More Q's Flashcards
1.An antibody made against the antigen tetanus toxoid (TT) reacts with it even when the TT is denatured by disrupting all disulfide bonds. Another antibody against TT fails to react when the TT is similarly denatured. The most likely explanation can be stated as follows:
A.The first antibody is specific for several epitopes expressed by TT.
B.The first antibody is specific for the primary amino acid sequence of TT, whereas the second is specific for conformational determinants.
C.The second antibody is specific for disulfide bonds.
D.The first antibody has a higher affinity for TT.
B. The first antibody is specific for the primary amino acid sequence of TT, whereas the second is specific for conformational determinants.
Injection into rabbits of a preparation of pooled human IgG could stimulate production of A. anti-g heavy-chain antibody. B. anti-k chain antibody. C. anti-l chain antibody. D. anti-Fc antibody. E. All are correct.
E. All are correct.
A polyclonal antiserum raised against pooled human IgA will react with A. human IgM. B. k light chains. C. human IgG. D. J chain. E. All are correct.
E. All are correct
The first immunoglobulin synthesized by the fetus is
A. IgA.
B. IgE.
C. IgG.
D. IgM.
E. None; the fetus does not synthesize immunoglobulins.
IgM
The relative level of specific IgM antibodies can be of diagnostic significance because
A. IgM is easier to detect than the other isotypes.
B. viral infection often results in very high IgM responses.
C. IgM antibodies are more often protective against reinfections than are the other isotypes.
D. relatively high levels of IgM often correlate with a first recent exposure to the inducing agent
D. relatively high levels of IgM often correlate with a first recent exposure to the inducing agent
The primary and secondary antibody responses differ in
A. the predominant isotype generated.
B. the number of lymphocytes responding to antigen.
C. the speed at which antibodies appear in the serum.
D. the biologic functions manifested by the Ig isotypes produced.
E. All of the above.
E. All of the above.
Primary interactions between antigens and antibodies involve all of the following except
A. covalent bonds.
B. van der Waals forces.
C. hydrophobic forces.
D. electrostatic forces.
E. a very close fit between an epitope and the antibody.
A. covalent bonds.
If an IgG antibody preparation specific for hen egg lysosome (HEL) is treated with papain to
generate Fab fragments, which of the following statements concerning the avidity of such
fragments is true?
A) They will have a lower avidity for HEL as compared with the intact IgG.
B) They will have a higher avidity for HEL as compared with the intact IgG.
C) There will have the same avidity for HEL as the intact IgG.
D) They will have lost their avidity to bind to HEL.
E) They will have the same avidity but will have a lower affinity for HEL.
A) They will have a lower avidity for HEL as compared with the intact IgG.
Which of the following are functions of proteins encoded by of TAP-1 and -2 genes?
A. bind b2-microglobulin
B. prevent peptide binding to MHC molecules
C. are part of the proteasome
D. transport peptides into the endoplasmic reticulum for binding to MHC class I
E. transport peptides into the endoplasmic reticulum for binding to MHC class II
D. transport peptides into the endoplasmic reticulum for binding to MHC class I
When the sequences of different MHC class I molecules are compared, the variation between
molecules is concentrated within which of the following?
A. Areas of the molecule that bind CD4
B. Areas of the molecule that bind to the T cell receptor and to the antigenic peptide
C. b-2 microglobulin
D. the transmembrane domain of the a chain
E. the b1 domain (the N terminal domain of the b chain)
B. Areas of the molecule that bind to the T cell receptor and to the antigenic peptide
Which of the following statements about interleukin 2 (IL-2) is INCORRECT?
A. It is produced primarily by activated macrophages.
B. It is produced by CD4+ T cells.
C. It can induce the proliferation of CD4+ T cells.
D. It binds to a specific receptor on CD4+ T cells.
E. It can activate CD8+ T cells in the presence of antigen.
A. It is produced primarily by activated macrophages.
IL-2 is primarily produced by activated T cells
CD40 Ligand (CD154) is expressed by which of the following? A. B cells B. dendritic cells C. resting T cells D. activated T cells E. all leukocytes
D. activated T cells
Which of the following statements about cytokines synthesized by CD4+ TH1 and TH2 subsets is
incorrect?
A. Cytokines produced by TH1 cells include IFN-gamma
B. Cytokines produced by TH2 cells are important in allergic responses
C. TH1 cells secrete cytokines that induce macrophage and NK cell activation
D. TH2 cells secrete cytokines that induce proliferation of CD8 + T cells
E. TH2 cell cytokines induce proliferation of B cells
D. TH2 cells secrete cytokines that induce proliferation of CD8 + T cells
Infection with vaccinia virus results in the priming of virus-specific CD8+ T cells. If these vaccinia
virus-specific CD8+ T cells are subsequently removed from the individual, which of the following
cells will they kill in vitro?
A. vaccinia-infected cells expressing MHC class II molecules from any individual
B. influenza-infected cells expressing the same MHC class I molecules as the individual
C. uninfected cells expressing the same MHC class I molecules as the individual
D. vaccinia-infected cells expressing the same MHC class I molecules as the individual
E. vaccinia-infected cells expressing the same MHC class II molecules as the individual
D. vaccinia-infected cells expressing the same MHC class I molecules as the individual
An individual does not make an immune response to a self-protein because A. self-proteins cannot be processed into peptides. B. peptides from self-proteins cannot bind to MHC class I. C. peptides from self-proteins cannot bind to MHC class II. D. lymphocytes that express a receptor reactive to a self-protein are inactivated by deletion E. None of the above
D. lymphocytes that express a receptor reactive to a self-protein are inactivated by deletion
Which of the following is incorrect concerning immune tolerance?
A. Tolerance induction is antigen-specific.
B. Tolerance results from inactivation and/or elimination of B and/or T cells.
C. Tolerance can be induced in both young and old individuals.
D. Immature neutrophils are more susceptible to tolerance than mature neutrophils.
E. The breakdown of tolerance can result in autoimmunity.
D. Immature neutrophils are more susceptible to tolerance than mature neutrophils.
Which of the following statements regarding the functional properties of cytokines is false?
A. They typically have pleiotropic properties.
B. They often exhibit functional redundancy.
C. They often display antigen specificity.
D. They exhibit synergistic or antagonistic properties.
E. They assist in the regulation and development of immune effector cells.
C. They often display antigen specificity.
When IL-2 is secreted by antigen-specific T cells activated due to presentation of antigen by
APCs, what happens to naive antigen-nonspecific T cells in the vicinity?
A. They proliferate due to their exposure to ILB.
They often undergo apoptosis.
C. They begin to express IL-2 receptors.
D. They secrete cytokines associated with their T H phenotype.
E. Nothing happens.
E. Nothing happens.
