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BIOL1007 > Module C: Infectious Disease and Their Control > Flashcards

Module C: Infectious Disease and Their Control Flashcards

1
Q

What condition does Bacillus anthracis cause?

A

Anthrax

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2
Q

What pathogen causes Tuberculosis?

A

M. tuberculosis

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3
Q

What pathogen causes Cholera?

A

Vibrio cholera

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4
Q

What four things does Robert Koch postulate to prove a link between a particular microbe and a disease?

A
  1. The suspected germ must be present in every case of the disease
  2. The germ must be isolated and grown in pure culture
  3. The cultured germ must cause the disease when it is inoculated into a healthy, susceptible experimental host
  4. The same germ must be reisolated from the diseased experimental host
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5
Q

What is an endemic?

A

An endemic disease is always present in given population. Must be a permanent reservoir (human or otherwise)

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6
Q

What is an epidemic?

A

A sudden rapid rise in the incidence of a disease in a particular population/area

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7
Q

What is a pandemic?

A

A global epidemic

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8
Q

What is an outbreak?

A

A relatively high number of infections are observed where no cases or sporadic cases have occurred in the past.

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9
Q

What is Bordetella pertussis?

A

A bacteria that lodges at the base of cilia within the lungs and causes a loss of cilia

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10
Q

What are viral infections of the gut covered in this course?

A

Rotavirus and norovirus

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11
Q

Are the lungs more likely to be infected via viruses or bacteria?

A

Viral infections extremely more common

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12
Q

What are bacteria infections of the gut covered in this course?

A

E. Coli
Salmonella
Cholera
Eukaryote (Giardia)

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13
Q

What is vibrio cholera?

A

One of the most widespread and serious bacterial GI pathogens. IT disrupts intracellular signalling and is transferred via faeces.

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14
Q

What does Chlamydia result in?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility

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15
Q

What does syphilis result in?

A

Neurological effects

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16
Q

Host influence of disease outcomes?

A 
Age
Gender
Genotype
Behaviour (hygiene)
Previous exposure to the pathogen
Health status (immunocompromised?)
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17
Q

Three domains of life?

A

Bacteria
Archaea
Eukarya

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18
Q

Characteristics of a prokaryote?

A

No nucleus

Also (generally) no membrane-bound organelles

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19
Q

What domains of life are prokaryotes?

A

Archaea and bacteria

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20
Q

What are biofims?

A

Biofilms are a collective of one or more types of micro-organisms that can grow on many different surfaces.

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21
Q

Problem with microscopy and bacteria?

A

You can only check for shape since bacteria are often colourless. Need a phase contrast to see and usually require staining.

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22
Q

What is Gram Stain dependent on?

A

Differences in the make-up of the cell wall

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23
Q

What type of bacteria can form endospores?

A

Gram +ve bacilli

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24
Q

When do spores occur in bacteria?

A

When nutrients required by cell are depleted

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25
Q

What are exotoxins?

A

Secreted molecules that cause harm to host. Disrupt or inhibit cellular function.

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26
Q

What bacteria release endotoxins?

A

Predominately Gram -ve bacteria do, but some components of Gram +ve’s cell wall can give similar responses.

found in all Gram -ves

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27
Q

What do endotoxins do?

A

Released upon bacterial cell death. Bind to macrophages. They are powerful activators of acute-phase and inflammatory immune responses.

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28
Q

What two groups are virulence factors in?

A

Factors that promote colonisation

Factors that damage the host

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29
Q

What are examples of virulence factors that promote colonisation?

A

Allow access to ideal niche

Resist physical forces that may remove pathogen

Evade immune system

Increased access to nutrients

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30
Q

What are the two main virulence factors that damage the host?

A

Exotoxins and endotoxins

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31
Q

Why aren’t viruses considered living organisms?

A

They consist only of DNA or RNA and protein

Are incapable of independent reproduction

Smaller than any cell and have no cell membrane

No ribosomes, mitochondria and very few enzymes

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32
Q

Three types of virus structures?

A

Icosahedral
Helical
Complex

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33
Q

Six steps of the viral life-cycle?

A 
Attachment
Penetration
Uncoating
Replication
Assembly
Maturation and release
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34
Q

What is tropism?

A

The turning of all or part of an organism in a particular direction in response to an external stimulus (i.e. virus)

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35
Q

What is a capsid?

A

A capsid is the protein shell of a virus.

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36
Q

What part of the virus attaches to the host?

A

The viral attachment protein

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37
Q

Where do viruses replicate?

A

In the nucleus

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38
Q

Two ways cells are damaged via virus replication?

A

The cell can rupture during virus release, or

The cell commits suicide in response (apotheosis)

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39
Q

What does Functio Laesa mean?

A

Medical term for loss of function

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40
Q

What is the medical term for pain?

A

Dolor

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41
Q

What is the medical term for redness on skin?

A

Rubor

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42
Q

What is the medical term for localised heat?

A

Calor

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43
Q

What is the medical term for swelling?

A

Tumour

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44
Q

Why do our bodies go into fever?

A

Higher temperature unstable for viruses

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45
Q

What is the medical term for presence of virus in the blood?

A

Viraemia

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46
Q

What is adenovirus?

A

A double DNA respiratory virus. Causes tumours

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47
Q

What is papillomavirus?

A

A double DNA virus; symptoms include warts/cervical cancer

48
Q

What is polyomavirus

A

A tumour enduring double DNA virus

49
Q

What is herpesvirus?

A

A double DNA virus, with herpes as disease

50
Q

What is poxvirus?

A

A double DNA virus; gives smallpox/cowpox

51
Q

Out of adenovirus, papillomavirus, polyomavirus, herpesvirus and poxvirus, which contain an envelope?

A

Herpes and poxs

52
Q

What is parvovirus?

A

A single stranded DNA virus that gives a mild rash

53
Q

What is reovirus?

A

A double stranded RNA virus that gives rotavirus (diarrhoea) and the Colorado tick fever virus

54
Q

What percentage of people have type 1 HIV in their lives?

A

4/5 people

55
Q

What is picornavirus?

A

A single stranded RNA (mRNA) virus that gives the common cold (rhinovirus), hepatitis A and poliovirus

56
Q

What is coronavirus?

A

A single stranded RNA that gives SARS

57
Q

What is SARS?

A

Sever Acute Respiratory Syndrome

58
Q

What is flavivirus?

A

A single stranded RNA virus that gives yellow fever, west nile virus and hepatitis C

59
Q

What is togavirus?

A

A single stranded RNA virus that gives Rubella virus and equine encephalitis virus

60
Q

What is filovirus?

A

A single stranded RNA virus that serves as a template for mRNA synthesis - associated with the ebola virus

61
Q

What is orthomyxovirus?

A

A single stranded RNA virus that serves as a template for mRNA synthesis - associated with influenza

62
Q

What is paramyxovirus?

A

A single stranded RNA virus that serves as a template for mRNA synthesis - associated with the measles virus

63
Q

What is rhabdovirus?

A

A single stranded RNA virus that serves as a template for mRNA synthesis - associated with rabies

64
Q

What is retrovirus?

A

A single stranded RNA virus that serves as a template for DNA synthesis - associated with human immunodeciency virus

65
Q

Out of all the STI viruses, which is on the rise in Australia?

A

HIV

66
Q

Weight of bacteria in and around the human body? What percentage is gut?

A

1.25kg around the body, 1kg is in gut

67
Q

Where is the most stable site for gut flora? How many days can it last?

A

The gut - up to 300 days

68
Q

Resident bacteria of skin?

A

Mainly gram positive cocci

Staphylococcus epidermidis and staphylococcus aureus

69
Q

Where do bacteria reside in the mouth, nose and vagina?

A

In the mucoid layer

70
Q

Microbes found on teeth and gums?

A

Streptococci, Bacteroides, Fusobacterium, actinomyces

71
Q

What do bacteria on teeth do?

A

They calcify to form biofilm (calculus plaque)

72
Q

What bacteria reside in the GI tract?

A

Most Gram negative bacteria

73
Q

What is the rule of thumb for microbe count in the GI tract?

A

The more you move toward the colon, the more diversity and density

74
Q

What is the reflux bacteria?

A

Helicobacter pylori

75
Q

Benefits of microflora in GI tract?

A

Beneficial metabolites (waste products)

Vitamin production (like b12 and K group)

Produces short-chain fatty acids - triggers for satiety and epithelial preservation

76
Q

What is the usual culprit for an UTI?

A

Escherichia coli

77
Q

UTI stats in males vs females?

A

50% of women will have >1 UTI; 12-15% in men

78
Q

What is MRSA?

A

Methicillin-resistant Staph. aureus - a skin condition that’s difficult to treat

79
Q

What is the correct term for thrush?

A

Dandida albicans

80
Q

Why does thrush occur?

A

It’s a typical resident, but usually antibiotics or hormone induced pH changes promote a landscape it can thrive in.

81
Q

What is Clostridium difficile?

A

An antiobiotic-associated diarrgoea. Causes severe symptoms and kills the host via dehydration

82
Q

What are MRSA, UTI, thrust and Clostridium difficile all examples of?

A

An opportunistic infection

83
Q

Why do opportunistic infections occur?

A

Colonisation of different body site
Inadequate immune response
Asymptomatic carrier
Overgrowth of resident microbe

84
Q

What is VRSA?

A

Vancomycin Resistant S. aureus

85
Q

What is clostridium difficile?

A

A Gram positive bacilli bacteria; spore forming

86
Q

Where is clostridium difficile found?

A

Faeces of neonates and infants until weaning

87
Q

How does clostridium difficile appear in adults?

A

Induced by distrubance of gut flora (antibiotics, cytotoxic drugs etc)

88
Q

What disease does clostridium difficile give?

A

Diarrhoea

89
Q

Via what process does clostridium difficle damage the target cell?

A

Exotocins

90
Q

What medicine is administered for clostridium difficile?

A

For mild symptoms; metronidazole,

For severe; vancomycin

Surgery may be needed for colon repair

91
Q

Major causative organism of UTIs?

A

E. Coli

92
Q

What disease can UTI lead to?

A

Pyelonephritis

93
Q

How is UTI diagnoses?

A

Dipstick test: for metabolites and pus in urine. If neither are present, unlikely UTI

94
Q

Virulence factors of paramyxoviridae?

A

Gram negative RNA genome

95
Q

Major problem with RSV? (respiratory syncytial virus)

A

No specific treatment or vaccine

96
Q

How does rotavirus cause damage?

A

IT replicates at the tip of microvilli - followed by a lytic cycle (cell death)

97
Q

What is the causative agent of measles?

A

Morbillivirus

98
Q

What are haemolysins?

A

Lipids and proteins that cause lysis of RBC’s

99
Q

Key virulence factor of morbillivirus?

A

It has haemolysin proteins that clump RBCs

100
Q

What does YOPI stand for? What is it referred to for?

A 
Susceptible hosts:
Young
Old
Pregnant
Immunocompromised
101
Q

Infection control for doctor talking to patient in patient bed? (From lecture)

A

Wash hands before AND after
Gloves/masks in certain scenarios
Make sure equipment is sterilised (and equipment must be constantly up-kept) and clean sheets

102
Q

Infection control for someone on respiratory machine? (From lecture)

A

Nurses/doctors must wear masks/gloves
Hair tied back
Must ensure air pressure is optimal and patient is quarantined

103
Q

What is the mechanism of action for glycopeptide antibiotics ?

A

Bind to peptide chains on bacterial cell walls

104
Q

Which of the following proteins are NOT encoded by viral genomes?

Capsomere, Proteases, 30S ribosomal subunit, RNA polymerase and Reverse Transcriptase

A

30S ribosomal subunit - it is the only component on the host (absent from virus)

105
Q

Do viruses have ribosomes?

A

No

106
Q

Which method of sterilisation is most effective in clinical scenarios?

A

Moist heat up to 121 degrees Celsius for 15 minutes

Detergent/alcohol used for disinfection, not sterilisation

107
Q

Virulence factos for staphyloccus aureus?

A

Cell wall polymers to prevent immune cell recognition (eg peptidoglycan)

Cell surface proteins to bind to host cells (eg protein A)

Toxins to lyse open host cells (eg enterotoxins)

Antibiotics resistant genes to promote multidrug resistance

108
Q

Are UTI considered normal or opportunistic infections?

A

Opportunistic, as the tract is usually sterile of bacteria. Tends to opportunistically infect patients in hospitals who have limited mobility and utilise catheterisation; thus increasing chances of infection

109
Q

Difference between sterilisation and disinfection?

A

Sterilisation is the killing or removal of all viable organisms (and spores), while disinfection is the killing of many, but not all microorganisms

110
Q

Four main sterilisation methods?

A

Irradiation, UV radiation, Pasteurisation and filtration

111
Q

Conditions for moist heat sterilisation?

A

121 degrees celcius, 15 minutes

112
Q

Conditions for dry heat sterilisation?

A

180 degrees celcius, 1 hour

113
Q

What gamma wave frequency is used for sterilisation?

A

4.5 MRads

114
Q

What size is UV radiation?

A

250-260nm

115
Q

Conditions for pasteurisation?

A

Heat then rapid cooling

Standard - 62 degrees C for 30 mins
Flash - 71.5-74.5 for 15 secs
Ultra high - >135 degrees for 1-2 secs

116
Q

Difference between protective isolation and course isolation?

A

Protective - for a vulnerable patient and has positive air pressure

Source isolation - for an infectious patient and has negative pressure

BIOL1007 (5 decks)

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