Module C Flashcards

1
Q

Which muscle group is most important for movements and lifts that require extra effort?

A

Core Stabilizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In an attempt to lift, which two measures are recommended for proper body mechanics?

A

Increasing your base of support and positioning your COG near the objects COG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What area of the spine is host to most injuries caused by lifting?

A

Lumbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

For removing groceries, tools or other items from the trunk of a car, which of the following body mechanics is recommended?

A

Bend your hips and knees slightly and move the object close to you before lifting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which trunk position has the greates potential to cause damage in the act of lifting or reaching for an object?

A

Simultaneous trunk flexion and rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In coordinating a lifting activity with others, how should directions be given?

A

As brief, concise, and action-oriented commands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How should objects above shoulder or head height be approached?

A

Standing on a wide-based footstool or ladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which lift involves positioning the hips below the level of the knees?

A

The deep squat lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which lift involves only a half squat so that the hips remain above the level of the knees?

A

The power lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which lift involves the lifters knees being flexed slightly or fully extended

A

The straight leg lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which lift involves picking up an object in a manner similar to the way a golfer removes a golf ball from the cup?

A

The one-leg stance lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which lift involves placing the object to be lifted on the thigh of the flexed lower extremity and moving it close to the body before the flexed lower extremity begins rising to standing?

A

The half-kneel lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which lift involves starting off in a deep squat, then flexing the upper extremities befor extending the lower extremities?

A

The traditional lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which posture is recommended for performing activities below the waist, such as removing clothes from a front-loading dryer?

A

Sitting, stooping, or kneeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

At what level is the approximate center of gravity of a standing person?

A

The second sacral segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How should patients breathe when performing physical activities, specifically lifting?

A

Normally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The point at which the mass of a body or object is centered

A

Center of Gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Abnormally increased convexity in the curvature of the thoracic spine as viewed from the side

A

Kyphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

An increase in one of the forward convexities of the normal vertebral columns; usually cervical or lumbar

A

Lordosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Increased intrathoracic pressure caused by forcible exhalation against a closed glottis

A

Valsalva Phenomenon or maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Imaginary vertical line that passes through the center of gravity of an object.

A

Vertical Gravity Line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The patient requires verbal or tactile cues, directions, or instructions from another person positioned close to,, but not touching, the patient to perform the activity safely and in an acceptable time frame; the assistant may provide protection in case the patient’s safety is threatened

A

Standyby Assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The caregiver is positioned close to the patient with his or her ands on the patient or a gait belt; it is very likely the patient will require protection during the performance of the activity

A

Contact Guarding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The patient performs 25%-49% of the activity; assistance is required to complete the activity

A

Maximal Assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The patient can perform a transfer without any type of verbal or manual assistance

A

Independent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The patient may require verbal cues or uses assistive equipment or adaptive equipment (bed rail, grab bars, transfer board, furniture)

A

Modified Independent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The patient requires assistance from another person to perform the activity safely in an acceptable time frame; physical assistance, verbal or tactile cues, directions, or instructions may be used

A

Assisted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The patient performs > or = 75% of the activity; assistance required to complete the activity

A

Minimal Assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The patient performs 50%-74% of the activity; assistance is required to complete the activity

A

Moderate Assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The patient requires total physical assistance from one or more persons to accomplish the activity safely; special equipment or devices may be used

A

Dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What type of footwear should be used when one is performing a standing transfer?

A

Non-skid shoes or socks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What should a caregiver grasp to guard a patient during transfers?

A

A safety belt or sling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

During an upward movement transfer of a supine patient, how should the patient’s lower extremities be positioned?

A

With hips and knees flexed and feet flat on the bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which transfer is sometimes referred to as the “quad pivot”?

A

One-person Dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How should the wheelchair be positioned to perform a standing dependent pivot transfer to the bed?

A

Midway between the head or foot of the bed, at an angle of 45-60 degrees to the bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where should a caregiver NOT allow a patient to place his or her upper extremities during a standing, dependent pivot transfer?

A

Around the caregiver’s neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If a patient is transferring to the right from a wheelchair to bed, where should the buttocks be positioned before the transfer?

A

Toward the front of the wheelchair seat, in front of the drive wheel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

To perform an assisting sitting transfer with a transfer board, where should the board be positioned?

A

Beneath the thigh and in front of the drive wheel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where should the caregiver position a patient’s upper extremities when a mechanical lift is used?

A

Folded over the abdomen

40
Q

(T or F) A physical therapist assistant may modify specific interventions within the Plan of Care established by the physical therapist in response to change in the patient/clients’s status

A

True

41
Q

(T or F) A physical therapist assistant shall not exploit any aspect of the physical therapist assitant patient/client relationship unless it can be proven that both parties will benefit from such an activity

A

False

42
Q

(T or F) A physical therapist assistant shall provide interventions only under the supervision and direction of a physical therapist unless the physical therapist is not immediately available

A

False

43
Q

(T or F) The physical therapist assistant complies with legal requirements of the APTA regardless of the jurisdiction regulating the work of the assistant

A

False

44
Q

(T or F) A phyisical therapist assistant shall respect the rights and dignity of all indidviduals and shall provide compassionate care

A

True

45
Q

(T or F) A physical therapist assistant shall make judgements that are commensurate with their educational and legal qualifications as a physical therapist assistant

A

True

46
Q

Do no harm

A

Nonmaleficence

47
Q

Doing what is best for others

A

Benificence

48
Q

Treating all people equally or fairly

A

Justice

49
Q

Being truthful

A

Veracity

50
Q

Keeping commitments to others

A

Fidelity

51
Q

Responsibility to others

A

Duty

52
Q

(T or F) If state laws regarding disclosure of protected health information are more restrictive than HIPAA laws, the state laws should be followed instead of HIPAA

A

True

53
Q

Respecting the differences between people

A

Cultural Competence

54
Q

The process by which a fully informed patient can participate in choices about his or her health care

A

Informed Consent

55
Q

A system of principles governing medical conduct

A

Medical Ethics

56
Q

Patient has the right to have control over his or her own life, including the right to accept or refuse treatment

A

Patient Autonomy

57
Q

The establishment of social rules for conduct

A

Medical Law

58
Q

Health care provider must maintain patient privacy

A

Confidentiality

59
Q

(T or F) Medical law and medical ethics are not interrelated, and have nothing in common

A

False

60
Q

A PTA received a request from the office of one of his patient’s attorney to send copies of the patient’s file. Before sending the copies to the attorney, the PTA needs:

A

Patient’s written authorization for release of copies

61
Q

A PTA student in clinical rotation talking loudly about a patient while having lunch in the hospital cafeteria means:

A
  • Disclosure of PHI
  • Breaking the Privacy Rule
  • Not applying reasonable safeguards
  • Divulging confidential information
62
Q

(T or F) The Privacy Rule defers to the State or other applicable law regarding a parent’s access to health information about a minor

A

True

63
Q

(T or F) The patient has the right to examine his/her chart and records - even letters to a collection agency for co-payments

A

True

64
Q

(T or F) HIPAA’s enforcement of transactions and code sets is primarily complaint driven

A

True

65
Q

True or False: Restricting the patient’s freedom to choose a health care provider means disregarding the patient’s autonomy and his/her rights.

A

True

66
Q

True or False: A PTA who represents himself/herself as a PT may loose his/her license.

A

True

67
Q

True or False: Awareness and acceptance of a patient’s racial characteristics, religious affiliations, and socioeconomic status are all part of cultural diversity.

A

True

68
Q

True or False: When treating a patient, the PTA does not need to care about that patient’s physical size, age, gender, or occupation.

A

False

69
Q

True or False: PTA’s ethics statements are significant professional and moral guides, enforceable by law.

A

False

70
Q

Information the patient, family member, or caregiver gives pertaining to the patient’s condition

A

Subjective Data

71
Q

information from observable patient performance of a functional task

A

Objective Data

72
Q

How can a PTA demonstrate the clinical decision making process in his/her documentation?

A

By collecting pertinent subjective and objective patient data in visits following the initial examination, before and after providing interventions

73
Q

Services given when a patient’s medical condition, comorbidities, or complicating factors are such that the service should be provided or supervised by a therapist for safety and effectiveness

A

Skilled Care

74
Q

Services which can be provided by a nonlicensed individual, such as a family member or caregiver who has had some training from a skilled professional, or by the patient through independent home exercises

A

Maintenance Therapy

75
Q

What type of information can a PTA document?

A
  • Date
  • Cancellations an no-shows
  • Modalities and/or procedures, including parameters involved and areas of body treated
  • Objective status
  • Response to treatment
  • Continuation of plan as establishe by the PT
  • Change of plan as authorized by the PT
  • Signature, title, and license number
76
Q

The identification of the nature of an illness or other problem by examination of the symptoms

A

Diagnosis

77
Q

Physiological functions of the body/anatomical bodily structures

A

Body structure/function

78
Q

Difficulties that might be encountered by an individual who is attempting to complete a task or carry out an activity

A

Activity Limitations

79
Q

Problems an individual might face while involved in life situations

A

Participation Restrictions

80
Q

A structured document oriented around the patient’s problems. The first page of the record consists of a patient problem list. This serves as the table of contents for the remainder of the medical record

A

A Problem-oriented Medical Record

81
Q

A note evolved from the POMR that contains a subjective, objective, assessment, and plan section

A

SOAP note

82
Q

A document format which emphasizes the patient’s function. It clearly describes the relationship between the patient’s impairments and the ability to perform functional tasks, and it improves readability for non-health care providers reviewing documentation

A

The Functional Outcomes Reporting document

83
Q

Any information that would have an impact on the medical decisions you make for your patient

A

Relevant Information

84
Q
  • Information that demonstrates the patient’s readiness to participate with PT
  • PT interventions provided
  • Information that demonstrates the patient’s response to the PT intervention provided
A

Categories of information that belong in the “O” section of a SOAP note

85
Q

What section of a SOAP note does “treatment progression” fall under?

A

Plan

86
Q

What section of a SOAP note does “communication with other health care professionals” fall under?

A

Objective

87
Q

What section of a SOAP note does “Equipment needs” fall under?

A

Plan

88
Q

Portion of Medicare that covers inpatient hospital stays

A

Medicare A

89
Q

Portion of Medicare that covers outpatient services

A

Medicare B

90
Q

Different payment systems are in place for different practice settings

A

Prospective Payment System (PPS)

91
Q

Classification system used to group patients according to diagnosis

A

Diagnosis Related Group (DRG)

92
Q

Codes assigned to health care procedures

A

Current Procedural Terminology (CPT)

93
Q

A hierarchy for grouping patients according to the amount of resources they will need during their stay at a skilled nursing facility

A

Resource Utilization Group (RUG)

94
Q

Individual that is the point of access into the health care system

A

Primary Care Provider (PCP)

95
Q

Tool to collect data about a patient’s functional status

A

Outcomes and Assessment Information Set (OASIS)

96
Q

A tool used in skilled nursing facilities by multiple providers to assess the patient’s abilities

A

Minimum Data Set (MDS)