Morphological Aspects of Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two phases in the morphological model of cancer? What is it called when you transition from one step to the next?

A
  1. Premalignant or dysplastic - accumulation of abnormal cells within an epithelium, without invasion
  2. Malignant - local invasion and/or distant (lymphatic or hematogenous) spread - that is, metastasis

It is called “progression” when you transition from one step to the next

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is generally the stimulus for hyperplasia?

A

Inflammation or hormone stimulation

-> it is reversible and subsides when the stimulus is removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are atypical and complex hyperplasia?

A

Very unfortunate terms used in uterus and breast pathology which are meant to mean premalignant states, although generally hyperplasia is meant as a reversible increase in the number of normal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Barrett’s esophagus and how can it lead to cancer?

A

It is when the squamous mucosa of the lower esophagus is replaced by intestinal type mucosa (replacement of fully differentiated epithelium = metaplasia).

This metaplasia can lead to dysplasia of the new columnar epithelium and ultimately invasive adenocarcinoma of the esophagus (vs squamous cell carcinoma which you would normally see without metaplasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is squamous cell carcinoma likely to occur in the lung?

A

Pseudostratified columnar -> stratified squamous epithelium

SSE -> squamous dysplasia

Squamous dysplasia -> squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is an intraepithelial neoplasia or premalignancy also called? What is its defining characteristic?

A

Dysplasia

-> has not invaded the surrounding tissues by breaking through the basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the features of abnormal cells in dysplasia?

A
  1. Ratio of proliferating / differentiating cells increases
  2. Cells have altered polarity (may lead to stratified cells in columnar epithelium, for instance)
  3. Abnormal nuclear morphological features
  4. Increased nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What types of tissue are precancerous conditions found in, and how long does it take for dysplasia to progress to invasive cancer? Why is this important?

A

Virtually all tissues in the body, including glandular epithelium (usually non-squamous) and epithelium of exocervix, upper / low aerodigestive tract, and skin (squamous)

Takes decades for dysplasia -> invasive cancer
-> provides important opportunity for screening, i.e. PAP smears, PSA test, mammograms, colonoscopies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the progression of normal squamous epithelium from basal layer to surface?

A

No mitosis pass the basal layer, with progressive decrease in the nuclear:cytoplasm ratio, and an accumulation of intermediate filaments (keratin).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How can SSK epithelium be differentiated from SSNK?

A

SSNK will have small nuclei on the uppermost layer, whereas SSK (stratified squamous keratinized) will lack any nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Give the three primary features of dysplastic squamous epithelium.

A
  1. Overall increased cellularity
  2. Mitoses and abnormal, basal-like cells everywhere in the epithelium
  3. High N:C ratios
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does each grade correspond to?

A

How far up the stratified layer the abnormal and mitotic cells reach. If it reaches all the way to the surface, it is severe dysplasia / carcinoma in situ.
-> represents increased proliferation and reduced differentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What feature of squamous epithelium tells you the cells have abnormal polarity?

A

When keratinization occurs in the base or in the middle, not at the surface (keratinization can happen anywhere, and even form “keratin pearls”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is it called when highly dysplastic cells have variation in size / shape, and also increased density of their nuclear chromatin?

A

Prominent in high grade dysplasias:

Pleomorphism - variation in size and shape

Hyperchromasia - increased density of their nuclear chromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the two systems for grading dysplasia?

A

Four-grade system - more variability between pathologists: Mild, moderate, severe, and CIS (carcinoma in situ)

Two grade system - less variable: Low and high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the field effect state?

A

Cancer often arises in the background of MULTIFOCAL precursor lesions within an organ or anatomical system
-> if you had a cancer of the breast once, you are more likely to develop a second primary breast cancer than other people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why does the field effect occur?

A

Due to widespread exposure of the organ system to a carcinogen.

I.e. if you are a smoker and you develop head and neck cancer, the rest of the epithelium in your head and neck also saw that tobacco smoke and was likely to seed a few more premalignant lesions
-> like a farmer spreading his seeds over a large area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What should be done to prevent second cancer recurrences in light of the field effect?

A

Use systemic chemotherapies

-> can kill other premalignant lesions at the same time as malignant cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What two characteristics of dysplasia are proportion to its chance of developing into cancer?

A
  1. Degree of dysplasia -> more severe = more likely

2. Extent of dysplasia -> more premalignant lesions = more likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Are some organs more prone to aggressive cancers than others? When is detecting this impotant?

A

Yes. Prostate and thyroid cancers tend to be vary indolent cancers and often do not kill you.

However, even within a given organ, some cancers are more aggressive than others and require more specific treatment. Detecting specific markers which give clues into the amount of invasiveness can also guide treatment for the individual patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What types of cancers are most likely to be detected via screening? Why is this a problem?

A

Slow-growing cancers

Some fast-growing cancers like small cell carcinoma of the lung have too rapid of a growth / preinvasive phase to be detected via early detection

Problem because we overdiagnose and overtreat (at great medical and societal costs) cancers which are unlikely to pose a major threat

22
Q

What types of genes are associated with increased genetic susceptibility for dysplasia to progress to full cancers?

A

Detoxification genes (i.e. glutathione-S-transferase) or DNA repair genes

Certain p53 genes have a higher affinity for E6 protein of HPV 16/18 and predisposes as well

23
Q

What are the five factors which determine the likelihood of progression from dysplasia to malignancy?

A
  1. Grade and extent of dysplasia
  2. Intrinsic biologic features of that cancer
  3. Potency of carcinogenic agent (i.e. HPV virus, tobacco smoke)
  4. Genetic susceptibility
  5. Immune response
24
Q

What evidence suggests that the immune system plays a role in thwarting cancer?

A
  1. Immunosuppressed patients or AIDS patients have a higher incidence of cancer
  2. Presence of tumor infiltrating lymphocytes is associated with better prognosis (CD8 T cells). Tumor cells can even fight the immune system.
  3. Immune boosters help fight cancer
25
Q

What are the AIDS-defining cancers?

A

Cervical carcinoma
non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Kaposi sarcoma

26
Q

How is the distinction between benign and neoplastic tissue made currently?

A

Via pattern recognition on light microscopy -> H&E stain

This includes looking at architectural features (overall growth pattern of tumor) - low power, and features of single cells (cellular features) - high power

27
Q

What are the two architectural features which distinguish a benign from a malignant tumor?

A
  1. Invasiveness

2. Orderliness

28
Q

What is the first step of classifying a tumor?

A

Determining its type of differentiation (i.e. squamous epithelium, glandular epithelium, bone, vessels, etc)

29
Q

How is squamous cell carcinoma recognized?

A

A malignant tumor showing keratinization

30
Q

What helps you recognize an adenocarcinoma? What are some subtypes?

A

Differentiation is either evident at architectural levels with cells being arranged around a lumen, or cellular level by the presence of intracellular mucin.

Depending on how the glands grow:

  1. Micropapillary pattern - presence of intraluminal projections
  2. Ductal -> formation of tubules
  3. Lobular carcinoma -> linear arrays of cells
31
Q

How do sarcomas tend to appear vs carcinomas?

A

Sarcomas typically have spindle cell morphology
-> cigar-shaped

Carcinomas are epithelioid
-> polygonal or round

32
Q

How do lymphomas look? How do you differentiate from carcinomas?

A

Polygonal or round cells with high N:C ratios which grow in large, patternless, solid sheets -> accumulates in LN, bone arrow, liver, spleen, or CNS. Have no stroma.

Carcinomas are typically characterized by desmoplasia making them rock hard, which is absent in lymphomas

33
Q

What is Immunohistochemistry (IHC) used for?

A

Two functions:
1. As an ancillary or supplementary technique to classify tumors if H&E is inconclusive.

  1. Testing for presence of tumor molecules (i.e. HER2) for targeting of therapy
34
Q

What marker is commonly used to identify a carcinoma?

A

The presence of cytokeratins -> expressed in carcinomas but not sarcomas

35
Q

Why might IHC be useful for determining the origin of metastasis?

A

If the site of origin is associated with specific tumor markers, they will be found at the site of metastasis (i.e. PSA in prostate cancer).

36
Q

Other than IHC, what is another ancillary test which can quickly identify specific substances in a tumor?

A

Special chemical staining

i.e. Mucicarmine for mucin

37
Q

What are the three uses of molecular studies?

A
  1. Classification of tumors -> i.e. finding tumor specific translocations
  2. Guiding therapy -> i.e. detection of point mutations in EGFR which drive lung adenocarcinoma, making it susceptible to EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors
38
Q

Give an example of how molecular tests could follow up immunohistochemistry?

A

Checking for upregulation of HER2 in breast cancer.

If IHC for HER2 is quantitatively borderline, can use FISH (fluoresence in situ hybridization) to test for presence of gene amplification

39
Q

Give an example of how molecular testing can predict prognosis / tailor therapy.

A

A 21 gene panel is used to determine the risk of relapse in certain types of breast cancer.

Those at lowest risk of relapse are not given chemotherapy due to side effects.

This test is used in the comprehensive staging of ER+, HER-2-, T-anyN0M0 tumors.

40
Q

What grading system for carcinomas is subjective?

A

The qualitative system, where you assign Grades 1-4 based on well, moderately, poorly, or undifferentiated (anaplastic)

i. e. Determining grade of a squamous cell carcinoma by ratio of keratinized:basal cells
(differentiated: undifferentiated)

41
Q

How are adenocarcinomas graded? Do these grades have an impact on tumor stage?

A

The extent of glandular formation

Yes -> certain cancers deemed anaplastic have a far worse prognosis (i.e. thyroid cancer, regardless of size) and will influence tumor stage

42
Q

What grading system for carcinomas is objective system? For what carcinomas does it exist?

A

The Quantitative / Standardized System

Breast Cancer: Nottingham grading scale

Prostate Cancer: Gleason score

43
Q

How is the Gleason scale scored?

A

2-10
Add the grades of the major and minor growth patterns (denoted grades 1-5). I.e. Grade 4 and grade 2 = Gleason score of 6

If only one growth pattern exists, double it (i.e. grade 3 = gleason score of 6)

44
Q

What are the parameters of the Nottingham scale for breast carcinoma?

A
  1. Extent of tubule formation
  2. Mitotic rate
  3. Cellular pleomorphism
45
Q

What are the two types of staging?

A
  1. Anatomical stage - TNM system
  2. Comprehensive stage - total stage determined via biological parameters (i.e. lab tests) + histological grade + anatomical stage, which allows stratification of tumor prognosis within the same TNM stage
46
Q

What are the three separate parameters of the TNM stage? Which is most impactful on prognosis?

A

T = tumor local extension / metastasis

N = presence and type of lymph node metastases (may be # (i.e. breast) or type (i.e. lung) depending on organ)

M = presence of hematogenous metastases = yes or no.

M is most impactful on prognosis -> assures grouping to TNM stage 4

47
Q

What does a T4 score generally mean?

A

A tumor of any size making widespread local extension, beyond the organ of origin (i.e. breast cancer breaking out of the boundaries of the skin)

48
Q

What are staging systems tailored to?

A

Specific organs and to some extent histotype

49
Q

How is a prostate cancer comprehensive stage made?

A

Combination of the Gleason score (objective grading) and PSA serum level, as well as the anatomic (TNM score). The grading and PSA serum level have a massive effect on prognostic staging in organ-confined disease.

50
Q

Are adenomas benign?

A

Generally, yes. But in the GI tract, they are actually glandular dysplasias, a premalignant condition. These are present in polyps. Confusing nomenclature.