AIR LAW PNG

Question 1

what is the required inspection period for compass calibration for an aircraft involved in an air operation ?

Answer 1

24 months.

91.612 Compass Calibration
Unless otherwise prescribed in the operator’s maintenance programme, no person shall operate an aircraft unless each installed compass has been calibrated within the preceding 24 months.

Question 2

what are the minimum type experience required to act as the PIC of ME aeroplane ? Does this need to be performed on the same basic type or a similar type of aircraft ?

Answer 2

for multi-engine aircraft, reciprocating or turbine engine powered, 10 hours and 8 take-offs and landings:

on the same basic type

135. 505 Pilot-in-command type experience requirements
     (a) The certificate holder shall ensure that any person acting as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft has completed, prior to designation as pilot-in-command, on that make and basic model aircraft, at least the following operating experience—
     (1) for single engine aircraft, 5 hours and 5 take-offs and landings:
     (2) for multi-engine aircraft, reciprocating or turbine engine powered, 10 hours and 8 take-offs and landings:
     (3) for turbojet or turbofan aeroplanes, 15 hours and 10 take-offs and landings.
     (b) The experience required by paragraph (a) shall be acquired as follows:
     (1) in flight during air operations performed, except that flight time and take-off and landing experience may be accrued in a flight simulator approved for this purpose; and
     (2) in the case of an aircraft not previously used by the holder of an air operator certificate in air operations performed, during proving flights or ferry flights in the aircraft type; and
     (3) while performing the duties of a pilot-in-command under the supervision of a designated pilot-in-command.

Question 3

for a CPL holder, what procedures must be followed in regards to conducting low level flying practise ?

Answer 3

91. 131 Low flying zones
    (a) A pilot must not operate an aircraft within a low flying zone designated under Part 71—

(1) during the night or;
(2) during the day unless-
(i) the pilot-

(A) is receiving dual flight instruction; or

B)holds an instructor rating issued under Part 61; or

(C) briefed on the boundaries of low flying zone and the method of entry and exit from the low flying zone and is authorised for that flight by the holder of an instructor rating issued under Part 61; and

(ii) the pilot has been briefed verbally or in writing on the conditions of operation within the low flying zone specified by the using agency; and
(iii) the pilot complies with the conditions of operation for flight within the low flying zone; and
(iv) before entering the low flying zone, the pilot broadcasts on the appropriate VHF frequency details of the flight and the proposed duration in the low flying zone; and
(v) the pilot maintains a listening watch on the appropriate VHF frequency while in the low flying zone and broadcasts or reports on vacating the low flying zone.

(b)
the aircraft is operated without hazard to persons or property on the surface.

A pilot operating an aircraft within a low flying zone designated under Part 71 must ensure that

(c) A pilot operating an aircraft within a low flying zone designated under Part 71 must not carry a passenger on the aircraft.

Question 4

what requirements must be met before simulated instrument time flying may be conducted ?

Answer 4

91.125 Simulated instrument flight

No person shall operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight unless—

(1) the aircraft has two pilot stations and one pilot station is occupied by a safety pilot, who is the holder of a current pilot licence other than a student pilot; and

(2) the safety pilot has—
(i) adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft; or
(ii) a competent observer to adequately supplement the vision of the safety pilot; and

(3) the aircraft is equipped with—
(i) fully functioning dual controls; or
(ii) pitch, roll, yaw, and engine power controls which can be operated at either flight crew station.

Question 5

a chart has the letter L followed by three numbers. What does this mean and what are the limitations associated ?

Answer 5

73. 59 Low flying areas
    (a) The Director may designate an area of airspace as a low flying area where pilot training in low level flying may be conducted.
    (b) The Director shall, for each low flying area—
    (1) identify it by the letters PGL followed by a number, except that on maps and charts the letter L followed by the number may be used.
    (2) nominate a using agency responsible for briefing pilots on the associated conditions of use applicable to the area.
    (3) a low flying area shall not be effective between the hours of last light and first light.
    (c) The vertical limits of a low flying area shall extend from the surface of the earth to a height of 500 ft.
    (d) The Director shall not designate an area as a low flying area unless the using agency nominated under paragraph (b)(2)
    (1) provides a map or chart on which the boundaries of the area are defined; and

(2) satisfies the Director that—
(i) the person who has the right to possession of the land or property below the area does not object to the use of the area for such purposes; and
(ii) the use of the area for such purposes will not create undue nuisance and will not present a hazard to persons or property; and

(3) provides full details of consultation with other airspace users.
(e) Each using agency nominated under paragraph (b)(2) shall, upon the Director’s request, provide the Director with a current consent and assurance referred to in paragraph (d)(2).

Question 6

performing a Part 135 operation, what are the landing performance limitations for a grass strip with a tail wind?

Answer 6

Grass Strip Landing Distance Factor x1.18
Not less than 150%of reported TailWind Component

135. 209 Runway Surface and Slope correction factors
136. 221 Landing distance – dry runway
     (1) the landing weight of the aeroplane does not exceed the maximum approach and landing- climb weight, taking into account the altitude and the ambient temperature expected for the estimated time of landing at a destination and alternate aerodrome; and

(2) for instrument approaches with decision heights below 200 feet, the approach weight of the aeroplane, taking into account the take-off weight and the fuel expected to be consumed in flight, allows a missed approach net-climb-gradient, assuming that the critical engine is inoperative in the approach configuration, of—
(ii) at least the net-climb gradient required to clear any obstacles in the missed approach flight path in accordance with 135.211.

(a) A holder of an air operator certificate must ensure that, for each aeroplane the certificate holder operates, the landing weight for the estimated time of landing does not exceed the landing weight specified in the aeroplane flight manual.

(b) A holder of an air operator certificate must ensure that, for each aeroplane the certificate holder operates, the landing weight of the aeroplane for the estimated time of landing at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome allows a full-stop landing from 50 feet above the threshold within 85% of landing distance available.

(c) When calculating the landing weight in accordance with paragraph (b), the certificate holder must take account of—
(1) aerodrome elevation; and
(2) ambient temperature at the aerodrome; and
(3) the type of runway surface and the runway surface condition ; and
(4) the runway slope in the direction of landing; and

(5) not more than 50% of the reported headwind component or not less than 150% of the reported tailwind component.

(d) For dispatch of an aeroplane to land in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c), the certificate holder must assume that the aeroplane lands on the most favourable runway taking into account—

(1) the forecast meteorological conditions; and
(2) surrounding terrain; and
(3) approach and landing aids; and
(4) obstacles within the missed approach flight path.

(e) If the holder of an air operator certificate is unable to comply with paragraph (d) for the destination aerodrome, the aeroplane may be dispatched if an alternate aerodrome is designated that permits compliance with paragraphs (a), (b), and (c).


Question 7

what are the reporting requirements for operating within an MBZ ?

Answer 7

91. 135 Mandatory broadcast zones
    (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c), a pilot must not operate an aircraft within a mandatory broadcast zone designated under Part 71 unless that pilot—
    (1) makes the following broadcasts on the radio frequency assigned to the mandatory broadcast zone:
    (i) at entry - the aircraft call-sign, position and altitude, and the pilot’s intentions for flight within the mandatory broadcast zone; and
    (ii) when joining the aerodrome traffic circuit of an aerodrome within the mandatory broadcast zone – the aircraft call sign, position and altitude, and the pilot’s intentions:
    (iii) before entering a runway for take-off from an aerodrome within the mandatory broadcast zone – the aircraft call-sign, the runway to be used for take-off, and the pilot’s intentions for flight within the mandatory broadcast zone after take-off; and
    (iv) at any other time at least at the intervals prescribed for the mandatory broadcast zone – the aircraft call-sign, position and altitude, and the pilot’s intentions for flight within the mandatory broadcast zone; and
    (2) maintains a listening watch on the radio frequency assigned to the mandatory broadcast zone; and
    (3) activates, if equipped, the aircraft’s landing lights or anti-collision lights.
    (b) Pilots of aircraft information may operate within a mandatory broadcast zone without complying with paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2), but only if-
    (1) all the pilots of the aircraft in formation comply with paragraph (a)(3); and
    (2) the pilot of the lead aircraft complies with paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2).
    (c) A pilot-in-command of an aircraft without an operable radio may operate within a mandatory broadcast zone for the purpose of enabling repairs to be made to that radio, but only if-
    (1) the pilot-in-command complies with paragraph (a)(3); and
    (2) if practicable, the pilot-in-command arranges for another person to make the broadcasts required in paragraph (a)(1) on the pilot’s behalf.
    (d) The pilot-in-command of a parachute-drop aircraft intending to drop a parachutist within or into a mandatory broadcast zone must make a broadcast on the radio frequency assigned to the mandatory broadcast zone stating the aircraft call-sign, position, altitude, and the intentions of the person making the parachute descent before authorising that person to exit the aircraft to make the parachute descent.

Question 8

to carry dive bottle on board an aircraft what must be complied with ? DG Regulation

Answer 8

they need to be empty (?)

Question 9

an operator wishes to extend a flight up to 9 hours flight time and be completed at 10.30pm of a two crew operation. Is this allowed and what are the rest period requirements ?

Answer 9

because the pilot can’t rest between 10pm and 6am he gets 10 hours + 1 hour every 15 min in excess of 8 hours flight time. he di 9hours which is 1 hour in excess of 8 hours so 60min/15min= 4 hours + 10 hrs = 14 hours rest period

122.103
Subpart C – Flight and Duty Time Limitations — One or Two Pilot Flight Crew

(paraphrased version by me)
A pilot should not exceed 8 hours of Flight Time in one Tour of Duty.
the pilot may exceed 8 hours flight time and extend the Flight Time to 9 hours if:
- he has a minimum rest period of 9 hours between 10pm and 6am + 1 hour every 15min in excess of 8 hours flight time , OR

if he can’t rest between 10pm and 6am, he must take 10 hours of rest + 1 hour every 15min in excess of 8hrs flight time

Question 10

during flight in controlled airspace, an aeroplane engine start to run extremely rough and will not respond to control inputs. What should the transponder be set to?

Answer 10

7700 for in flight emergency

91.249

Question 11

the radio has been quiet for sometime and there is no answer to your radio calls, what is the applicable transponder code ?

Answer 11

7600

91.249

Question 12

for a local flight with regular clients that are very familiar with your airplane is a pax briefing required ?

Answer 12

is not required if the pilot-in-command determines that all the passengers are familiar with the contents of the briefing

91. 211 Passenger briefing
    (a) A person operating an aircraft carrying passengers must ensure that each passenger has been briefed on—
    (1) the conditions under which smoking is permitted; and
    (2) the requirement under 91.121 that any tray table, foot rest, and in-flight entertainment equipment must be stowed during take-off and landing; and
    (3) the occupation of seats and wearing of restraints required under 91.207; and
    (4) the location and means for opening the passenger entry doors and emergency exits; and

(5) when required to be carried by this Part—
(i) the location of survive
(ii) al and emergency equipment for passenger use; and
(iii) the use of flotation equipment required under 91.525 for a flight over water; and
(iv) the normal and emergency use of oxygen equipment installed in the aircraft for passenger use; and

(6) procedures in the case of an emergency landing; and
(7) the use of portable electronic devices in accordance with 91.7.
(b) The briefing required under paragraph (a)—
(1) must be given by the pilot-in-command, a member of the crew, a person nominated by the operator, or by a recorded presentation; and
(2) must, for flights above FL 250, include a demonstration on the use of supplemental oxygen equipment; and
(3) must, include a demonstration on the use of life preservers when required to be carried under 91.525; and
(4) must include a statement, as appropriate, that Civil Aviation Rules require passenger compliance with lighted passenger signs and crew member instructions; and

(5) may be supplemented by printed cards for the use of each passenger containing—
(i) diagrams of, and methods of operating the emergency exits; and
(ii) other instructions necessary for the use of emergency equipment for use by passengers; and

(6) is not required if the pilot-in-command determines that all the passengers are familiar with the contents of the briefing.

(c) Where printed cards are used in accordance with paragraph (b)(5), the operator must place them in convenient locations on the aircraft for the use of each passenger and ensure that they contain information that is pertinent only to the type and model of aircraft on which they are carried.

Question 13

a passenger occupying the front right seat of an aeroplane involved in an air operation that is in level flight requests to fly the aeroplane. is this allowed and under what circumstances ?

Answer 13

no

Question 14

under what circumstances may an aircraft be operated below 10000ft and at an indicated airspeed above 250 kts ?

Answer 14

91. 237 Aircraft speed
    (a) A pilot shall not operate an aircraft at an indicated speed of more than 250 kts below an altitude of 10 000 feet AMSL when that aircraft is operated in Class F airspace.

Question 15

may passengers be carried on a sight seeing charter operation by a pilot and he has an instructor rating ?

Answer 15

having an instructor rating implies having a CPL so YES

91. 105 Special category airworthiness certificates – operating limitations
    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), no person shall operate an aircraft that has a special category airworthiness certificate for the carriage of persons, or goods, for hire or reward.
    (b) Paragraph (a) does not apply to a person operating an aircraft for the carriage of persons for hire and reward when the person being carried is—
    (1) the holder of a flight instructor rating issued under Part 61; and
    (2) giving conversion instruction to the operator.
    (c) Except in the case of take-off and landing, no person shall operate an aircraft that has a special category airworthiness certificate over a congested area of a city, town, or settlement, unless the aircraft has been authorised to do so by the Director in writing.
    (d) A person operating an aircraft that has a special category airworthiness certificate must advise each person carried in the aircraft of the category of airworthiness certificate held and the significance of that category.

Question 16

what are the correct right of way rules for :

1. an aircraft overtaking another one
2. two aircraft converging head on
3. an aircraft with another aeroplane approaching from the left
4. two taxing aircraft that are converging

Answer 16

1. must overtake to the right
2. must both turn to the right
3. the approaching aircraft from the left gives the way to the plane to his right
4. both must turn right
5. 229 Right-of-way rules
   (a) Right-of-Way. A pilot of an aircraft—

(1) shall, when weather conditions permit, regardless of whether the flight is performed under IFR or under VFR, maintain a visual lookout so as to see and avoid other aircraft; and
(2) that has the right of way, shall maintain heading and speed, but shall not be relieved from the responsibility of taking such action, including collision- avoidance manoeuvres based on resolution advisories provided by A C A S equipment, that will best avert collision; and
(3) that is obliged to give way to another aircraft, shall avoid passing over, under, or in front of the other aircraft, unless passing well clear of the aircraft, taking into account the effect of wake turbulence.

(b) Approaching Head-On. A pilot of an aircraft shall, when approaching another aircraft
head-on, or nearly so, alter heading to the right.

(c) Aircraft Converging. A pilot of an aircraft that is converging at approximately the same altitude with another aircraft that is to its right, shall give way, except that the pilot operating—

(1) a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders, and
balloons; and

(2) an airship shall give way to gliders and balloons; and
(3) a glider shall give way to balloons; and
(4) a power-driven aircraft shall give way to aircraft that are towing other aircraft or objects; and

(5) all aircraft shall give way to parachutes.
Overtaking Aircraft. A pilot of an aircraft that is overtaking another aircraft shall, if a

(d) turn is necessary to avoid that aircraft, alter heading to the right, until it is entirely past and clear of the other aircraft.
(e) For the purpose of paragraph (d), an overtaking aircraft is an aircraft that approaches another from the rear on a line forming less than 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
(f) Landing aircraft. A pilot of an aircraft in flight or on the surface shall—
(1) give way to any aircraft that is on final approach to land or is landing; and
(2) when the aircraft is one of two or more heavier-than-air aircraft approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of landing, give way to the aircraft at the lower altitude; and
(3) not take advantage of right-of-way under subparagraph
(2) to pass in front of another aircraft, which is on final approach to land, or overtake that aircraft.

(g) Taking-Off. A pilot of an aircraft shall not take-off if there is an apparent risk of
collision with another aircraft.

(h) Taxiing. A pilot of an aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall—
(1) give way to aircraft landing, taking-off, or about to take-off; and
(2) when two aircraft are approaching head on, or nearly so, stop or, where practicable, alter course to the right so as to keep well clear of the other aircraft; and
(3) when two aircraft are on a converging course, give way to other aircraft on the pilot’s right; and
(4) when overtaking another aircraft, give way and keep well clear of the aircraft being overtaken.
(i) Aircraft in Distress. A pilot of an aircraft shall give way to any aircraft that is in distress.

Question 17

what are the correct altimeter settings for an aircraft operating at or below 20000ft

Answer 17

when operating at or below 20 000 feet, set altimeter to the appropriate area QNH zone or aerodrome QNH altimeter setting;

91. 239 Altimeter settings
    (a) A pilot of an aircraft must maintain the cruising altitude or flight level of the aircraft by reference to an altimeter that is set in accordance with the following—

(1) when operating at or above flight level 210, set altimeter to 1013.2 hPa; and
(2) when operating at or below 20 000 feet, set altimeter to the appropriate area QNH zone or aerodrome QNH altimeter setting; and
(3) when operating between 20 000 feet and flight level 210, set altimeter to the appropriate area QNH zone setting as advised by ATC.
(b) A pilot of an aircraft that is ascending or descending must—
(1) when ascending above 20 000 feet, set the altimeter to 1013.2 hPa; and
(2) when descending through flight level 210, set the altimeter to the appropriate area QNH zone or aerodrome QNH altimeter setting.

Question 18

an aircraft is ascending from below 20000ft to flight level 230. When and to what should the altimeter be set ?

Answer 18

when ascending above 20 000 feet, set the altimeter to 1013.2 hPa;

91.239

Question 19

what is the meaning of light signals from the tower for aircraft on the ground and in the air?
1. flashing green
2. steady red
3 flashig red

Answer 19

1. in the air - return for landing
   on the ground - clear to taxi
2. in the air - give way to other aircraft
   on the ground - stop
3. in the air - do not land
   on the ground - taxi clear of landing area

91.243

Question 20

what are the requirements to operate in designated danger areas and restricted areas ?

Answer 20

91. 129 Restricted danger and prohibited areas
    (a) A pilot must not operate an aircraft within a restricted area designated under Part 71 unless that pilot-
    (1) has the approval of the administering authority responsible for the restricted area to operate within that area; and
    (2) complies with any conditions promulgated for operation within the restricted area; and
    (3) complies with any conditions imposed by the administering authority for operation within the restricted area.
    (b) A pilot must not operate an aircraft within a danger area designated under Part 71 unless that pilot has determined that the activity associated with the danger area will not affect the safety of the aircraft.
    (c) A pilot must not operate an aircraft within a prohibited area designated under Part 71.

Question 21

what are the reporting requirements for VFR flights ?

Answer 21

91. 309 Position reports
    (a) Each pilot-in-command of an aircraft on a VFR flight shall report the position of the aircraft to ATS-
    (1) at least every 30 minutes; or
    (2) at the times or reporting points required by ATS.
    (b) Each pilot-in-command shall advise ATS of a revised ETA when the estimated ETA to the next reporting point notified to ATS is found to be in error by more than 2 minutes.

Question 22

a person wishes to conduct a flight below 500ft AGL for photography purposes. is this legal and can his son come along for the ride?

Answer 22

91.311
(…)
(c) Paragraph (a)(2) does not apply to a pilot-in-command of an aircraft if the bona fide purpose of the flight requires the aircraft to be flown at a height lower than that prescribed in paragraph (a)(2), but only if—

(1) the flight is performed without hazard to persons or property on the surface; and
(2) only persons performing an essential function associated with the flight are carried; and
(3) the aircraft is not flown at a height lower than that required for the purpose of the flight; and
(4) the horizontal distance that the aircraft is flown from any obstacle, person, vessel, vehicle, or structure, is not less than that necessary for the purpose of the flight, except that in the case of an aeroplane, the aeroplane remains outside a horizontal radius of 150 metres of any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure that is not associated with the operation.

135.83
in addition to the requirements of 91.311(c), ensures that every passenger receives additional briefing or training in safety and emergency procedures appropriate to the characteristics of the operation; and


Question 23

three hunters and their firearms are to be carried in an aeroplane. is this allowed and if so under what circumstances?

Answer 23

91.9
(…)

(c) A firearm may be carried in an aircraft if-

(1) the firearm-
(i) is stowed in a place that is inaccessible during flight to every person that is not a crew member.
(ii) is disabled; or

(2) the aircraft is being used solely for the carriage of the person or group of persons associated with the firearm; and-
(i) the operator permits the carriage of the firearms; and (ii) the firearm is disabled; or

(3)the aircraft is carrying livestock and the operator considers it may be necessary to immobilise livestock for the safety of the aircraft or its occupants; or

(4) the aircraft is being used for the purpose of shooting or immobilising animals on the ground if-
(i) the firearm is not loaded until the aircraft is in the area within which the firearm is intended to be discharged; and
(ii) the aircraft carries only those persons performing an essential function associated with the operation of the aircraft or the shooting or immobilisation of animals on the ground.

Question 24

in class E airspace below 10000ft is separation required between IFR and VFR flights and what is the required flight visibility ?

Answer 24

71.105 Class C airspace
The Director shall classify as class C airspace that controlled airspace where the Director considers it necessary in the interests of aviation safety that—

(1) separation is required between—
(i) IFR flights; and
(ii) IFR and VFR flights; and
(iii) IFR and special VFR flights; and
(iv) special VFR flights; and

(2) traffic information is required for VFR flights about other VFR flights; and
(3) traffic avoidance advice is required for VFR flights on request.

91.301
5km vis below 10000ft AMSL

Question 25

what is the minimum type experience required to conduct and air operation in a single engine aeroplane? does this need to be performed on the same basic type or a similar type of aircraft?

Answer 25

135.505
Pilot-in-command consolidation of operating experience on type

(a) A holder of an air operator certificate must ensure that before designating a pilot to act as a pilot-in- command of an aircraft on an air operation conducted under the authority of the certificate, the pilot has completed the following consolidation of operating experience, on the make and basic mode of the aircraft:
(1) for a single engine aircraft, 5 hours flight time and 5 take-offs and landings;

Question 26

using the AIP plate for Port Moresby what is the actual magnetic bearing and elevation at the threshold of runway 32 right ?

Answer 26

128ft at threshold
322º magnetic

check plate VOR/DME RWY32R

Question 27

for operations over the Port Moresby city area what is the altitude limitation and circumstances for operations below this altitude ?

Answer 27

93. 57 Noise abatement procedures
    (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), a pilot-in-command shall not fly below an altitude of 2500 feet QNH over any congested area of Port Moresby City.
    (b) Paragraph (a) shall not apply to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft if—
    (1) it is essential for the aircraft to be flown below 2500 feet AGL for the proper accomplishment of the operation; and
    (2) that aircraft has a MCTOW of 5700kg or less.

Question 28

during the refuelling of an aircraft AVGAS is spilt. What is the correct procedure to be followed?

Answer 28

135.75 Fuel Spillage

The certificate holder shall ensure that while refuelling or de-fuelling, where fuel is spilled onto an impermeable surface and is likely to endanger persons or property—

(1) refuelling or de-fuelling is stopped; and

(2)immediate action is taken to cover the fuel with sand, sawdust, dry earth, or an agent such as foam or dry chemical extinguisher powder, to reduce the fire hazard.


Question 29

in what document would you find the declared take off distance for Madang?

• part 93
• part 139
• AIP
• ALA

Answer 29

AIP

Question 30

what are the correct cruising levels for a VFR aircraft tracking 110º above 3000ft?

Answer 30

5000ft

91. 313 VFR cruising altitude and flight level
    (a) Each pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating within the Port Moresby FIR under VFR in level cruising flight at more than 3000 feet above the surface shall, unless otherwise authorised by ATC, maintain the following altitude or flight levels when operating at or below 20 000 feet AMSL—
    (1) on a magnetic track of 000° clockwise to 179°, any odd thousand foot altitude AMSL; or
    (2) on a magnetic track of 180° clockwise to 359°, any even thousand foot altitude AMSL; and
    (b) Each pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating within the Port Moresby FIR under VFR shall not operate at any level above 20 000 feet AMSL unless otherwise authorised by ATC.

Question 31

under what different circumstances may a person be carried that is under the influence of drug or alcohol ?

Answer 31

where an operation is conducted for the purpose of search and rescue or is an air ambulance operation

135. 67 Passenger safety
     (a) The certificate holder shall ensure that—
     (1) any passenger who appears to be under the influence of alcohol or drugs or exhibits behavioural characteristics, to the extent where the safety of the aircraft or its occupants is likely to be endangered, is refused embarkation or, where appropriate, removed from the aircraft; and
     (b) Notwithstanding (a)(1), where an operation is conducted for the purpose of search and rescue or is an air ambulance operation, passengers may be carried who are under the influence of alcohol or drugs or exhibit behavioural characteristics to the extent where the safety of the aircraft or its occupants is likely to be endangered, provided that reasonable action is taken by the operator to minimise the risk to the aircraft and its occupants from such passengers.

Question 32

what three aircraft documents are to be carried during a domestic aircraft operations ?

Answer 32

aircraft flight manual
tech log
w&b
radio license

91.110 Documents to be carried

A person must not operate an aircraft unless the following documents are carried in the aircraft—

(1) except if 91.101(c) applies, the current airworthiness certificate or certified copy of the current airworthiness certificate; and
(2) the aircraft flight manual or an equivalent document acceptable to the Director.

(3) for Papua New Guinea registered aircraft:
(i) the technical log required under 91.619, unless for aircraft operating under an air operator certificate from a fixed base, an alternative means acceptable to the Director is used to inform the pilot of the maintenance status of the aircraft:
(ii) a completed form CAA 2173 Weight and Balance Data or equivalent:
(iii) a completed from CAA 2129 Aircraft Radio Station Equipment Approval Levels:
(iv) the flight crew member licence or certified copy of the crew member licence

Question 33

can a pilot change the tire of an aircraft at a remote aerodrome? if so what are the requirements ?

Answer 33

43.51 / Appendix A
(…)
(b)A person who holds a pilot licence with an appropriate rating issued under Part 61 may perform the maintenance listed in Appendix A if the licence holder is—
(1) appropriately trained and certified as competent by the holder of an appropriately rated aircraft maintenance engineer licence or an appropriate aviation maintenance specialist certificate; and
(2) authorised by the owner or operator of the aircraft.

Question 34

what duration does a medical certificate remain valid for a 35 years old pilot conducting an air operation ?

Answer 34

67. 57 Duration of medical certificate
    (a) Subject to paragraph (d), a Class 1 medical certificate may be issued for a period not longer than:
    (1) 12 months, where the applicant is less than 40 years of age on the date that the medical certificate is issued:
    (b) Subject to paragraph (d), a Class 2 medical certificate shall be issued for periods not longer than:
    (1) 24 months, where the applicant is less than 40 years of age on the date that the medical certificate is issued:

Question 35

what are the requirements for the period in which a non tour pilots log book is to be filled in ?

Answer 35

61.29 Pilot Logbooks General Requirements

All entries in a pilot’s logbook must be made within 7 days after the completion of the flight to be recorded except—

(1) for international air transport operations, in which case all entries must be made within 14 days of the flight;
(2) if a pilot is engaged in operations away from the base where the logbook would normally be kept, logbook entries must be made within 48 hours after return to base;
(3) if the pilot is engaged in on tour operations in Papua New Guinea and the logbook is normally kept at his place of domicile in which case all entries must be made within 7 days of return to that place of domicile.

Question 36

what are the standards passengers weight for an air operation ?

Answer 36

135.303
(…)
(3) the following applicable standard weight for every passenger:
(i) 15 kg for a child under 2 years of age;
(ii) 46 kg for a child of the age of 2 years and under the age of 13 years;
(iii) 86 kg for a person of or over the age of 13 years.

Question 37

what are the approved equivalent ways of satisfying the requirements of a Biennial Flight Review ?

Answer 37

if a pilot with a single engine instrument rating renews a multi engine instrument rating the MEIR will cover the SEIR (i guess this is the answer but couldn’t find any reference)

Question 38

define the minimum runway width for a Part 135 air operation?

Answer 38

less than 800m = 18m
800m or more = 23m

135.77

Question 39

cancelling VFR flight plan when ?

• within 1 hour of the termination of the flight
• when you are 20 miles out from your destination
• by some other person
• the circuit area

Answer 39

Common sense tells me the Circuit Area but I couldn’t find any reference

you can cancel a VFR flight plan at any time during your flight since VFR flight plan are not mandatory unless flying in CTR. The point of a flight plan is for search and rescue so cancelling a flight plan at 1 hr to go or 20 nm to go it would be silly since we don’t know what can happen within this time or distance.

Question 40

you are the pilot in command of a VFR equipped aircraft, you notice that the cloud ahead is Broken however you will not be over this for more than 15min, can you continue this flight to your destination?

Answer 40

the pilot cannot continue since the aircraft is only equipped for VFR

135.155 Meteorological conditions — VFR flight
(…)
(b) A pilot-in-command shall not conduct a flight under VFR in an aircraft above more than broken cloud unless—
(1) the aircraft is authorised for IFR flight and the required minimum flight crew for IFR operation, holding current instrument rating qualifications, is performing the operation;
and
(2) the instruments and equipment, including radio navigation equipment, required for IFR flight are operative; and
(3) the aircraft carries radio navigation equipment enabling it to be navigated by IFR to an aerodrome where an instrument approach procedure may be carried out for landing; and
(4) if the pilot-in-command cannot determine that the meteorological conditions at the destination aerodrome are suitable for an approach and landing under VFR, the aircraft carries sufficient fuel and fuel reserves to proceed under IFR to an aerodrome where an instrument approach procedure may be carried out for landing.

Question 41

when as PIC can you ignore an airways clearance given by ATC ?

Answer 41

in case of emergency

Question 42

you are locate at an airport away from an approved Medical examiner and you need to arrange for an extension of your medical certificate, how can you do this?

a. in writing to the director
b. by telephone
c. in writing to the principal examiner
d. wait until you can get back to Port Moresby and then revalidate

Answer 42

c. in writing to the principal examiner

67. 59 Extension of period
    (a) Where the holder of a current medical certificate is operating in an area distant from a Designated Aviation Medical Assessor, that person may apply in writing for an extension of the period of validity stated on the certificate.

Question 43

for VFR flight what is the minimum radio equipment required for a flight?

Answer 43

radio system to standard 1-2

Question 44

you are on a VFR flight HDG 110º MAG in the Port Moresby FIR at 3000ft, what is the correct altitude that you maintain?

a. odd thousand feet altitude
b. even thousand feet altitude
c. any altitude
d. odd thousand plus 500 feet

Answer 44

a. odd thousand feet altitude

91. 313 VFR cruising altitude and flight level
    (a) Each pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating within the Port Moresby FIR under VFR in level cruising flight at more than 3000 feet above the surface shall, unless otherwise authorised by ATC, maintain the following altitude or flight levels when operating at or below 20 000 feet AMSL—
    (1) on a magnetic track of 000° clockwise to 179°, any odd thousand foot altitude AMSL; or
    (2) on a magnetic track of 180° clockwise to 359°, any even thousand foot altitude AMSL; and
    (b) Each pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating within the Port Moresby FIR under VFR shall not operate at any level above 20 000 feet AMSL unless otherwise authorised by ATC.

Question 45

you hold a CPL License and wish to conduct a flight at night in a C172, the currency requirement of 3 take offs and landings,

a. must be in the same aircraft type as you wish to conduct the flight
b. need not be in the same aircraft type
c. must be a proficiency check with a person approved by the director
d. no requirements, you can conduct this flight without any restrictions

Answer 45

the correct answer is B.
Since there is no carry of passengers there is no need for the recency to be in the same aircraft type

61. 37 Recent flight experience
    (c) Airline Transport Pilot, Commercial pilot, private pilot – night flight: A person who holds a pilot licence in any of the above categories must not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft on an air operation at night and a person who holds an airline transport pilot licence, or a commercial pilot licence or a private pilot licence must not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying a passenger at night,unless (subject to paragraph (g), within the immediately preceding 90days,—

(1) the person has carried out (as pilot-in-command of an aircraft or an approved synthetic flight trainer of the same type) not less than 3 take-offs and 3 landings during the night; or
(2) the person has satisfactorily demonstrated to an appropriately qualified Category A or B flight instructor competence intake-off and landing manoeuvres during the night in an aircraft of the same type.

Question 46

class C airspace separation IFR/VFR ?

Answer 46

71.105 Class C airspace
The Director shall classify as class C airspace that controlled airspace where the Director considers it necessary in the interests of aviation safety that—

(1) separation is required between—
(i) IFR flights; and
(ii) IFR and VFR flights; and
(iii) IFR and special VFR flights; and
(iv) special VFR flights; and

(2) traffic information is required for VFR flights about other VFR flights; and
(3) traffic avoidance advice is required for VFR flights on request.

Question 47

when can you as PIC exceed 250kt below 10000ft?

a. above 5700kg MTOW
b. below 5700kg MTOW
c. when the aircraft is being operating at an aviation event

Answer 47

c. when the aircraft is being operating at an aviation event
91. 237 Aircraft speed
(a) A pilot shall not operate an aircraft at an indicated speed of more than 250 kts below an altitude of 10 000 feet AMSL when that aircraft is operated in Class F airspace.
(b) A pilot shall not operate an aircraft below 1500 feet above aerodrome elevation and within 5 km of that aerodrome at an indicated speed of more than 200 kts when that aircraft is operated in Class F airspace.
(c) Paragraph (a) and (b) shall not apply when—
(1) the minimum safe speed of the aircraft prescribed in the flight manual is more than the prescribed speed limitation and the aircraft is operated at that minimum safe speed; or
(2) the minimum speed specified for a procedure for flight under IFR is more than the prescribed speed limitation; or
(3) the aircraft is being operated at an aviation event in accordance with 91.703.

Question 48

when can dangerous good be carried with passengers?

a. when IATA requirements are complied
b. PIC considers no risk
c. if approved by the Director
d. the chief pilot or operator says it’s ok

Answer 48

a. when IATA requirements are complied

92. 157

Question 49

to land at an airport with a narrow runway width, it should be:

a. at least twice the outer main gear span with
b. a minimum of 18 meters width
c. as long as the runway is less than 800m
d. by certified flight test and the lesser width is acceptable to the director

Answer 49

d. by certified flight test and the lesser width is acceptable to the director

135.77f
(f) Notwithstanding paragraphs (d) and (e), a certificate holder may use a lesser minimum runway width than that prescribed in paragraph (d) or (e) for an aeroplane type if—
(1) a lesser minimum runway width determined by certificated flight testing is prescribed in the aeroplane’s flight manual; or
(2) a lesser minimum runway with is accepted by the Director

Question 50

the use of Portable Electric Devices during the critical stages of flight in PNG registered aircraft is:

a. only applies to RPT aircraft
b. does not apply to VFR
c. IFR only
d. applies to all electrical devices, electric shavers and portable voice recorder

Answer 50

c. IFR only

91.7 Portable electronic devices
(a) No person may operate, nor may any operator or pilot-in-command of an aircraft allow the operation of, any cellphone or other portable electronic device that is designed to transmit electromagnetic energy, on any aircraft while that aircraft is operating under IFR.
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c), no person may operate, nor may any operator or pilot- in- command of an aircraft allow the operation of, any portable electronic device on any aircraft flying under IFR during an instrument approach or departure procedure or during any other critical phase of flight.
(c) Paragraph (b) does not apply to-
(1) hearing aids;
(2) heart pacemakers;
(3) portable voice recorders;
(4) electric shavers;
(5) electronic watches; or
(6)any other portable electronic device if the operator of the aircraft has determined that the portable electronic device to be operated will not cause interference with any aircraft system or equipment in the aircraft on which it is operated.(d)
In the case of-
(1) an aircraft being operated on air operations, the determination required by paragraph (c)(6) shall be made by that operator of the aircraft on which the particular device is to be used; and
(2) any other aircraft, the determination required by paragraph (c)(6) may be made by the pilot-in-command or the operator of the aircraft on which the particular device is to be used.

Question 51

you are located away from your home airport, on returning how many days have you got to log the flight time in your logbook ?

a. 24hours
b. 48hours
c. within 7 days, if you were away from home than 5 days
d. not restrictions

Answer 51

b. 48 hours

61. 29 g (2)
    (2) if a pilot is engaged in operations away from the base where the logbook would normally be kept, logbook entries must be made within 48 hours after return to base;

Question 52

after initial contact with ATC and in receipt of an airways clearance when can the pilot of a PNG registered aircraft diverge from this clearance ?

Answer 52

91. 241 Compliance with ATC clearance and Instructions
    (a) A pilot of an aircraft operating in a control area or control zone designated under Part 71 must—
    (1) except when manoeuvring in accordance with an ACAS resolution advisory or a GPWS or TAWS alert, comply with any ATC clearance or instruction issued by the ATC unit responsible for the control area or control zone; and
    (2) when a deviation from an ATC clearance or instruction is required for the safe operation of the aircraft, notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.
    (b) A pilot of an aircraft need not comply with an ATC clearance or instruction if compliance would cause the pilot to endanger the safe outcome of the flight.
    (c) A pilot of an aircraft who elects not to comply with an ATC clearance or instruction under paragraph (b) must immediately notify the appropriate ATC unit of the non-compliance.

Question 53

when as PIC of a PNG registered aircraft can you use an abbreviation call sign with ATC?

a. under no circumstances full registration must be used at all times
b. must use the approved telephony designator of the aircraft operating agency
c. must use the approved telephony designator of the aircraft operating agency followed by the last three letters
d. after establishing two ways communication with the ATS unit

Answer 53

d. after establishing two ways communication with the ATS unit

91. 251 Aircraft callsigns
    b) Notwithstanding (a)(2), the pilot-in-command may, after establishing two-way communication with an appropriate ATS unit, use an abbreviated callsign consisting of the last three letters of the aircraft registration marking.

Question 54

when can you conduct low flying below 2500 feet over the city of Port Moresby?
a. aircraft is above 5700kg
b aircraft is below 5700kg
c. when operationally required

Answer 54

c. when operationally required

91. 237 Aircraft speed
    (a) A pilot shall not operate an aircraft at an indicated speed of more than 250 kts below an altitude of 10 000 feet AMSL when that aircraft is operated in Class F airspace.

(b) A pilot shall not operate an aircraft below 1500 feet above aerodrome elevation and within 5 km of that aerodrome at an indicated speed of more than 200 kts when that aircraft is operated in Class F airspace.
(c) Paragraph (a) and (b) shall not apply when—
(1) the minimum safe speed of the aircraft prescribed in the flight manual is more than the prescribed speed limitation and the aircraft is operated at that minimum safe speed; or
(2) the minimum speed specified for a procedure for flight under IFR is more than the prescribed speed limitation; or
(3) the aircraft is being operated at an aviation event in accordance with 91.703.

Question 55

you have collected the same passengers before and they are familiar with the passenger brief for your aircraft , is it a requirement to give the complete take off briefing again?

a. yes, always required
b. no, as they are familiar with the briefing already
c. yes, but only an abbreviated briefing required
d. yes, check printed emergency cards

Answer 55

b. no, as they are familiar with the briefing already

91.211 Passenger briefing
(…)
(b)The briefing required under paragraph (a)—
(…)
(6) is not required if the pilot-in-command determines that all the passengers are familiar with the contents of the briefing.

Question 56

if after landing as PIC you notice a defect what is the best way to inform all pilots and the operator of the defects?

a. phone the chief pilot or operator
b. leave a note in the aircraft
c. make a note in the aircraft technical log
d. get the aircraft mechanic or operator to make a note in the technical log

Answer 56

c. make a note in the aircraft technical log (?)