility of thermal sensitivity.
d. reduce the possibility of irritation of the pulp.
e. increase the possibility of leakage of the restoration.
c. increase the possibility of thermal sensitivity.
104
When a reverse (buccal) 3/4 crown is indicated on a mandibular molar, this is because
a. the reverse 3/4 crown is more esthetic.
b. the buccal surface offers more retention than the lingual surface.
c. it is easier to make a reverse preparation on the mandibular arch.
d. anatomic form of the tooth and functional relationships determine the design of the restoration.
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
d. anatomic form of the tooth and functional relationships determine the design of the restoration.
105
The nonrigid connector may be used in fixed bridges in those cases involving
a. long span bridges replacing two or more teeth.
b. short span bridges replacing one missing tooth where the prepared abutment teeth are not in parallel alignment.
c. long span bridges opposing a mucosa-borne partial denture where the anterior retainer of the bridge strikes an opposing natural tooth, but the distal portion of the bridge is in occlusion with the removable partial denture.
d. long or short span bridges where one of the abutment teeth has limited periodontal support.
b. short span bridges replacing one missing tooth where the prepared abutment teeth are not in parallel alignment.
106
One of the best materials for sedation of the dental pulp is
a. cavity varnish.
b. calcium hydroxide.
c. zinc oxide-eugenol.
d. zinc silicophosphate cement.
e. a proprietary product of sterilized dentin powder and distilled water.
c. zinc oxide-eugenol.
107
Following removal of the gingival retraction cord in preparation for a hydrocolloid impression, a small amount of bleeding from the tissue at the preparation site is noticed. The correct procedure to follow at this point is to
a. proceed with the impression because the material is prepared.
b. utilize a fulgurating current on the electrosurgical unit to control bleeding, then proceed.
c. place an overcontoured temporary restoration to force the tissue away, and dismiss the patient for impression at the next appointment.
d. control bleeding, repack the tissues and proceed with the impression.
d. control bleeding, repack the tissues and proceed with the impression.
108
Dental wax patterns should be invested as soon as possible after fabrication in order to minimize change in shape caused by
a. reduced flow.
b. drying-out of the wax.
c. relaxation of internal stress.
d. continued expansion of the wax.
c. relaxation of internal stress.
109
Cohesion of direct filling gold at room temperature is an example of the principle of
a. wedging.
b. annealing.
c. adaptability.
d. atomic attraction.
d. atomic attraction.
110
Direct filling gold is heated prior to its condensation for the purpose of
a. re-establishing its adhesive properties.
b. volatilizing surface contaminants.
c. re-crystallizing.
d. sterilization.
e. annealing.
b. volatilizing surface contaminants.
111
Different microstructure has been described for each form of pure gold: gold foil, mat gold and granular or powdered gold. It has been demonstrated at the microscopic level that
a. void spaces remain in any compacted gold.
b. gold foil is more porous than any other form of gold.
c. crystalline golds are packed densely more readily than gold foil.
d. proper compaction can remove all voids from the commercially-available direct filling golds.
a. void spaces remain in any compacted gold.
112
The property which most closely describes the ability of a cast gold inlay to be burnished is
a. elastic limit.
b. ultimate strength.
c. percentage elongation.
d. modulus of resilience.
e. modulus of elasticity
c. percentage elongation.
113
The sole therapeutic advantage of penicillin V over penicillin G is
a. Greater resistance to penicillin
b. Broader antibacterial spectrum
c. More reliable oral absorption
d. Slower renal excretion
e. None of the above
c. More reliable oral absorption
114
Which of the following antibiotics may be cross-allergenic with penicillin?
a. Neomycin
b. Cephalexin
c. Clindamycin
d. Erythromycin
e. All of the above
c. Clindamycin
115
Which of the following antibiotics should be considered the drug of choice in the treatment of infection caused by a penicillinase-producing staphylococcus?
a. Neomycin
b. Ampicillin
c. Tetracycline
d. Penicillin V
e. Dicloxacillin
e. Dicloxacillin
116
The probable mechanism of the bacteriostatic action of sulfonamides involves
a. Disruption of the cell membrane
b. Coagulation of intracellular proteins
Reduction in oxygen utilization by the cells
d. Inhibition of metabolism by binding acetyl groups
e. Competition with para-aminobenzoic acid in folic acid synthesis
e. Competition with para-aminobenzoic acid in folic acid synthesis
117
Aplastic anemia is a serious toxic effect that occurs particularly after a course of treatment with which of the following antibiotics?
a. Penicillin
b. Lincomycin
c. Tetracycline
d. Streptomycin
e. Chloramphenicol
e. Chloramphenicol
118
The concurrent administration of penicillin G and probenecid results in
a. Increased metabolism of penicillin G
b. Increased renal excretion of probenecid
c. Decreased renal excretion of penicillin G
d. Decreased bactericidal effect of penicillin G
e. Increased excretion of probenecid in the feces
c. Decreased renal excretion of penicillin G
119
Which of the following drugs chelate with calcium?
a. Erythromycin
b. Polymyxin B
c. Tetracycline
d. Penicillin G
e. Chloramphenicol
c. Tetracycline
120
Which of the following procedures would be expected to increase the incidence and the severity of reactions to local anesthetic agents?
a. Aspiration prior to injection
b. Premedication with a barbiturate
c. Rapid injection of the anesthetic solution
d. Use of a vasoconstrictor agent along with the local anesthetic agent
c. Rapid injection of the anesthetic solution
121
An excess of which of the following hormones may be associated with increased sensitivity to epinephrine?
a. Testosterone
b. Parathyroid
c. Insulin
d. Thyroid
d. Thyroid
122
Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of the barbiturates in treating convulsions due to local anesthesia?
a. Barbiturates are incapable of terminating local anesthetic convulsions.
b. Barbiturates may delay return to consciousness and are synergistic with respiratory and cardiovascular depressant effects of local anesthetics.
c. Premedication with the barbiturates may prevent the convulsions due to local anesthetics.
d. None of the above
b. Barbiturates may delay return to consciousness and are synergistic with respiratory and cardiovascular depressant effects of local anesthetics.
123
The first sensations usually lost after local anesthetic administration are
(a) touch
(b) pressure
(c) pain
(d) temperature
(e) skeletal muscle movement
a. (a) and (b)
b. (a) and (c)
c. (b) and (c)
d. (c) and (d)
e. (c) and (e)
d. (c) and (d)
124
Alpha adrenergic drugs are used in combination with local anesthetics to
(a) stimulate myocardial contraction
(b) reduce vascular absorption of the local anesthetic
(c) increase the rate of liver metabolism of the local anesthetic
(d) increase the concentration of the local anesthetic at its receptor site
(e) antagonize the vasodilatory effects of the local anesthetic
a. (a), (b) and (c)
b. (b), (c) and (d)
c. (b), (d) and (e)
d. (c), (d) and (e)
e. (d) and (e) only
d. (c), (d) and (e)
125
If the pH of an area is lower than normal body pH, the concepts involved for the membrane theory of local anesthetic activity would predict that the local anesthetic activity would be
a. greater, due to an increase in the freebase form of the drug.
b. greater, due to an increase in the cationic form of the drug.
c. less, due to an increase in the free-base form of the drug.
d. less, due to a decrease in the freebase form of the drug.
e. none of the above.
d. less, due to a decrease in the freebase form of the drug
126
The action of local anesthetic drugs on nerve fibers resulting in blockage of impulse conduction is
a. a decrease in action potential duration.
b. a decrease in magnitude of resting membrane potential.
c. prevention of the depolarization phase of the action potential.
d. a decrease in the rate of repolarization of the membrane.
c. prevention of the depolarization phase of the action potential.
127
A 2.5-year-old child has an acute oral infection characterized by small reddish-yellow vesicles in the buccal mucosa and the hard palate. The temperature is 102°F, the mouth is sore and the child will not eat or drink. The condition described is:
a. Moniliasis
b. Infantile impetigo
c. Acute herpetic stomatitis
d. Acute streptococcal infection
e. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
c. Acute herpetic stomatitis
128
The sequence of calcification of the primary teeth during the second trimester where:
A= central incisor,
B= lateral incisor,
C= canine,
D= first molar,
E= second molar
a. A, B, C, D, E
b. A, B, D, C, E
c. A, C, B, D, E
d. A, D, B, C, E
e. None of the above
d. A, D, B, C, E
129
The most common local cause of malocclusion is
a. Hypothyroidism
b. Presence of supernumerary teeth
c. Early loss of primary teeth
d. Late eruption of permanent teeth
e. Congenital absence of third molars
c. Early loss of primary teeth
130
According to stone and Church’s development classification, Aaron, age 4, would be classified developmentally as a(n):
a. Toddler
b. Preschooler
c. Middle-years child
d. Adolescent
b. Preschooler
Infant: till 15 months
Toddler: 5 months to 2 years of age
Preschooler: 2 to 6 years of age
Middle year child: 6 to 12 years of age
Adolescent: 12 years till maturity
131
A patient, age ten, has lost a maxillary permanent central incisor. The correct treatment is to:
a. Construct a suitable space maintainer immediately
b. Delay treatment until a fixed bridge can be constructed
c. Allow complete healing before constructing a replacement
d. Observe
a. Construct a suitable space maintainer immediately
132
A 2.5-year-old girl complains of a sore mouth for the last 2 days. The patient has painful cervical lymphadenopathy and a temperature of 38.8°C. Oral examination reveals numerous yellow-gray vesicles with red margins on the palate, tongue, and gingiva. Which of the following disease conditions is most likely?
a. Rubella
b. Erythema multiforme
c. Candidiasis
d. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
e. ANUG
d. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
133
In a child patient with a suspected case of leukemia and with a badly infected primary tooth, the procedure of choice would be to
a. Administer antibiotics and refer the patient to a physician
b. Obtain consultation before determining the course of action
c. Obtain a blood count, admit the child to a hospital for extraction
d. Provide palliative treatment only
e. Extract the tooth under local anesthetic and refer the patient to a physician
c. Obtain a blood count, admit the child to a hospital for extraction
134
Primate spacing in the primary dentition is observed between
a. Maxillary canines and first molars
b. Maxillary canines and lateral incisors
c. Mandibular canines and first molars
d. Mandibular canines and lateral incisors
a. a and c
b. a and d
c. b and c
d. b and d
e. d only
c. b and c
135
Edgewise appliances are multibanded appliances
a. Used on incisal edges of the anterior teeth
b. Used to obtain edge to edge occlusion
c. Employing a particular bracket for insertion of a rectangular archwire
d. Employing a particular bracket for insertion of two labial arch wires at the incisal and gingival edge of the bracket
e. None of the above
c. Employing a particular bracket for insertion of a rectangular archwire
136
In correcting an anterior crossbite, the appliance to be used is determined by the
a. Amount of overbite
b. Age of the patient
c. Cooperation of the patient
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
d. All of the above
137
The purpose of employing loops and helices in wires in tooth-moving appliances is to
a. Provide a lighter force
b. Provide a longer lever arm
c. Lengthen the period between adjustment
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
d. All of the above
138
In a mixed dentition space analysis, the most careful estimate will only be accurate within
a. 0.5 mm
b. 2.0 mm
c. 4.0 mm
d. 6.0 mm
e. 8.0 mm
b. 2.0 mm
139
An eight-year-old patient has an end-on molar relation and normal vertical and horizontal overlap. The mandibular lateral incisors are erupting slightly lingually. The dentist should:
a. Insert a lingual arch
b. Refer him to an orthodontist
c. Continue routine dental care and developmental supervision
d. Institute orthodontic therapy to reposition the lateral incisors and to correct the Class II molar relation
e. All of the above
c. Continue routine dental care and developmental supervision
140
For an eight-year-old patient with good posterior occlusion, no arch length deficiency, one central incisor severely rotated, and a large midline diastema present, the procedure of choice is to
a. Have the labial frenum excised
b. Rotate the tooth with an appliance
c. Examine for a supernumerary tooth
d. Inject thyroid hormone to stimulate eruption of the lateral incisors
e. None of the above
c. Examine for a supernumerary tooth
141
The most frequent site of squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue is the
a. apex.
b. base.
c. dorsum.
d. lateral surface
d. lateral surface
142
A serious acute infection usually involving the neck and throat which sometimes occurs as a result of the spread of infection from a periapical tissue abscess along the facial planes of the neck is known as:
a. Herpangina
b. Candidiasis
c. Impetigo
d. Epidemic parotitis
e. Ludwig's angina
e. Ludwig's angina
143
A disease with oropharyngeal lesions caused by coxsackievirus is called:
a. Herpangina
b. Salivary gland disease
c. Infectious mononucleosis
d. Cat-scratch fever
e. Vesicular stomatitis
a. Herpangina
144
Aphthous stomatitis resembles recurrent herpes in that:
a. The lesions are similar
b. The antibody titer rises
c. Intranuclear inclusion bodies are present
d. The etiologic agent may be cultivated
e. Life-long immunity results
a. The lesions are similar
145
Most of the tooth transplants currently performed in humans are:
a. Autografts
b. Xenografts
c. Allografts
d. Implants
e. Isografts
a. Autografts
NOTES:
Autografts: from same person to another area
Xenografts: from another animal species
Allografts: from humam to another human
Isografts: between 2 identical twins
146
A type of cellulitis that involves inflammation of the tissues of the floor of the mouth which often occurs following infection of the roots of the teeth (such as tooth abscess) or after mouth trauma is called:
a. Ranula
b. Ludwig's angina
c. Angioedema
d. Vincent's angina
b. Ludwig's angina
147
The most common salivary gland to be involved by the condition of sialolithiasis is the:
a. Sublingual
b. Minor glands of the lip
c. Parotid
d. Submandibular
e. Minor glands of the palate
d. Submandibular
148
Assuming that community water fluoridation is not available, the most effective means of decreasing caries for a specific 4-year-old child is probably
a. topical applications of 1.23% acidulated phosphate fluoride twice a year.
b. topical applications of 8% stannous fluoride twice a year.
c. daily use of a fluoride-containing toothpaste.
d. sodium fluoride tablets, 2.2 mg. daily
d. sodium fluoride tablets, 2.2 mg. daily
149
When fulfilling the administrator role, a public health dentist
a. conducts research
b. lobbies to changes laws
c. educates and promotes dental health
d. Provides clinical care
e. develops and coordinates public health programs
e. develops and coordinates public health programs
150
Importance of community dentistry, except
a. to evaluate community dental status
b. to cure and manage disease
c. to apply learned principles in dentistry
d. to reduce dental caries incidence
e. principle of efficiency
a. to evaluate community dental status
151
The art and science of preventing disease through organized community efforts
a. community health
b. public health activity
c. community oral health program
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
a. community health
152
Dental public health is the science of providing oral health care and education to the public and emphasizes the science of
a. urgent health care
b. dental hygiene
c. nutrition
d. dentistry
e. prosthodontics
b. dental hygiene
153
The DOH's medical research organization formally established in 1981 is called
a. Federation of Medical Investigation
b. Health Care Financing and Research
c. National Medical Care Health
d. Research Institute for Tropical Medicine (RITM)
e. National Institutes of Health
d. Research Institute for Tropical Medicine (RITM)
154
The following are conceptual framework of primary health care, except:
a. combination of socio-economic and biological factors
b. training and health manpower development
c. none of the above
d. control and prevention of health problems
e. needs for intersectoral linkages
b. training and health manpower development
155
If a patient requiring an extraction reports that he is on bishydroxycoumarin therapy, the laboratory test most valuable in evaluating the surgical risk is
a. clotting time.
b. bleeding time.
c. sedimentation rate.
d. complete blood count.
e. plasma prothrombin time.
e. plasma prothrombin time.
156
The major cause of speech problems in persons with cleft lip and palate is
a. intellectual deficiency.
b. inability to control tongue movements.
c. inability to build up intraoral air pressure.
d. abnormal tooth position and arch relationships.
e. inability to sustain laryngeal vibrations (phonation).
c. inability to build up intraoral air pressure.
157
Which of the following is not an indication for suturing following exodontia (simple)?
a. Hemostasis
b. Protection of blood clot
c. Immobilization of tissue
d. Reapproximation of flaps
b. Protection of blood clot
158
The approach for removal of foreign body in the antrum is:
a. Through the socket
b. By Weber-Ferguson incision
c. Through the canine fossa
d. By nasal antrostomy
c. Through the canine fossa
159
The optimal time for a surgical procedure in an irradiated field is:
a. Are months to one year after completion of radiotherapy
b. Four to six weeks after radiotherapy
c. Immediately after completion of radiotherapy
d. Any time during course of radiotherapy
b. Four to six weeks after radiotherapy
160
The factor of least importance in alveolar flap design is:
a. Tension-free closure
b. Base relationship to length
c. Closure over bone
d. Linear incision
d. Linear incision
161
Necessary alveolectomy should be performed:
a. At the time of extraction of teeth
b. Six weeks after extraction
c. Only when complete dentures are to be constructed
d. Never on young patients
a. At the time of extraction of teeth
NOTES:
An alveolectomy is a surgical procedure that removes the alveolar bone surrounding an infected tooth
162
During a patient's initial visit, the priority consideration is
a. a complete examination.
b. full mouth radiographs.
c. diagnosis and treatment plan.
d. determination of chief complaint.
e. determination of patient's motivation for dental care.
d. determination of chief complaint.
163
Foremost in the general planning of a patient's dental care is the
A. restoration of all carious lesions.
B. comfort and health of the patient.
C. establishment of an adequate home care regime.
D. None of the above
B. comfort and health of the patient.
164
After a thorough examination, a teen-aged patient is found to have numerous carious lesions. Most of the proximal surfaces of the molars and the premolars are carious to the extent that much of the occlusal enamel appears to be undermined. Of the following courses of treatment, which would be the wisest to follow?
a. Restore all teeth as rapidly as possible using silver amalgam.
b. Place patient on a prevention regime and delay treatment until the effectiveness of home care is evaluated.
c. Restore all teeth with gold inlays to utilize the strength of this material.
d. Excavate all carious lesions and place intermediary restorative ZOE before completing a treatment plan.
d. Excavate all carious lesions and place intermediary restorative ZOE before completing a treatment plan.
165
Esthetic results attainable in a treatment plan involving malposed teeth and diastemata can be determined by
a. appearance and health of gingival tissues.
b. proper use of diagnostic casts.
c. periodontal involvement.
d. alveolar bone support.
e. an occlusal analysis.
f. patient's attitude
b. proper use of diagnostic casts.
166
If a tooth must be extracted, the main reason the dentist should convince the patient that the extracted tooth should be replaced is to
a. restore esthetics.
b. restore function.
c. restore good phonetics.
d. prevent changes in positions and contact relationships of remaining teeth.
d. prevent changes in positions and contact relationships of remaining teeth.
167
A general dentist has been practicing dentistry for 36 years and is currently in the
midst of remodeling his office. He would like to switch to digital radiography. The following are advantages of digital radiology technique in comparison to traditional techniques EXCEPT for:
a. Radiation dose reduction up to 60%
b. Low cost of sensors
c. Increased image resolution and contrast as compared to D speed film
d. Delayed display of images
e. Increased ability to detect proximal carries in noncavitated teeth
b. Low cost of sensors
168
What are the components of a dental x-ray tube?
a. Glass envelope
b. Cathode
c. Anode
d. Tungsten target
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
169
What are the common rules to follow to have an accurate radiographic image formation when taking x-rays?
a. Using the correct focal spot size
b. Placing the film close enough to prevent distortion
c. Cutting down the amount of divergent xrays reaching the object by using the longest target-film distance
d. 90-degree angle of the central ray of the x-ray in relation to the film
e. Film and object should be as parallel as possible
f. All of the above
e. Film and object should be as parallel as possible
170
A first-year dental student helping out in the clinic for the first time repeatedly obtains x-rays of tooth #14 with a zigzagged pattern. What could have prevented the zigzagged pattern on the radiographic image?
a. Placing the film incorrectly with the lead portion facing the cone
b. Telling the patient not to move during the exposure
c. Bending the film less when placing in position
d. Using the film only once instead of exposing it multiple times
e. Decreasing the kilovoltage
a. Placing the film incorrectly with the lead portion facing the cone
171
A periapical film of tooth #9 was obtained in preparation for a root canal and an initial measurement for length of the canal was performed. After initial debridement of the canal was performed, another x-ray was captured with the initial root length measured and it appears that the file is approximately 4mm from the apex. How could we have obtained a more accurate initial length measurement?
a. Increasing the vertical angulation of the cone in relation to the film
b. Decreasing the vertical angulation of the cone in relation to the film
c. Decreasing the horizontal angulation of the cone in relation to the film
d. Increasing the horizontal angulation of the cone in relation to the film
b. Decreasing the vertical angulation of the cone in relation to the film
172
A 17-year-old male was referred to an oral surgeon for extraction of an impacted tooth #11
that is located in area apical to teeth #10–#12, which was found on routine x rays. How would the oral surgeon decide as to where the impacted tooth lay in respect to being either buccal or palatal to teeth #10 and #12?
a. Application of the SLOB rule
b. Use of panoramic radiograph
c. Towne’s view x-ray
d. Water’s view x-ray
e. Lateral head radiograph
a. Application of the SLOB rule
173
What is the main ingredient of the developing solution that serves to convert the exposed silver salts on the emulsion film into silver metallic ions?
a. Sodium carbonate
b. Potassium bromide
c. Sodium sulfite
d. Hydroquinone
e. Acetic acid
d. Hydroquinone
174
Dental plaque is believed to adhere to the teeth because
a. levans are gummy.
b. dextrans are insoluble and sticky.
c. it grows into surface irregularities.
d. the bacteria secrete a lipoprotein cementing substance.
e. none of the above.
b. dextrans are insoluble and sticky.
175
Trauma from occlusion may be manifested in the
(a) periodontium
(b) hard structures of the teeth
(c) pulp
(d) temporomandibular joint
(e) neuromuscular system
a. (a), (d) and (e)
b. (b), (c) and (d)
c. (b), (d) and (e)
d. (c), (d) and (e)
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
176
When treating trauma from occlusion, it is appropriate to
(a) decrease the total muscular forces applied to the teeth by eliminating bruxism;
(b) distribute the occlusal forces over more teeth by occlusal adjustment or splinting;
(c) change the direction of the forces from lateral to axial forces by occlusal adjustment, orthodontic therapy and/or restorative dentistry;
(d) increase the tissue tolerance to occlusal forces by periodontal therapy.
a. (a) and (b)
b. (b) and (c) only
c. (b), (c) and (d)
d. (c) and (d) only
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
177
The splinting together of teeth for mutual support is more difficult to achieve after periodontal therapy due to:
a. increased caries rate.
b. longer clinical crowns.
c. the teeth being farther apart.
d. increased mobility of teeth.
b. longer clinical crowns.
178
How should a periodontal probe be adapted in an interproximal area?
a. It should be parallel to the long axis of the tooth at the point of angle
b. It should be parallel to the long axis of the tooth at the contact area
c. It should touch the contact area and the tip should angle slightly beneath and beyond the contact area
d. It should be perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth in front of the contact area
c. It should touch the contact area and the tip should angle slightly beneath and beyond the contact area
179
Which of the following is the LEAST important diagnostic aid in recognizing the early stages of gingivitis?
a. Bleeding upon probing B
b. Gingival color
c. Pocket depths
d. Stippling of the gingival tissue
d. Stippling of the gingival tissue
180
Gingivitis is most often caused by:
a. A hormonal imbalance
b. Inadequate oral hygiene
c. Occlusal trauma
d. A vitamin deficiency
e. Aging
b. Inadequate oral hygiene
181
A patient returned to the office one week after a tooth was restored and complained of an intermittent, vague pain in the same quadrant. The thermal reaction test produced a quick, sharp contraction pain which passed away immediately. The electric pulp test produced more response than normal. The condition described probably is:
a. hyperemia.
b. acute pulpitis.
c. chronic pulpitis.
d. chronic inflammation
a. hyperemia.
182
A patient has nonspecific pain in the permanent maxillary first molar which has occurred periodically since he was hit on the chin. Examination reveals an apparently healthy tooth both clinically and radiographically with a conservative MOD inlay. Examination of the preparation and casting shows a quality casting. The most probable cause of the pain is:
a. maxillary sinusitis.
b. a mesiodistal fracture of the tooth.
c. a faciolingual fracture of the tooth.
d. leakage and, therefore, chemical irritation due to faulty cementation of the inlay.
b. a mesiodistal fracture of the tooth.
183
A patient complains of sensitivity in a mandibular premolar. A well-condensed Class V amalgam restoration was placed in that tooth five months previously, with no discomfort for the first four months. Since then, it has become increasingly sensitive. The problem probably relates to:
a. marginal leakage.
b. fractured restoration.
c. irreversible pulpal damage.
d. toothbrush abrasion.
c. irreversible pulpal damage.
184
Direct functions of the mature dental pulp include:
(a) enamel formation
(b) formation of dentin structure
(c) to furnish nerve and blood supply of teeth
(d) cementum formation
(e) periodontal ligament formation
a. (a), (b) and (e)
b. (b) and (c) only
c. (b), (c) and (d)
d. (b), (c) and (e)
e. (c) and (e)
b. (b) and (c) only
185
When removal of carious dentin reveals an exposure of a pulp horn without clinical evidence of vital pulp tissue, the treatment of choice is to
a. institute endodontic treatment.
b. cap the exposed pulp horn with calcium hydroxide and seal with zinc phosphate cement.
c. occlude the cavity with a light packing of cotton moistened with eugenol pending final treatment.
d. fill the cavity with zinc oxide-eugenol and make an appointment for extraction on another date.
a. institute endodontic treatment.
186
Several of the significant bacteroides species involved in pulpal- periradicular infection have undergone taxonomic revision. They are now reclassified as:
a. Wolinella and Veillonella species
b. Eubacterium and Fusobacterium
c. Porphyromonas and Prevotella
d. Actinomycetes and Spirochetes
c. Porphyromonas and Prevotella
187
Endodontic therapy is contraindicated if the periapical areas associated with a pulpless tooth involves over one-third of the root because the size of a periapical lesion apparently has no relation to the ability of the body to repair the lesion:
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and are related
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related
c. The statement is incorrect but the reason is correct
d. The statement is correct but the reason is incorrect
c. The statement is incorrect but the reason is correct
188
It is obliged upon all professionals, including dentists, to have sufficient knowledge of the law pursuant to the principle:
a. “Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith.”
b. “No one shall enrich himself at the expense of another.”
c. “Honesty is the best policy.”
d. “The thing speaks for itself.”
a. “Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith.”
189
It is a rule of conduct just and obligatory laid down power for common observance and benefit
a. jurisprudence
b. ethics
c. law
d. decree
c. law
190
There are two main general divisions of law, namely:
a. public and private
b. divine and positive
c. civil and criminal
d. human and positive
b. divine and positive
191
It is the law-making body of the Philippine government which enacts, repeals or amends the law:
a. legislative branch
b. executive branch
c. judiciary branch
d. none of these
a. legislative branch
192
The following are sources of law, EXCEPT:
a. decision of foreign
b. principles of justice
c. financial status of the members of the society
d. Supreme Court decisions
c. financial status of the members of the society
193
A normal power of man to do, to possess, or to require something which power all others are bound to respect:
a. legal right
b. obligation
c. duty
d. right
d. right
194
There are those rights which the State confers upon a person and which he can enforce through legal means against those persons of the community who are bound to respect them:
a. legal rights
b. political rights
c. judicial rights
d. executive rights
a. legal rights
195
These are rights which the possessor holds as against the whole community and
which involves a corresponding duty on the part of the whole community to refrain from
disturbing the rights to life, liberty, and property. The right to practice dentistry by a duly licensed and registered dentist is an example of this kinds of rights.
a. judicial right
b. right in personam
c. constitutional rights
d. rights in rem
d. rights in rem
196
These are rights which the possessor may enforce against particular individuals only, and
which corresponds to duties on the part of such individual to act or fore ban in regard to the subject of the right. An example of this kind of right is the right of the dentist to demand payment of his professional fees.
a. rights in personam
b. civil rights
c. rights in rem
d. political right
a. rights in personam
197
The following are rights of the patients, EXCEPT:
a. the right to choose their dentist
b. the right to treatment, free of charge
c. the right to enjoy privileged communication
d. the right to be informed of diagnostic steps
b. the right to treatment, free of charge
198
This is considered a right of the dentist:
a. the right to commit malpractice
b. the right to practice in all private hospitals
c. the right to choose patients
d. the right to demand excessive dental fees
c. the right to choose patients
199
Defined as all laws enacted by the legislative body of the state, all rules and regulations promulgated by those in authority, court decisions and formal principles upon which laws are based:
a. dental jurisprudence
b. jurisprudence
c. remedial law
d. private law
b. jurisprudence
200
The systematic study of all laws, rules and regulations as well as legal principles and doctrines, governing and regulating dental practice is the definition of:
a. dental ethics
b. Republic Act No. 4419
c. jurisprudence
d. dental jurisprudence
d. dental jurisprudence
