Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PMHNP Boards > Modules 1-5 > Flashcards

Modules 1-5 Flashcards

1
Q

Hypertensive crisis is life-threatening and cannot be reversed unless more MAO is produced by the body: True or False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a hypertensive crisis?

A

Hypertensive crisis occurs when MAOIs are taken in conjunction with foods containing tyramine, a dietary precursor to norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hypertensive crisis and death also can occur when MAOIs are taken in conjunction with certain medications. What is a specific medication that can cause this?

A

Stimulants and other sympathomimetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Symptoms of HTN crisis. Just read

A

a. Elevated BP
b. Sudden, explosive-like headache, usually in occipital region
c. Facial flushing
d. Palpitations
e. Pupillary dilation
f. Diaphoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Treatment for HTN crisis

A

a. D/C the offending agent
b. Administer PHENTOLAMINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Teratogenic risks: Benzos

A

a. floppy baby syndrome
b. cleft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Teratogenic risks: Depakote/Carbamazepine

A

Neural Tube defect
(Spina bifida for Depakote)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Teratogenic risks: Lithium

A

Ebstein anomaly (especially in the first trimester)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What age should you check in women for mood stabilizers? And why?

A

Check pregnancy status before starting females of childbearing age (12-51) on a mood stabilizer - Mood stabilizers increase risk of neural tube defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What should you encourage if a woman is taking a mood stabilizer? And why?

A

Encourage Folic Acid (0.4-0.8mg qd) if taking mood stabilizers
This supports neural tube development during the first month that a woman is pregnant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

a. Low BMI
b. Amenorrhea
c. Emaciation (abnormally thin)
d. Bradycardia
e. Hypotension

A

Anorexia symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Main treatment for anorexia?

A

Therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Recurrent, episodic binge eating
a. Weight usually withing normal range (BMI)
b. Russel’s sign
c. Rectal prolapse
d. Erosion of dental enamel

A

Main symptoms for Bulimia?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Scarring or calluses on the dorsum of the hand, secondary to self induced vomiting

A

Russell’s sign?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What medication to consider for chronic neuropathic pain and depression?

A

SNRI such as Cymbalta – duloxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Medication FDA approved for Bulimia?

A

fluoxetine (Prozac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mnemonic for Inducers

A

BullShit CRAP GPS- Induces my rage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Inducer Medications- Just read and memorize

A

Barbiturates,
St. John,
Carbamazepine,
Rifampin,
Alcohol,
Phenytoin,

Griseofulvin,
Phenobarbital,
Sulfonylureas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Other inducers include

A

Cigarette smoking and Oral contraceptives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mnemonic for Inhibitors

A

SICKFACES.COM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Inhibitor Medications- Just read and memorize

A

Sodium Valproate,
Isoniazid,
Cimetidine,
Ketoconazole,
Fluconazole,
Alcohol,
Chloramphenicol,
Erythromycin,
Sulfonamide,

Ciprofloxacin,
Omeprazole,
Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What drug is an atypical antipsychotic drug that is metabolized to a major extent by the CYP450 enzyme CYP1A2?

A

Clozapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where is acetylcholine synthesized in?

A

Basal of Meynart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is GABA?

A

It is a universal inhibitory neurotransmitter and it’s
MOST ABUNDANT INHIBITORY NEUROTRANSMITTER IN THE BRAIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is in the amygdala, hippocampus & locus of coeruleus and INCREASES anxiety

A

Neuropeptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is produced in the adrenal glands?

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Increased levels of corticotrophin releasing hormone in the amygdala, hippocampus and locus coeruleus increases what?

A

Increases symptoms of anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Sensorimotor information exchange between the two hemispheres.
Both hemispheres connected by the Corpus Callosum.

A

What is the Cerebellum function?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

largest and most developed lobe (language expression)
-executive functions (memory, understanding language, problem solving, emotions, behavioral control, decision making)

A

What is the frontal lobe function?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where is the Broca’s area located and what does it do?

A

a. Located in the frontal lobe
b. Function: Expressive speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the Limbic System focuses on?

A

Emotions and memories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

This part of the brain is in charge of:
a. Appetite
b. Sensations of hunger/thirst,
c. Water balance,
d. Circadian rhythms
e. Body temp,
f. libido
g. hormonal regulation

A

Hypothalamus
(A hungry hippo needs to eat and sleep after sex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Regulates emotions, memory and related affective behaviors

A

What does the Thalamus regulate?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The Thalamus contains 5HT2A. What is that?

A

5HT2A makes an antipsychotic atypical and LESS likely to cause EPS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The Hippocampus regulates memory: True or false

A

True: It regulates memory and converts short-term memory into long-term memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Nigrostriatal pathway: What does the blockage of D2 receptors lead to?
What is decreased D2 lead to?

A

a. Can lead to EPS (dystonia, parkinsonian symptoms and akathisia)
b. Decreased D2 = increased Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Tardive Dyskinesia- First line of treatment is Cogentin: True or false

A

False: It can worsen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Tardive Dyskinesia- Reglan (metoclopramide) can cause TD: True or False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What medication to use with Tardive Dyskinesia?

A

Tetrabenazine and VMAT-2 inhibitors (Ingrezza)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What type of medications can worsen both depression and mania?

A

Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Risk factors for Serotonin Discontinuation Syndrome? (just read)

A

a. Medications with a short ½ life
b. Abrupt discontinuation
c. Non-compliance
d. High dose range
e. Long-term treatment
f. Prior hx of discontinuation syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Do you stop serotonin medications if a patient has serotonin discontinuation syndrome?

A

Don’t D/C SSRI, TCA, MAOI abruptly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

This disease has acute onset that causes short-term changes in cognition, ALOC, and inattention.

A

Delirium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

One year mortality rate of clients with delirium is how much?

A

Up to 40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Treatment for Delirium

A

a. Haldol
b. AVOID benzos unless the patient is at risk and has not
responded to Haldol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What type of dementia affect language and memory?

A

Cortical Dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What type of dementia effects depression, apathy, and motor symptoms?

A

Subcortical Dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

This disease has a gradual onset / progressive decline.

A

Alzheimers Dementia
This does not have focal neurological deficits (problems with nerve, spinal cord or brain function)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the second most common dementia?

A

Vascular Dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

a. Carotid bruits
b. Fundoscopic abnormalities
c. Enlarges cardiac chambers

A

Hallmarks for Vascular Dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Subcortical Dementia is:

A

HIV Dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

AVOID Benzos in patients with delirium if at all possible in most patients with dementia as they are particularly vulnerable to their adverse effects such as sedation, falls and delirium

A

Just read

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Decreasing new cases
- prevention

A

Primary Prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

-Early case finding
- Screening

A

Secondary prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Avoid or postpone complications (rehabilitative services)
- ALREADY HAS
- Key word: rehabilitation

A

Tertiary Prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The tendency of some regions of the brain to react to repeated low-level bioelectrical stimulation by progressively boosting synaptic discharges, thereby lowering seizure thresholds.

A

Kindling Definition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Compulsive substance use despite harmful consequence.

A

Addiction definition

58
Q

The amount of drug required to produce an effect of given intensity

A

Potency Definition

59
Q

The process of becoming less responsive to a particular drug over time. Decreased effects of the same dose of a medication over time

A

Tolerance Definition

60
Q

What is the criteria for ADHD

A

a. At least 5 symptoms per category in adults.
b. For children after 6 months but before 12 years, it has to be noticable in at least 2 different settings.

61
Q

ADHD: Abnormalities of frontal-subcortical pathways (2 pathways)

A

a. Frontal Cortex
b. Basal Ganglia-Abnormalities of the reticular activating system

62
Q

The development of specific deficits such as hand movement following a period of normal functioning after birth.

A

Rett’s Syndrome

63
Q

Rett’s Syndrome is common in both boys and girls: True or false

A

False: Primarily in girls

64
Q

Main symptom for Rett’s Syndrome?

A

Loss of purposeful hand skills
Stereotypic hand movements

65
Q

SIG E CAPS mnemonic- Depression

A

Sleep disturbances
Interest decreased
Guilt

Energy decreased

Concentration problems,
Appetite/weight changes, Psychomotor agitation,
SI

66
Q

NO HARM AGREEMENT is NOT a protective factor

A

Just read

67
Q

Olanzapine/Prozac combo drug: FDA approved for treatment of bipolar depression

A

Symbyax –

68
Q

Labs elevated in Alcohol Use Disorder

A

MCV
Total cholesterol
Triglycerides

69
Q

Unlike major depression, what is usually preserved in the grieving person

A

self-esteem

70
Q

Schizophrenia: Neurobiological defect, everything is decreased except?

A

The Ventricles

71
Q

Erikson Virtue- Trust vs Mistrust

A

Hope

72
Q

Erikson Virtue- Autonomy vs Shame

A

Will

73
Q

Erikson Virtue- Initiative vs Guilt

A

Purpose

74
Q

Erikson Virtue- Industry vs Inferiority

A

Competence

75
Q

Erikson Virtue- Identity vs Role confusion

A

Fidelity

76
Q

Erikson Virtue- Intimate vs Isolation

A

Love

77
Q

Erikson Virtue- Generativity vs Stagnation

A

Care

78
Q

Erikson Virtue- Integrity vs Despair

A

Wisdom

79
Q

Erikson Virtue Mnemonic

A

HoW PoCo FooL CoW

80
Q

Erikson
a. Ability to form meaningful relationships, hope about the future, trust in others
b. Faith in the environment

A

Trust vs Mistrust

81
Q

Erikson
a. Self-control, self-esteem, willpower
b. Sense of adequacy

A

Autonomy vs Shame/Doubt (Early childhood)

82
Q

Erikson’s
a. Self-directed behavior, goal formation, sense of purpose
b. Ability to be a “self-starter”, to initiate one’s own activities

A

Initiative vs Guilt (Late childhood)

83
Q

Erikson’s
a. Ability to work, sense of competency and achievement
b. Ability to lean how things work, to understand and organize

A

Industry vs Inferiority (School Age)

84
Q

Erikson’s
a. Personal sense of identity
b. Seeing oneself as a unique and integrated person

A

Identity vs Role Confusion (Adolescence)

85
Q

Erikson’s
a. Committed relationships, capacity to love
b. Unfavorable: inability to form affectionate relationships

A

Intimacy vs Isolation (Early Adulthood)

86
Q

Erikson’s
a. Committed relationships, capacity to love
b. Unfavorable: inability to form affectionate relationships

A

Generativity vs Stagnation (Middle Adulthood)

87
Q

Erikson’s
a. Fulfillment and comfort with life, willingness to face death, insight and balance life events.

A

Integrity vs Despair (Late Adulthood)

88
Q

The adolescent can reason abstractly and think in hypothetical terms.

A

Formal Operational (12 yr- Adult)

89
Q

The child can think logically about concrete objects and can thus ass/subtract. The child also understands conversation.

A

Concrete operational (7-12 years)

90
Q

The infant explores the world through direct sensory and motor contact. Object permanence and separation anxiety developed during this stage.

A

Sensorimotor (0-2 years)

91
Q

The child uses symbols (words and images) to represent objects but does not reason logically. The child also has the ability to pretend. During this stage, the child is egocentric.

A

Preoperational (2-6 years)

92
Q

Piaget’s
Object permanence-ability to know that objects continue to exist even though they can no longer be seen or heard

A

Sensorimotor

93
Q

Piaget’s
Start using language and symbols, able to use magical thinking
a. Sleep and dream about monsters
b. Imaginary thoughts

A

Preoperational

94
Q

Piaget’s
Able to understand concepts, like conservation & reversibility
a. Able to understand if you take a plastic cup and heat it, it can change shape but the properties remain the same

A

Concrete

95
Q

Piaget’s
Able to use logic
a. Able to do a science project and test a hypothesis o Can think abstractly
b. Can solve algebra

A

Formal

96
Q

Sigmund Freud’s- Oral Stage
a. Age
b. What happens during this stage?

A

a. 0-1 year old
b. Children derive pleasure from oral activities, including sucking and tasting. Put things in their mouth.

97
Q

Sigmund Freud’s- Anal Stage
a. Age
b. What happens during this stage?

A

a. 2-3 years
b. Children begin potty training

98
Q

Sigmund Freud’s- Phallic Stage
a. Age
b. What happens during this stage?

A

a. 3-6 years old
b. Boys are more attracted to mom and girls attracted to dad.

99
Q

Sigmund Freud’s- Latency Stage
a. Age
b. What happens during this stage?

A

a. 6 years old to puberty
b. Children spend more time and interact mostly with same sex peers.

100
Q

Sigmund Freud’s- Genital Stage
a. Age
b. What happens during this stage?

A

a. Beyond puberty.
b. Individuals are attracted to opposite sex peers

101
Q

The person has NO intention to change. The person is not aware that there is even a problem with their behavior

A

Transtheoretical Model of Change- Precontemplation stage

102
Q

Provide information and feedback to raise the person’s awareness of the problem and the possibility of change. Do not give prescriptive advice.

A

Precontemplation stage- Action step

103
Q

The person is thinking about changing.
The person is aware that there is a problem, but not committed to changing

A

Contemplation stage

104
Q

Help the person tip the balance in favor of change. Help the person see the benefits of changing and the consequences of not changing.

A

Contemplation stage- Action step

105
Q

The person has made the decision to change. The person is ready for action.

A

Preparation stage

106
Q

Help the person by asking “what are the steps in the plan that you have made”.
Help the person find a strategy that is realistic, acceptable,
accessible appropriate and effective .

A

Preparation stage- Action step

107
Q

The person in engaging in specific, overt actions to change

A

Action stage

108
Q

Support and be an advocate for the person. Help accomplish the steps for change .

A

Action Stage- Action Step

109
Q

The person is engaging in behaviors to prevent relapse

A

Maintenance stage

110
Q

Help the person identify the possibility of relapse and identify and use strategies to prevent relapse .

A

Maintenance Stage-Action Step

111
Q

What led to the relapse and what are your plans for getting past it and avoiding another relapse?
What keeps you from having another relapse?

A

Relapse stage: What questions to ask

112
Q

Help the person holistically look at the situation.

A

Relapse Stage (Action Step)

113
Q

Who made DBT?

A

Marsha Linehan

114
Q

Who made Humanistic Therapy

A

Carl Rogers

115
Q

a. Emphasize freedom and making responsible choices
b. Focus on present and on personal responsibility
c. Understand the patient’s subjective experience.

A

Existential Therapy?

116
Q

This type of therapy is suited to those facing issues of existence, or example, those with a terminal illness, those contemplating suicide or even those going through a transition in their life.

A

Existential therapy

117
Q

What therapy has miracle questions?

A

Solution focused therapy

118
Q

What are examples for solution focused therapy?

A

a. Miracle question- “ if a miracle were to happen tonight while you were asleep, and tomorrow morning you awoke to find that the problem no longer existed, what would be different”
b. Exception finding question-“was there ever a time in your life when the problem didn’t exist”
c. Scaling question- “on a scale of 1-10, how would you rate your anxiety”

119
Q

Involves individuals attributing their own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, and motives to another person.
Example: You hate someone, knowing that is wrong, so you try to solve the problem by telling yourself they hate you

A

Projection definition

120
Q

The redirection of an impulse (usually aggression) onto a powerless substitute target

A

Displacement definition
Example: Someone who might be frustrated by their boss at work will go home and kick their cat

121
Q

Similar to displacement but takes place when we manage to displace our unacceptable emotions into behaviors which are constructive and socially acceptable, rather than destructive activities o Redirecting unacceptable feelings into acceptable channel

A

Sublimination definition

122
Q

What is this Example: mother of a child killed in a drive-by shooting becomes involved in legislative change for gun laws and gun violence

A

Sublimination example

123
Q

This concentrates on intellectual aspects to avoid the emotional aspects of a difficult situation. For example, acts to avoid the emotional aspects of a difficult situation o Example: a patient is diagnosed with cancer, so they go online and start researching their diagnosis.

A

Intellectualization definition

124
Q

An attempt to logically justify generally unacceptable behavior
Example: Always go to work late, but tells supervisor “well I’m not the only one that comes to work late, so it’s ok”

A

Rationalization Definition

125
Q

Irvin Yalom- Imitative Behaviors

A

Participants are able to increase their skills by imitating the behaviors of others.

126
Q

Participants experience openly express their feelings, which were previously suppressed

A

Irvin Yalom–Catharsis

127
Q

Irvin Yalom- Existential Factors

A

Groups enable participants to deal with the meaning of their own existence

128
Q

Participants reexperience family conflicts in the group, which allows them to recognized and change behaviors that may be problematic

A

Irvin Yalom-Corrective refocusing

129
Q

What does the recovery model aim for?

A

Aims to help people with mental illnesses and distress to look beyond mere survival and existence

130
Q

This isn’t about “getting rid” of problems but seeing beyond a person’s mental health problems, recognizing and fostering their abilities, interests and dreams

A

Recovery meaning

131
Q

Standard of Practice Determined by the ANA
(just read)

A

The PMHNP is required by law to carryout care in accordance with what other reasonably
prudent nurses would do in the same or similar circumstance.

132
Q

Only one source of information are required to release information on patient’s chemical/substance history and psych history to a third party: True or False

A

False: Two separate released of information are required to release information on patient’s chemical/substance history and psych history to a third party

133
Q

HIPAA does not allow the PMHNP to make most disclosures about psychotherapy notes for a patient’s condition without their authorization: True or False

A

True

134
Q

What is the element of informed consent?

A

Decision capacity (Competency): Patients should have the capacity or ability to make the decision

135
Q

What if a patient isn’t competent to make decision for informed consent?

A

If patients are not able to do all the above components, family members, court appointed guardians, or others (as determined by state law) may act as “surrogate decision-makers” and make decision for them.

136
Q

Health policy is the decisions, actions and plans to achieve specific healthcare goals. What are high yield points for PMHNPs?

A

a. Assess/address organizational barriers & facilitators
b. Meet with stakeholders

137
Q

a. Reduce the stigma of mental illness b. Target the wider audience
c. Help clients receive available services

A

An example of patient advocacy

138
Q

What does the ANA help design?

A

It helps design safe systems.

139
Q

What is Reflective Practice?

A

Reflective practice enhances critical thinking to problem-solve and enhance clinical reasoning and decision-making.
Includes Debriefing Strategies

140
Q

a. This helps understand and consider culture, economic and educational status, health literacy level, family patterns and situations, and traditions (including alternative and folk remedies);
b. communicate in language and at a level that the client understands

A

Patient Centered Care Model- Sociocultural competence definition

PMHNP Boards (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions