MORE AIRLAW PNG Flashcards
Instrument time is defined as ?
Part 1 Definitions
Time during which an AC is piloted solely by reference to instruments and without external reference points.
The holder of an instrument rating may only carry out an instrument approach if they have carried out an instrument approach within the immediately preceding ?
61.807 (4)
3 months (90 days) using a similar type of navigation.
The holder of an instrument rating shall not exercise the privileges of this rating unless they have at least a ?
61.805 (4)
Hold a class 2 Medical and meet the class 1 hearing standards
You are preparing for an IFR cross-country flight. As you taxi to the T/O position, you notice that the power supply to the gyroscopic heading indicator has failed. May you proceed?
91.517 (3)
No.
You intend to operate a non-pressurised IFR air transport flight from A to B. The enroute MFA is 10,500’ and you intend to operate at or above this altitude in excess of 30 min. Your aircraft must be equipped with ?
91.209 (a)(1)(2)
Supplemental oxygen for continuous use by all crew, passengers and portable oxygen equipment for any crewmember whose duty requires movement from their usual station.
What are the minimum qualifications that must be held by a safety pilot, when an aircraft is operated under simulated IFR in VMC?
91.125
PPL and appropriate type rating.
A PIC of an IFR flight that does not require an alternate must ensure that sufficient fuel is carried to completed the flight to the destination, and fly after that for ?
91.403 (1)(i)
45 min at holding speed at 1500’ AGL
You intend to operate an IFR air transport flight to an aerodrome that does not have any instrument approach procedures. Under what circumstance must you nominate an IFR alternate destination?
91.405 (3)(i)(ii)
If the ceiling at the destination AD is less than 500’ above LSALT for the final route segment or lowest MSA and visibility is below 8km.
While on an IFR flight, you must advise the appropriate ATS unit of any variation of airspeed in excess of ?
91.411 (1)(ii)
+/- 5%
The PIC of an appropriate AC may take-off under IFR from an approved AD at reduced T/O minima of zero cloud ceiling provided that the horizontal visibility is confirmed by the pilot to be at least ?
91.413 (b)
800m
Note: Approved AD has centreline marking and runway edge lighting & part 95 authorises reduced T/O minima. (lights usually spaced 90m, sometimes 60m)
The instrument approach alternate minima for a Cat B AC completing a VOR/DME RWY 14 approach at POM is given as
(1875) 4500.
The PIC of a Cat A AC conducting an instrument departure as part of an IFR flight shall not exceed what speed during any turn specified for that procedure?
91.413 (c)(3) table 7
120 KIAS
You intend to conduct an IFR flight from A to B. No minimum altitude is prescribed for this route, and the highest terrain within 5nm of the navigation tolerance is 6500’. You must therefore not operate this flight below?
91.417 (3)
8000’
Which of the following altitudes and cruising levels are appropriate for a magnetic track of 300 within the POM FIR? Note: Area QNH 1020 ?
91.419 (a)
18,000, FL220, FL300 & FL450
If no DME distance is prescribed for an instrument holding pattern procedure, the PIC shall maintain the outbound track for how long, when at or below FL140?
91.421 (6)(ii)
1min and above FL140 for 1.5min
The instrument holding pattern procedure overhead the XYZ NDB is limited to Cat A & B AC only. The max IAS for this holding pattern below FL140 will be?
91.421 Table 8 note 2
170kts
PGR.962 has been designated as a restricted area for the purpose of gunnery and weapon firing. Under what circumstances may you enter this airspace?
91.129(a)
Only with the approval of the controlling authority for this restricted area
You are the PIC of an AC of a NPA in class C airspace. You have a total communications failure just prior to crossing the FAF. Best course of action is to ?
91.437 (4)
Continue approach to land.
The max IAS for an AC below 10,000’ within class F airspace and not within 5km (3nm) of an AD is ?
91.237 (a)
250kts
Each PIC of an AC shall maintain the cruising level of that AC by reference to an altimeter that is set to the appropriate area or AD QNH when operating at or below ?
91.239(a)(2)
20,000’
An instrument approach procedure specifies an 80 reversal turn, the following applies ?
91.423 (c)(4)(iv)
Either a 45 or 80 turn may be made in the direction specified
In association with an instrument approach ?
IAL 5-3
∆ - Initial approach fix
∆ (full)- Intermediate approach fix
◊ with a dot - Without HIAL Vis Req 1.5km for ILS. Add 900m for other types of RWY aligned approaches
Vat for you AC is 104kts. What is its approach category?
91.423 Table 10
Cat B as Vat range is: 91-120
The permissible range of IAS for Cat B AC on final approach is ?
91.423 Table 10
85-130
A pilot carries out an instrument approach procedure at a controlled AD for which circling minima only are specified. Is a straight-in approach to the RWY permitted?
Yes subject to ATC clearance and provided the pilot has the RWY in sight in time to make a normal approach and landing.
You are the PIC of an IFR flight. Provided all other requirements are you may conduct a visual approach provided the horizontal visibility is at least ?
91.423 (h)(2)
5km
For a visual approach at night, you must have what in sight throughout the approach?
91.423 (h)(5)
Runway approach or runway lighting
While on a precision approach, you must conduct the published missed approach procedure as soon as you reach ?
91.423 (j)(iii)
The decision altitude (DA)
You are on a VOR/DME approach ~3nm from the MAPt. ATC instructs you to execute a missed approach due to an obstruction on the RWY ?
91.423 (j)(3)
You must continue to track to the MAPt before conducting the missed approach procedure.
What is the minimum height you can initiate a turn after carrying out an instrument departure procedure?
91.413 (c)(ii)
400’ AGL
You are holding at below FL340. When are you allowed to hold at a maximum of 280kts or Mach 0.8 in turbulent conditions?
91.421 table 8
Above FL140