Modules 1-5 Flashcards

1
Q

Hypertensive crisis is life-threatening and cannot be reversed unless more MAO is produced by the body: True or False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a hypertensive crisis?

A

Hypertensive crisis occurs when MAOIs are taken in conjunction with foods containing tyramine, a dietary precursor to norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hypertensive crisis and death also can occur when MAOIs are taken in conjunction with certain medications. What is a specific medication that can cause this?

A

Stimulants and other sympathomimetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Symptoms of HTN crisis. Just read

A

a. Elevated BP
b. Sudden, explosive-like headache, usually in occipital region
c. Facial flushing
d. Palpitations
e. Pupillary dilation
f. Diaphoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Treatment for HTN crisis

A

a. D/C the offending agent
b. Administer PHENTOLAMINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Teratogenic risks: Benzos

A

a. floppy baby syndrome
b. cleft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Teratogenic risks: Depakote/Carbamazepine

A

Neural Tube defect
(Spina bifida for Depakote)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Teratogenic risks: Lithium

A

Ebstein anomaly (especially in the first trimester)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What age should you check in women for mood stabilizers? And why?

A

Check pregnancy status before starting females of childbearing age (12-51) on a mood stabilizer - Mood stabilizers increase risk of neural tube defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What should you encourage if a woman is taking a mood stabilizer? And why?

A

Encourage Folic Acid (0.4-0.8mg qd) if taking mood stabilizers
This supports neural tube development during the first month that a woman is pregnant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

a. Low BMI
b. Amenorrhea
c. Emaciation (abnormally thin)
d. Bradycardia
e. Hypotension

A

Anorexia symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Main treatment for anorexia?

A

Therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Recurrent, episodic binge eating
a. Weight usually withing normal range (BMI)
b. Russel’s sign
c. Rectal prolapse
d. Erosion of dental enamel

A

Main symptoms for Bulimia?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Scarring or calluses on the dorsum of the hand, secondary to self induced vomiting

A

Russell’s sign?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What medication to consider for chronic neuropathic pain and depression?

A

SNRI such as Cymbalta – duloxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Medication FDA approved for Bulimia?

A

fluoxetine (Prozac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mnemonic for Inducers

A

BullShit CRAP GPS- Induces my rage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Inducer Medications- Just read and memorize

A

Barbiturates,
St. John,
Carbamazepine,
Rifampin,
Alcohol,
Phenytoin,

Griseofulvin,
Phenobarbital,
Sulfonylureas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Other inducers include

A

Cigarette smoking and Oral contraceptives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mnemonic for Inhibitors

A

SICKFACES.COM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Inhibitor Medications- Just read and memorize

A

Sodium Valproate,
Isoniazid,
Cimetidine,
Ketoconazole,
Fluconazole,
Alcohol,
Chloramphenicol,
Erythromycin,
Sulfonamide,

Ciprofloxacin,
Omeprazole,
Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What drug is an atypical antipsychotic drug that is metabolized to a major extent by the CYP450 enzyme CYP1A2?

A

Clozapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where is acetylcholine synthesized in?

A

Basal of Meynart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is GABA?

A

It is a universal inhibitory neurotransmitter and it’s
MOST ABUNDANT INHIBITORY NEUROTRANSMITTER IN THE BRAIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is in the amygdala, hippocampus & locus of coeruleus and INCREASES anxiety
Neuropeptides
26
What is produced in the adrenal glands?
Epinephrine
27
Increased levels of corticotrophin releasing hormone in the amygdala, hippocampus and locus coeruleus increases what?
Increases symptoms of anxiety
28
Sensorimotor information exchange between the two hemispheres. Both hemispheres connected by the Corpus Callosum.
What is the Cerebellum function?
29
largest and most developed lobe (language expression) -executive functions (memory, understanding language, problem solving, emotions, behavioral control, decision making)
What is the frontal lobe function?
30
Where is the Broca's area located and what does it do?
a. Located in the frontal lobe b. Function: Expressive speech
31
What is the Limbic System focuses on?
Emotions and memories
32
This part of the brain is in charge of: a. Appetite b. Sensations of hunger/thirst, c. Water balance, d. Circadian rhythms e. Body temp, f. libido g. hormonal regulation
Hypothalamus (A hungry hippo needs to eat and sleep after sex)
33
Regulates emotions, memory and related affective behaviors
What does the Thalamus regulate?
34
The Thalamus contains 5HT2A. What is that?
5HT2A makes an antipsychotic atypical and LESS likely to cause EPS.
35
The Hippocampus regulates memory: True or false
True: It regulates memory and converts short-term memory into long-term memory
36
Nigrostriatal pathway: What does the blockage of D2 receptors lead to? What is decreased D2 lead to?
a. Can lead to EPS (dystonia, parkinsonian symptoms and akathisia) b. Decreased D2 = increased Acetylcholine
37
Tardive Dyskinesia- First line of treatment is Cogentin: True or false
False: It can worsen
38
Tardive Dyskinesia- Reglan (metoclopramide) can cause TD: True or False
True
39
What medication to use with Tardive Dyskinesia?
Tetrabenazine and VMAT-2 inhibitors (Ingrezza)
40
What type of medications can worsen both depression and mania?
Steroids
41
Risk factors for Serotonin Discontinuation Syndrome? (just read)
a. Medications with a short ½ life b. Abrupt discontinuation c. Non-compliance d. High dose range e. Long-term treatment f. Prior hx of discontinuation syndrome
42
Do you stop serotonin medications if a patient has serotonin discontinuation syndrome?
Don't D/C SSRI, TCA, MAOI abruptly
43
This disease has acute onset that causes short-term changes in cognition, ALOC, and inattention.
Delirium
44
One year mortality rate of clients with delirium is how much?
Up to 40%
45
Treatment for Delirium
a. Haldol b. AVOID benzos unless the patient is at risk and has not responded to Haldol.
46
What type of dementia affect language and memory?
Cortical Dementia
47
What type of dementia effects depression, apathy, and motor symptoms?
Subcortical Dementia
48
This disease has a gradual onset / progressive decline.
Alzheimers Dementia This does not have focal neurological deficits (problems with nerve, spinal cord or brain function)
49
What is the second most common dementia?
Vascular Dementia
50
a. Carotid bruits b. Fundoscopic abnormalities c. Enlarges cardiac chambers
Hallmarks for Vascular Dementia
51
Subcortical Dementia is:
HIV Dementia
52
AVOID Benzos in patients with delirium if at all possible in most patients with dementia as they are particularly vulnerable to their adverse effects such as sedation, falls and delirium
Just read
53
Decreasing new cases - prevention
Primary Prevention
54
-Early case finding - Screening
Secondary prevention
55
Avoid or postpone complications (rehabilitative services) - ALREADY HAS - Key word: rehabilitation
Tertiary Prevention
56
The tendency of some regions of the brain to react to repeated low-level bioelectrical stimulation by progressively boosting synaptic discharges, thereby lowering seizure thresholds.
Kindling Definition
57
Compulsive substance use despite harmful consequence.
Addiction definition
58
The amount of drug required to produce an effect of given intensity
Potency Definition
59
The process of becoming less responsive to a particular drug over time. Decreased effects of the same dose of a medication over time
Tolerance Definition
60
What is the criteria for ADHD
a. At least 5 symptoms per category in adults. b. For children after 6 months but before 12 years, it has to be noticable in at least 2 different settings.
61
ADHD: Abnormalities of frontal-subcortical pathways (2 pathways)
a. Frontal Cortex b. Basal Ganglia-Abnormalities of the reticular activating system
62
The development of specific deficits such as hand movement following a period of normal functioning after birth.
Rett's Syndrome
63
Rett's Syndrome is common in both boys and girls: True or false
False: Primarily in girls
64
Main symptom for Rett's Syndrome?
Loss of purposeful hand skills Stereotypic hand movements
65
SIG E CAPS mnemonic- Depression
Sleep disturbances Interest decreased Guilt Energy decreased Concentration problems, Appetite/weight changes, Psychomotor agitation, SI
66
NO HARM AGREEMENT is NOT a protective factor
Just read
67
Olanzapine/Prozac combo drug: FDA approved for treatment of bipolar depression
Symbyax –
68
Labs elevated in Alcohol Use Disorder
MCV Total cholesterol Triglycerides
69
Unlike major depression, what is usually preserved in the grieving person
self-esteem
70
Schizophrenia: Neurobiological defect, everything is decreased except?
The Ventricles
71
Erikson Virtue- Trust vs Mistrust
Hope
72
Erikson Virtue- Autonomy vs Shame
Will
73
Erikson Virtue- Initiative vs Guilt
Purpose
74
Erikson Virtue- Industry vs Inferiority
Competence
75
Erikson Virtue- Identity vs Role confusion
Fidelity
76
Erikson Virtue- Intimate vs Isolation
Love
77
Erikson Virtue- Generativity vs Stagnation
Care
78
Erikson Virtue- Integrity vs Despair
Wisdom
79
Erikson Virtue Mnemonic
HoW PoCo FooL CoW
80
Erikson a. Ability to form meaningful relationships, hope about the future, trust in others b. Faith in the environment
Trust vs Mistrust
81
Erikson a. Self-control, self-esteem, willpower b. Sense of adequacy
Autonomy vs Shame/Doubt (Early childhood)
82
Erikson's a. Self-directed behavior, goal formation, sense of purpose b. Ability to be a “self-starter”, to initiate one’s own activities
Initiative vs Guilt (Late childhood)
83
Erikson's a. Ability to work, sense of competency and achievement b. Ability to lean how things work, to understand and organize
Industry vs Inferiority (School Age)
84
Erikson's a. Personal sense of identity b. Seeing oneself as a unique and integrated person
Identity vs Role Confusion (Adolescence)
85
Erikson's a. Committed relationships, capacity to love b. Unfavorable: inability to form affectionate relationships
Intimacy vs Isolation (Early Adulthood)
86
Erikson's a. Committed relationships, capacity to love b. Unfavorable: inability to form affectionate relationships
Generativity vs Stagnation (Middle Adulthood)
87
Erikson's a. Fulfillment and comfort with life, willingness to face death, insight and balance life events.
Integrity vs Despair (Late Adulthood)
88
The adolescent can reason abstractly and think in hypothetical terms.
Formal Operational (12 yr- Adult)
89
The child can think logically about concrete objects and can thus ass/subtract. The child also understands conversation.
Concrete operational (7-12 years)
90
The infant explores the world through direct sensory and motor contact. Object permanence and separation anxiety developed during this stage.
Sensorimotor (0-2 years)
91
The child uses symbols (words and images) to represent objects but does not reason logically. The child also has the ability to pretend. During this stage, the child is egocentric.
Preoperational (2-6 years)
92
Piaget's Object permanence-ability to know that objects continue to exist even though they can no longer be seen or heard
Sensorimotor
93
Piaget's Start using language and symbols, able to use magical thinking a. Sleep and dream about monsters b. Imaginary thoughts
Preoperational
94
Piaget's Able to understand concepts, like conservation & reversibility a. Able to understand if you take a plastic cup and heat it, it can change shape but the properties remain the same
Concrete
95
Piaget's Able to use logic a. Able to do a science project and test a hypothesis o Can think abstractly b. Can solve algebra
Formal
96
Sigmund Freud's- Oral Stage a. Age b. What happens during this stage?
a. 0-1 year old b. Children derive pleasure from oral activities, including sucking and tasting. Put things in their mouth.
97
Sigmund Freud's- Anal Stage a. Age b. What happens during this stage?
a. 2-3 years b. Children begin potty training
98
Sigmund Freud's- Phallic Stage a. Age b. What happens during this stage?
a. 3-6 years old b. Boys are more attracted to mom and girls attracted to dad.
99
Sigmund Freud's- Latency Stage a. Age b. What happens during this stage?
a. 6 years old to puberty b. Children spend more time and interact mostly with same sex peers.
100
Sigmund Freud's- Genital Stage a. Age b. What happens during this stage?
a. Beyond puberty. b. Individuals are attracted to opposite sex peers
101
The person has NO intention to change. The person is not aware that there is even a problem with their behavior
Transtheoretical Model of Change- Precontemplation stage
102
Provide information and feedback to raise the person’s awareness of the problem and the possibility of change. Do not give prescriptive advice.
Precontemplation stage- Action step
103
The person is thinking about changing. The person is aware that there is a problem, but not committed to changing
Contemplation stage
104
Help the person tip the balance in favor of change. Help the person see the benefits of changing and the consequences of not changing.
Contemplation stage- Action step
105
The person has made the decision to change. The person is ready for action.
Preparation stage
106
Help the person by asking “what are the steps in the plan that you have made”. Help the person find a strategy that is realistic, acceptable, accessible appropriate and effective .
Preparation stage- Action step
107
The person in engaging in specific, overt actions to change
Action stage
108
Support and be an advocate for the person. Help accomplish the steps for change .
Action Stage- Action Step
109
The person is engaging in behaviors to prevent relapse
Maintenance stage
110
Help the person identify the possibility of relapse and identify and use strategies to prevent relapse .
Maintenance Stage-Action Step
111
What led to the relapse and what are your plans for getting past it and avoiding another relapse? What keeps you from having another relapse?
Relapse stage: What questions to ask
112
Help the person holistically look at the situation.
Relapse Stage (Action Step)
113
Who made DBT?
Marsha Linehan
114
Who made Humanistic Therapy
Carl Rogers
115
a. Emphasize freedom and making responsible choices b. Focus on present and on personal responsibility c. Understand the patient’s subjective experience.
Existential Therapy?
116
This type of therapy is suited to those facing issues of existence, or example, those with a terminal illness, those contemplating suicide or even those going through a transition in their life.
Existential therapy
117
What therapy has miracle questions?
Solution focused therapy
118
What are examples for solution focused therapy?
a. Miracle question- “ if a miracle were to happen tonight while you were asleep, and tomorrow morning you awoke to find that the problem no longer existed, what would be different” b. Exception finding question-“was there ever a time in your life when the problem didn’t exist” c. Scaling question- “on a scale of 1-10, how would you rate your anxiety”
119
Involves individuals attributing their own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, and motives to another person. Example: You hate someone, knowing that is wrong, so you try to solve the problem by telling yourself they hate you
Projection definition
120
The redirection of an impulse (usually aggression) onto a powerless substitute target
Displacement definition Example: Someone who might be frustrated by their boss at work will go home and kick their cat
121
Similar to displacement but takes place when we manage to displace our unacceptable emotions into behaviors which are constructive and socially acceptable, rather than destructive activities o Redirecting unacceptable feelings into acceptable channel
Sublimination definition
122
What is this Example: mother of a child killed in a drive-by shooting becomes involved in legislative change for gun laws and gun violence
Sublimination example
123
This concentrates on intellectual aspects to avoid the emotional aspects of a difficult situation. For example, acts to avoid the emotional aspects of a difficult situation o Example: a patient is diagnosed with cancer, so they go online and start researching their diagnosis.
Intellectualization definition
124
An attempt to logically justify generally unacceptable behavior Example: Always go to work late, but tells supervisor “well I’m not the only one that comes to work late, so it’s ok”
Rationalization Definition
125
Irvin Yalom- Imitative Behaviors
Participants are able to increase their skills by imitating the behaviors of others.
126
Participants experience openly express their feelings, which were previously suppressed
Irvin Yalom--Catharsis
127
Irvin Yalom- Existential Factors
Groups enable participants to deal with the meaning of their own existence
128
Participants reexperience family conflicts in the group, which allows them to recognized and change behaviors that may be problematic
Irvin Yalom-Corrective refocusing
129
What does the recovery model aim for?
Aims to help people with mental illnesses and distress to look beyond mere survival and existence
130
This isn't about “getting rid” of problems but seeing beyond a person’s mental health problems, recognizing and fostering their abilities, interests and dreams
Recovery meaning
131
Standard of Practice Determined by the ANA (just read)
The PMHNP is required by law to carryout care in accordance with what other reasonably prudent nurses would do in the same or similar circumstance.
132
Only one source of information are required to release information on patient’s chemical/substance history and psych history to a third party: True or False
False: Two separate released of information are required to release information on patient’s chemical/substance history and psych history to a third party
133
HIPAA does not allow the PMHNP to make most disclosures about psychotherapy notes for a patient’s condition without their authorization: True or False
True
134
What is the element of informed consent?
Decision capacity (Competency): Patients should have the capacity or ability to make the decision
135
What if a patient isn't competent to make decision for informed consent?
If patients are not able to do all the above components, family members, court appointed guardians, or others (as determined by state law) may act as “surrogate decision-makers” and make decision for them.
136
Health policy is the decisions, actions and plans to achieve specific healthcare goals. What are high yield points for PMHNPs?
a. Assess/address organizational barriers & facilitators b. Meet with stakeholders
137
a. Reduce the stigma of mental illness b. Target the wider audience c. Help clients receive available services
An example of patient advocacy
138
What does the ANA help design?
It helps design safe systems.
139
What is Reflective Practice?
Reflective practice enhances critical thinking to problem-solve and enhance clinical reasoning and decision-making. Includes Debriefing Strategies
140
a. This helps understand and consider culture, economic and educational status, health literacy level, family patterns and situations, and traditions (including alternative and folk remedies); b. communicate in language and at a level that the client understands
Patient Centered Care Model- Sociocultural competence definition