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PATHO > MORPHOLOGY (90% from ROBBINS BLUE BOX) > Flashcards

MORPHOLOGY (90% from ROBBINS BLUE BOX) Flashcards

1
Q

more extreme heaping of epithelium with

RED, FRIABLE, GRANULAR (sometimes ulcerated) surface

A

Chronic Cystitis

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2
Q

Aggregation of lymphocytes into lymphoid follicles within bladder mucosa and underlying wall

A

Chronic FOLLICULAR cystitis

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3
Q

suppurative neutrophilic infiltration

hyperemic bladder with exudation

A

Acute Cystitis

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4
Q

Acute Cystitis

A

suppurative neutrophilic infiltration

hyperemic bladder with exudation

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5
Q

Chronic Cystitis

A

more extreme heaping of epithelium with

RED, FRIABLE, GRANULAR (sometimes ulcerated) surface

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6
Q

Chronic FOLLICULAR cystitis

A

Aggregation of lymphocytes into lymphoid follicles within bladder mucosa and underlying wall

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7
Q

infiltration with submucosal eosinophils (bladder)

usually as a manifestation from an allergic reaction

A

Chronic EOSINOPHILIC cystitis

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8
Q

Chronic EOSINOPHILIC cystitis

A

infiltration with submucosal eosinophils (bladder)

usually as a manifestation from an allergic reaction

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9
Q

MORPHOLOGIC PATTERNS OF ACUTE INFLAMMATION

outpouring of a thin fluid (effusion) derived from plasma or from secretions of mesothelial cells

A

SEROUS INFLAMMATION

pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, skin blisters

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10
Q

MORPHOLOGIC PATTERNS OF ACUTE INFLAMMATION

bread and butter appearance

A

FIBRINOUS INFLAMMATION

fibrinous pericarditis

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11
Q

MORPHOLOGIC PATTERNS OF ACUTE INFLAMMATION

fibrin is formed and deposited in extracellular space

A

FIBRINOUS INFLAMMATION

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12
Q

MORPHOLOGIC PATTERNS OF ACUTE INFLAMMATION

with localized collection of inflammatory tissue consisting of neutrophils, liquefactive necrosis and edema

A

SUPPURATIVE INFLAMMATION

acute appendicitis, skin abscess

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13
Q

MORPHOLOGIC PATTERNS OF ACUTE INFLAMMATION

with local defect or excavation of the surface of and organ

it is produced by sloughing of inflamed necrotic tissue

A

ULCERATIVE INFLAMMATION

peptic ulcer disease

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14
Q

What biochemical disorder in HEME SYNTHESIS presents with skin blisters due to photosensitivity?

A

PORPHYRIA

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15
Q

What biochemical disorder in DNA REPAIR presents with skin blisters due to photosensitivity?

A

XERODERMA PIGMENTOSUM

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16
Q

3 most common complications of peptic ulcer disease

A

bleeding
perforation
obstruction

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17
Q

Which blood vessels will be injured with perforation of

gastric ulcer?

duodenal ulcer?

A

gastric ulcer: LEFT GASTRIC ARTERY

duodenal ulcer: GASTRODUODENAL ARTERY

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18
Q

MORPHOLOGIC PATTERNS OF ACUTE INFLAMMATION

bacterial toxin induced damage of mucosal lining
SHAGGY MEMBRANE of necrotic tissue

A

PSEUDOMEMBRANOUS INFLAMMATION

Pseudomembranous colitis

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19
Q

PATHOLOGIC CONSEQUENCE OF

DEFECTIVE inflammation

A

increased SUSCEPTIBILITY to infections

delayed wound healing

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20
Q

PATHOLOGIC CONSEQUENCE OF

EXCESSIVE inflammation

A

Autoimmune
Allergies
Alzheimer’s

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21
Q

TISSUE PROLIFERATIVE ACTIVITY

continuously dividing cells
proliferate throughout life

A

LABILE CELLS

skin, oral cavity, vagina and cervix

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22
Q

TISSUE PROLIFERATIVE ACTIVITY

quiescent tissues which normally have a low level of replication

A

STABLE CELLS

parenchymal cells of liver, kidneys and pancrease

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23
Q

TISSUE PROLIFERATIVE ACTIVITY

nondividing tissues
contain cells that have left the cell cycle and cannot undergo mitotic division

A

PERMANENT CELLS

neurons, skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle

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24
Q

clearing and separation of the ECM

and subtle cell swelling

A

EDEMA

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25
Q

engorged alveolar capillaries with alveolar septal edema and focal intra-alveolar hemorrhage

A

ACUTE PULMONARY CONGESTION

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26
Q

thickened and fibrotic septa

with hemosiderin laden macrophages

A

CHRONIC PULMONARY CONGESTION

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27
Q

ISCHEMIC centrilobular hepatocytes with periportal steatosis

A

ACUTE HEPATIC CONGESTION

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28
Q

HEMORRHAGIC centrilobular hepatocytes accentuated agains uncongested tan liver (NUTMEG LIVER)

A

CHRONIC HEPATIC CONGESTION

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29
Q

HYPEREMIA vs. CONGESTION:

it is an ACTIVE process in which arteriolar dilation leads to increased blood flow

A

HYPEREMIA

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30
Q

HYPEREMIA vs. CONGESTION

it is a PASSIVE process resulting from reduced outflow of blood from a tissue

A

CONGESTION

(congested tissues take on a dusky reddish-blue color (cyanosis) due to red cell stasis and accumulation of DEoxygenated hemoglobin)

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31
Q

pale platelet and fibrin deposits alternating with darker red cell-rich layers

signifies thrombus formed in flowing blood (ANTEMORTEM THROMBOSIS)

A

LINES OF ZAHN

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32
Q

Thrombus with gelatinous with dark red dependent portion and yellow “chicken fat” upper portion

No lines of Zahn

NOT attached to the underlying wall

A

POSTMORTEM THROMBOSIS

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33
Q

Thrombi occuring in heart chambers or in the aortic lumen

A

MURAL THROMBOSIS

usually in the left atrium
setting: abnormal myocardial contraction or endomyocardial injury

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34
Q

thrombi usually beginning at sites of TURBULENCE
frequently occlusive
also with lines of zahn

A

ARTERIAL THROMBOSIS

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35
Q

ARTERIAL THROMBOSIS common sites

A

CORONARY (MOST common) > CEREBRAL > FEMORAL

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36
Q

thrombi usually beginning at sites of STASIS
invariably occlusive
more enmeshed RBCs and few platelets

A

VENOUS THROMBOSIS

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37
Q

VENOUS THROMBOSIS common sites

A

MOST COMMON: CALF VEINS

lower extremity veins, such as in DEEP VENOUS THROMBOSIS

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38
Q

Test for DVT

A

Homan Sign

A positive sign is present when there is pain in the calf on forceful and abrupt dorsiflexion of the patient’s foot at the ankle while the knee is extended

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39
Q

non-tender, painless, small hemorrhagic macular/nodular lesions on the palms of soles

microabscess of the dermis

A

JANEWAY LESIONS

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40
Q

painful, red, raised lesions on the hands and feet due to immune complex deposition

A

OSLERS NODES

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41
Q

Retinal hemorrhages with pale centers composed of coagulated fibrin caused by immune complex mediated vasculitis (observed in fundoscopy)

A

ROTH’S SPOTS

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42
Q

DVT that presents as a PALE, painful leg with a diminshed arterial pulse due to VASOSPASM

A

PHLEGMASIA ALBA DOLENS

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43
Q

DVT that presents a CYANOTIC, painful leg due to EXTENSIVE THROMBOTIC OCCLUSION

A

PHLEGMASIA CERULEA DOLENS

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44
Q

EMBOLISM:

fat globules impacted in pulmonary vessels,
usually in the setting of open long bone fractures

A

FAT EMBOLISM

presentation: pulmonary insufficiency, neurologic ssx, anemia, thrombocytopenia

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45
Q

BUZZ WORDS:

bends
chokes
Caisson disease

A

DECOMPRESSION SICKNESS

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46
Q

wedge shaped with occluded vessel at apex and periphery of organ at base

dominant histologic characteristic: COAGULATIVE NECROSIS

area of ischemic necrosis

A

INFARCTION

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47
Q

INFARCTION:

occurs in:

  1. venous occlusion
  2. loose tissues where blood can collect
  3. tissues with DUAL CIRCULATION (Lungs, Intestines)
  4. tissues with previously congested by sluggish outflow
  5. when flow is re-established to a site of previous arterial occlusion and necrosis
A

HEMORRHAGIC (RED) INFARCTION

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48
Q

INFARCTION:

occurs in solid organs with END-ARTERIAL circulation (Heart, Spleen, Kidneys)

tissue density limits the seepage of blood from adjoining capillary beds into the necrotic area

A

PALE (WHITE) INFARCTION

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49
Q

systemic HYPOTENSION due to either:

reduced cardiac output OR
reduced effective circulating blood volume

A

SHOCK

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50
Q

SHOCK:

failure of myocardial pump resulting from myocardial damage, extrinsic pressure or obstruction to outflow

examples:
MI
ventricular rupture
Arryhthymia
Cardiac Tamponade
A

CARDIOGENIC SHOCK

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51
Q

SHOCK:

Inadequate blood or plasma volume

example:
hemorrhage
vomiting
diarrhea
burn
trauma
A

HYPOVOLEMIC SHOCK

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52
Q

SHOCK:

peripheral vasodilation and pooling of blood
endothelial activation/injury
leukocyte induced damage

example: Toxic Shock Syndrome

A

SEPTIC SHOCK

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53
Q

SHOCK:

Anesthetic accident or spinal cord injury with resultant loss of vascular tone and peripheral pooling of blood

A

NEUROGENIC SHOCK

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54
Q

SHOCK:

systemic vasodilation and increased vascular permeability by an IgE mediated hypersensitivity reaction

A

ANAPHYLACTIC SHOCK

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55
Q

SHOCK:

cellular and tissue changes:

A

similar to hypoxic injury

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56
Q

SHOCK:

adrenals:

A

cortical cell lipid depletion

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57
Q

SHOCK:

renal:

A

acute tubular necrosis

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58
Q

SHOCK:

lungs:

A

normal or diffuse alveolar damage (shock lung)

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59
Q

GENETICS: TRINUCLEOTIDE REPEATS:

CAG

A

Huntington’s Disease

CAG CAG CAG - sound made by the hunters gun

mnemonic: name of disease:middle letter of trinucleotide

X:Girlfriend’s [fragile X:cGg]
First:Aid [Freidrich’s ataxia: gAa]
Helped me: Ace [Huntington’s: cAg]
My: Test [Myotonic dystrophy: cTg]

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60
Q

GENETICS: TRINUCLEOTIDE REPEATS:

CTG

A

myoTonic dystrophy

(cTg)
mnemonic: name of disease:middle letter of trinucleotide

X:Girlfriend’s [fragile X:cGg]
First:Aid [Freidrich’s ataxia: gAa]
Helped me: Ace [Huntington’s: cAg]
My: Test [Myotonic dystrophy: cTg]

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61
Q

GENETICS: TRINUCLEOTIDE REPEATS:

CGG

A

fraGile X

(cGg)

mnemonic: name of disease:middle letter of trinucleotide

X:Girlfriend’s [fragile X:cGg]
First:Aid [Freidrich’s ataxia: gAa]
Helped me: Ace [Huntington’s: cAg]
My: Test [Myotonic dystrophy: cTg]

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62
Q

GENETICS: TRINUCLEOTIDE REPEATS:

GAA

A

friedrich’s Ataxia

(gAa)

mnemonic: name of disease:middle letter of trinucleotide

X:Girlfriend’s [fragile X:cGg]
First:Aid [Freidrich’s ataxia: gAa]
Helped me: Ace [Huntington’s: cAg]
My: Test [Myotonic dystrophy: cTg]

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63
Q

GENETIC DISORDERS: MITOCHONDRIAL INHERITANCE

disorder of connective tissues
from inherited defect in an extracellular glycoprotein:
FIBRILLIN 1

A

MARFAN SYNDROME

64
Q

MARFAN SYNDROME: Skeletal changes

A

tall with long extremities, fingers and toes
lax joint ligaments (hyperextensible thumb)
dolichocephalic (elongated skull)
frontal bossing
kyphoscoliosis
pectus excavatum or carinatum

65
Q

MARFAN SYNDROME: Ocular Changes

A

ectopia lentis

bilateral subluxation of dislocation - outward and upward- of the lens

66
Q

MARFAN SYNDROME: Cardiovascular changes

A

Mitral Valve Prolapse
Cystic Medial Necrosis of ascending aorta

(CMN of ascending aorta predisposes to aortic dissection which is cause of death in 30 to 45% of patients with Marfan)

67
Q

GENETIC DISORDERS: MITOCHONDRIAL INHERITANCE

result from defect in the synthesis or structure of FIBRILLAR COLLAGEN

most common defect is TYPE 3 COLLAGEN

A

EHLERS-DANLOS SYNDROME

68
Q

GENETIC DISORDERS: MITOCHONDRIAL INHERITANCE

skin is extraordinarily stretchable, extremely fragile and vulnerable to trauma

A

EHLERS-DANLOS SYNDROME

69
Q

DIFFERENCE between MARFAN and EHLERS

A

MARFAN’S SYNDROME has

ocular symptoms: ECTOPIA LENTIS and
cardiovascular changes: MVP and AORTIC DISSECTION

70
Q

LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISORDERS

Lysosome filled with gangliosides (whorled configuration)
Hexosaminidase Alpha Subunit Deficiency
neurons ballooned with cytoplasmic vacuoles

Cherry red spot in macula
CNS and RETINAL involvement
MOTOR and Mental deterioration

A

TAY-SACHS

71
Q

LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISORDERS

Zebra bodies
Cherry red spot in macula
lipid laden phagocytic foam cells
shrunken gyri, widened sulci
vacuolation of neurons
A

NEIMANN-PICK DISEASE

72
Q

LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISORDERS:

MOST COMMON lysosomal storage disorder

distended phagocytic cells with CRUMPLED TISSUE PAPER appearance

mutations in the gene encoding for
GLUCOCEREBROSIDASE

A

Gaucher Disease

GAUCHER CELLS - distended phagocytic cells with CRUMPLED TISSUE PAPER appearance

73
Q

LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISORDERS:

deificiency of lysosomal enzymes involved in the degradation of mucopolysaccharides (GAGs)

A

MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDOSES

74
Q

LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISORDERS: MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDOSES

TYPE 1

A

HURLER

Enzyme: alpha - L - iduronidase

Urinary Metabolites: Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate

Signs and Symptoms: Corneal Clouding, Musculoskeletal, CNS and CV abnormalities

75
Q

LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISORDERS: MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDOSES

TYPE 2

A

HUNTER

Enzyme: Iduronosulfate sulfatase

Urinary Metabolites: Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate

Signs and Symptoms: Musculoskeletal and CNS abnormalities

76
Q

LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISORDERS: MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDOSES

TYPE 3

A

Sanfilippo

Enzyme: 4 variants including heparan N-sulfatase (sulfamidase and N-acetylglucosaminidase)

Urinary Metabolites: Heparan Sulfate

Signs and Symptoms: Musculoskeletal and CNS abnormalities

77
Q

LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISORDERS: MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDOSES

TYPE 4

A

Morquio

Enzyme: N-acetylglucosamine - 6 - sulfatase

Urinary Metabolites: Keratan Sulfate, Chondroitin 6 - sulfate

Signs and Symptoms: Corneal Clouding, Musculoskeletal and CV abnormalities

78
Q

LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISORDERS: MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDOSES

TYPE 5

A

Scheie

Enzyme: Alpha - L - Iduronidase

Urinary Metabolites:Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate

Signs and Symptoms: Corneal Clouding, Musculoskeletal and CV abnormalities

79
Q

LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISORDERS: MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDOSES

TYPE 6

A

Maroteaux Lamy

Enzyme: N-acetylglucosamine - 4 - sulfatase

Urinary Metabolites: Dermatan Sulfate

Signs and Symptoms: Corneal Clouding, Musculoskeletal and CV abnormalities

80
Q

LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISORDERS: MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDOSES

TYPE 7

A

SLY

Enzyme: Beta Glucoronidase

Urinary Metabolites: Heparan Sulfate, Dermatan Sulfate

Signs and Symptoms: Musculoskeletal and CV abnormalities;
Corneal Clouding and CNS Abnormalities (+/-)

81
Q

GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISEASE:

TYPE 1

A

Von Gierke

Enzyme: Glucose - 6 Phosphatase

Cardinal Clinical Features:
Severe Hypoglycemia

82
Q

GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISEASE:

TYPE 2

A

Pompe

Enzyme: Alpha 1,4 Glucosidase

Cardinal Clinical Features:
Cardiomegaly
Muscle Wakness
Death by 2 years

83
Q

GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISEASE:

TYPE 3

A

Cori

Enzyme: Glycogen Debranching enzyme

Cardinal Clinical Features:
Mild hypoglycemia
Liver Enlargement

84
Q

GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISEASE:

TYPE 4

A

Andersen (Amylopectinosis)

Enzyme: Branching enzyme

Cardinal Clinical Features:
Infantile hypotonia
Cirrhosis
Death by 2 years

85
Q

GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISEASE:

TYPE 5

A

McArdle

Enzyme: Muscle Glycogen Phosphorylase

Cardinal Clinical Features:
Muscle cramps and weakness on exercise

86
Q

GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISEASE:

TYPE 6

A

Hers Disease

Enzyme: Hepatic Glycogen

Cardinal Clinical Features:
Hyopglycemia
Cirrhosis

87
Q

GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISEASE:

TYPE 7:

A

-

Enzyme: Muscle Phosphofructokinase

Cardinal Clinical Features:
Muscle Cramps

88
Q

GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISEASE

TYPE 8:

A

-

Enzyme: Hepatic Phosphorylase Kinase

Cardinal Clinical Features:
No neuromuscular symptoms, hypoglycemia

89
Q

GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISEASE:

intracytoplasmic glycogen accumulation in LIVER and KIDNEYS

A

VON GIERKE (hepatic type)

90
Q

GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISEASE:

intracytoplasmic glycogen accumulation in MUSCLE only

A

McArdle’s (Myopathic type)

91
Q

GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISEASE:

intracytoplasmic glycogen accumulation in HEART, LIVER and MUSCLE

A

Pompe’s (MIscellaneous type)

92
Q

autosomal recessive disorder
first human inborn error of metabolism
lack of homegentisic oxidase

with blue black pigmentation evident in the ears, nose and cheeks (cartilage is brittle and

black urine when allowed to stand

A

Alkaptonuria

*ochronosis - blue black pigmentation evident in the ears, nose and cheeks

93
Q

CHROMOSOMAL DISORDERS

Trisomy 21

A

Downs Syndrome

94
Q

CHROMOSOMAL DISORDERS

Trisomy 13

A

Patau Syndrome

95
Q

CHROMOSOMAL DISORDERS

Trisomy 18

A

Edwards Syndrome

96
Q

CHROMOSOMAL DISORDER

3 Ps of Patau

A

Patau Syndrome

Polydactyly
Cleft Palate
Holoprosencephaly

97
Q

HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION:

the principal morphologic manifestation of immune complex injury

A

ACUTE NECROTIZING VASCULITIS

with necrosis of the vessel wall and intense neutrophilic infiltration

98
Q

smudgy eosinophilic deposit that obscures the underlying cellular detail

A

FIBRINOID NECROSIS

  • produced from immune complexes, complement and plasma protein from acute necrotizing vasculitis
99
Q

HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTIONS

when allergens bind to IgE on surface of mast cells with the consequent release of several mediators

A

Type 1

Anaphylactic

100
Q

HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTIONS

when ANTIBODIES directed at ANTIGENS of the cell MEMBRANES and activates a COMPLEMENT
which in turn activates a MEMBRANE ATTACK COMPLEX

A

Type 2

Cytotoxic

101
Q

HEAD AND NECK: ORAL CAVITY

causative agent of Herpes labialis

A

Herpes Simplex Virus 1

102
Q

HEAD AND NECK: ORAL CAVITY

presents as vesicles and ulceration throught the oral cavity, especially in the gingiva

A

HERPES LABIALIS

*ACUTE HERPETIC GINGIVOSTOMATITIS - vesicles and ulceration throught the oral cavity, especially in the gingiva

103
Q

HEAD AND NECK: ORAL CAVITY

  • acantholysis (intra and intercellular edema)
  • eosinophilic intranuclear viral inclusions
  • multinucleate polykaryons (fused intranuclear viral inclusions)
  • acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
A

HERPES LABIALIS

104
Q

HEAD AND NECK: ORAL CAVITY

solitary or multiple white patches or plaques, often with sharply demarcated borders

may be slightly thickened and smooth or wrinkled and fissured, or they may appear as raised, sometimes corrugated, verrucous plaques

spectrum of epithelial changes:

  1. hyperkeratosis overlying a thickened acanthotic but orderly mucosal epithelium
  2. marked dysplastic changes
A

LEUKOPLAKIA

** all leukoplakias must be considered precancerous

105
Q

HEAD AND NECK: ORAL CAVITY

red velvety, possibly eroded area within the oral cavity

superficial erosions with dysplasia, carcinoma in sity or carcinoma in surrounding margins

intense subepithelial inflammatory reaction with vascular dilation which likely contributes to the reddish clinical appearance.

A

ERYTHROPLAKIA

106
Q

HEAD AND NECK: ORAL CAVITY

Diagnostic test for Herpes Labialis

A

Tzanck Test/ Tzanck Smear

107
Q

Oral Manifestations of Systemic Disease

Fiery red tongue with prominent papillae (raspberry tongue); white-coated tongue through which hyperemic papillae project (strawberry tongue)

A

Scarlet fever

108
Q

Oral Manifestations of Systemic Disease

Spotty enanthema in the oral cavity often precedes the skin rash; ulcerations on the buccal mucosa about Stensen duct produce Koplik spots

A

Measles

109
Q

Oral Manifestations of Systemic Disease

Acute pharyngitis and tonsillitis that may cause coating with a gray-white exudative membrane; enlargement of lymph nodes in the neck, palatal petechiae

A

Infectious mononucleosis

110
Q

Oral Manifestations of Systemic Disease

Characteristic dirty white, fibrinosuppurative, tough, inflammatory membrane over the tonsils and retropharynx

A

Diphtheria

111
Q

Oral Manifestations of Systemic Disease

Predisposition to opportunistic oral infections, particularly herpesvirus, Candida, and other fungi; oral lesions of Kaposi sarcoma and hairy leukoplakia

A

HIV

112
Q

Oral Manifestations of Systemic Disease

Autosomal dominant disorder with multiple congenital aneurysmal telangiectasias beneath mucosal surfaces of the oral cavity and lips

A

Rendu-Osler-Weber syndrome

113
Q 
may arise anywhere in the oral cavity, but the favored locations are: 
the ventral surface of the tongue
floor of the mouth
lower lip
soft palate
gingiva

begin as dysplastic lesions, which may or may not progress to full-thickness dysplasia (carcinoma in situ) before invading the underlying connective tissue stroma

may be superimposed on a background of apparent leukoplakia or erythroplakia

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

114
Q

NASOPHARYNGEAL CARCINOMA is associated with what viral infection

A

EBV

115
Q

HEAD AND NECK: UPPER AIRWAY

edematous mucosa having a loose stroma

A

NASAL POLYPS

116
Q

A variant of this condition is composed of large epithelial cells with oval or round vesicular nuclei, prominent nucleoli, and indistinct cell borders disposed in a syncytium-like array

Admixed with the epithelial cells are abundant, mature, normal-appearing lymphocytes, which are predominantly T cells.

A

NASOPHARYNGEAL CARCINOMA, SCHMINKE TUMOR

**SCHMINKE TUMOR = poorly differentiated variant of NPC

117
Q

HEAD and NECK: UPPER AIRWAYS

loose myxoid connective tissue
may be variably fibrotic or punctuated by numerous vascular channels

A

VOCAL CORD NODULES

118
Q

HEAD and NECK: UPPER AIRWAYS

pearly gray, wrinkled plaques on the mucosal surface, ultimately ulcerating and fungating

with atypical lining

A

LARYNGEAL CARCINOMA

119
Q

HEAD and NECK: NECK

remnants of the second brachial arch

benign cysts usually appear on the upper lateral aspect of the neck along the SCM

A

BRANCHIAL CLEFT CYST

120
Q

HEAD AND NECK: NECK

cyst from the persistence of remnants of thyroid anlagen developmental tract

A

THYOGLOSSAL DUCT CYST

121
Q

HEAD AND NECK: NECK

chiefly composed of nests (Zellballen) of round to oval chief cells (neuroectodermal in origin) that are surrounded by delicate vascular septae

A

PARAGANGLIOMA

122
Q

HEAD AND NECK: NECK

exceeds 6 cm in diameter and arises close to or envelops the bifurcation of the common carotid artery

protoype of a PARASYMPTHETIC PARAGANGLIOMA

A

CAROTID BODY TUMOR

123
Q

HEAD AND NECK: NECK

clusters of NEUROENDOCRINE CELLS associated with the ANS and therefore can be seen throughout the various regions of the body

usual location is Adrenal Medulla

A

PARAGANGLIOMA

124
Q

HEAD AND NECK: SALIVARY GLANDS

most common lesion of the salivary glands

A

MUCOCOELE

125
Q

HEAD AND NECK: SALIVARY GLANDS

results from either blockage or rupture of a salivary gland duct, with consequent leakage of saliva into the surrounding connective tissue stroma

A

MUCOCOELE

126
Q

HEAD AND NECK: SALIVARY GLANDS

present as fluctuant swellings of the lower lip and have a blue translucent hue to them

A

MUCOCOELE

127
Q

HEAD AND NECK: SALIVARY GLANDS

demonstrate a cystlike space that is lined by inflammatory granulation tissue or by fibrous connective tissue. The cystic spaces are filled with mucin as well as inflammatory cells, particularly macrophages

A

MUCOCOELE

128
Q

HEAD AND NECK: SALIVARY GLANDS

Sialolithiasis is associated with which bacterial agents (2)

A

Staph aurues

Strep viridans

129
Q

HEAD AND NECK: SALIVARY GLANDS

Sialolithiasis often involves which major salivary gland

A

SUBMANDIBULAR GLAND

130
Q

HEAD AND NECK: SALIVARY GLANDS

benign tumors that consists of a MIXTURE of DUCTAL and MYOEPITHELIAL CELLS
most common PAROTID tumor

A

PLEOMORPHIC ADENOMA

131
Q

HEAD AND NECK: SALIVARY GLANDS

aka PAPILLARY CYSTADENOMA LYMPHOMATOSUM

second most common salivary gland neoplasm

with EPITHELIAL and LYMPHOID elements
FOLLICULAR GERM CENTERS
CYSTIC SPACES

A

WARTHIN TUMOR

132
Q

HEAD AND NECK: SALIVARY GLANDS

cords, sheets or cystic configurations of squamous, mucous or intermediate cells

A

MUCOEPIDERMOID CARCINOMA

133
Q

SKIN

undulation of dermal papillae
hyperkeratosis and basal cell hyperpigmentation

A

ACANTHOSIS NIGRICANS

134
Q

SKIN

second most common tumor from sun exposed sites
keratin pearls
cells with enlarged and hyperchromtic nuclei in ALL levels of the epidermis

A

SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA

135
Q

SKIN

MOST COMMON invasive cancer in humans
multifocal growths
nodal lesions
PALISADING pattern

A

BASAL CELL CARCINOMA

136
Q

SKIN

mast cell degranulation
wheals
angioedema

A

URTICARIA

137
Q

SKIN

red papulovesicular oozing and crusting lesions
scaling plaques due to reactive acanthosis and hyperkeratosis

A

ACUTE ECXEMATOUS DERMATITIS

138
Q

SKIN

red macule or papule with a pale, vesicular or eroded center

A

TARGET CELLS seen in ERYTHEMA MULTIFORME

spectrum:
erythema multiforme
SJS
TEN

139
Q

SKIN

may be induced by Koebner phenomenon
test tubes in a rack appearance
spongiform pustules of Kagoj
Munro Microabscesses
salmon colored plaques with silvery white scales
A

PSORIASIS

140
Q

SKIN

blistering disorder
INTRAdermal lesion (dissolution of intercellular attachments within the epidermis and mucosal epithelium)
acantholysis
POSITIVE Nikolsky sign

A

PEMPHIGUS

141
Q

SKIN

blistering disorder
SUBdermal lesion
NONacantholytic
NEGATIVE Nikolsky sign

A

BULLOUS PEMPHIGOID

142
Q

SKIN

blistering disorder
occurs in association with CELIAC DISEASE
microabscesses at the tips of dermal papillae
granular deposits of IgA at the tips of the dermal papillae

A

DERMATITIS HERPETIFORMIS

143
Q

arrangements of a single layer of tumor cells around an apparent lumen

most common primary intra-ocular malignancy of children

A

RETINOBLASTOMA

Flexner-Witnersteiner rosettes - single layer of tumor cells around an apparent lumen

144
Q

BREASTS:

localized area of acute inflammation that may progress to the formation of single or multiple abscess

MOST COMMON CAUSE: ?

A

ACUTE MASTITIS: Staphylococcus aures

145
Q

BREASTS

ill-defined firm gray-white nodules containing small CHALKY WHITE FOCI or dark hemorrhagic debris

painless palpable mass
with history of trauma or prior surgery

A

FAT NECROSIS

146
Q

BREASTS

well-circumscribed rubbery grayish white nodules
large lobulated (POPCORN) calcifications
most common breast mass/benign tumor in women <35

A

FIBROADENOMA

147
Q

BREASTS:

bulky tumor derived from stromal cells
lobulated tumor with cystic spaces containing LEAF LIKE EXTENSIONS

A

PHYLLODES TUMOR

148
Q

BREASTS: DCIS types

pleomorphic cells with high grade hyperchromatic nuclei

A

COMEDOCARCINOMA

149
Q

BREASTS: DCIS types

monomorphic cells with nuclear grades ranging from low to high

A

NONCOMEDO DCIS

150
Q

BREASTS:

dyscohesive cells with oval or round nuclei and small nucleoli

lacks adhesion protein: E-CADHERIN

A

LOBULAR CARCINOMA

151
Q

BREASTS

small central pinpoint foci or streaks of CHALKY WHITE ELASTOTIC STROMA
characteristic GRATING SOUND
most common type of breast cancer

A

INVASIVE DUCTAL CA

152
Q

BREASTS

dyscohesive infiltrating tumor cells arranged in single file or in loose cluster sheets
(SIGNET RING cells arranged in INDIAN FILE pattern)
most common cause of bilateral breast cancer

A

INVASIVE LOBULAR CA

153
Q

BREASTS

fleshy mass with syncytium like sheets of large cells with vesicular, pleomorphic nuclei and prominent nucleoli

A

MEDULLARY CA of the breast

154
Q

BREASTS

same consistency and appearance of PALE GRAY BLUE GELATIN

A

MUCINOUS CARCINOMA

155
Q

BREASTS

well formed angulated tubules lined by a single layer of cells with small uniform nuclei

A

TUBULAR CARCINOMA

156
Q

BREASTS

breast swelling an skin thickening
Peau d'orange
high degree of aneuploidy
tumor emboli in dermal lymphatics
persistent E-CADHERIN expression

WORST PROGNOSIS

A

INFLAMMATORY BREAST CA

PATHO (3 decks)

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