Module C Flashcards

1
Q

Which muscle group is most important for movements and lifts that require extra effort?

A

Core Stabilizers

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2
Q

In an attempt to lift, which two measures are recommended for proper body mechanics?

A

Increasing your base of support and positioning your COG near the objects COG

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3
Q

What area of the spine is host to most injuries caused by lifting?

A

Lumbar

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4
Q

For removing groceries, tools or other items from the trunk of a car, which of the following body mechanics is recommended?

A

Bend your hips and knees slightly and move the object close to you before lifting

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5
Q

Which trunk position has the greates potential to cause damage in the act of lifting or reaching for an object?

A

Simultaneous trunk flexion and rotation

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6
Q

In coordinating a lifting activity with others, how should directions be given?

A

As brief, concise, and action-oriented commands

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7
Q

How should objects above shoulder or head height be approached?

A

Standing on a wide-based footstool or ladder

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8
Q

Which lift involves positioning the hips below the level of the knees?

A

The deep squat lift

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9
Q

Which lift involves only a half squat so that the hips remain above the level of the knees?

A

The power lift

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10
Q

Which lift involves the lifters knees being flexed slightly or fully extended

A

The straight leg lift

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11
Q

Which lift involves picking up an object in a manner similar to the way a golfer removes a golf ball from the cup?

A

The one-leg stance lift

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12
Q

Which lift involves placing the object to be lifted on the thigh of the flexed lower extremity and moving it close to the body before the flexed lower extremity begins rising to standing?

A

The half-kneel lift

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13
Q

Which lift involves starting off in a deep squat, then flexing the upper extremities befor extending the lower extremities?

A

The traditional lift

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14
Q

Which posture is recommended for performing activities below the waist, such as removing clothes from a front-loading dryer?

A

Sitting, stooping, or kneeling

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15
Q

At what level is the approximate center of gravity of a standing person?

A

The second sacral segment

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16
Q

How should patients breathe when performing physical activities, specifically lifting?

A

Normally

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17
Q

The point at which the mass of a body or object is centered

A

Center of Gravity

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18
Q

Abnormally increased convexity in the curvature of the thoracic spine as viewed from the side

A

Kyphosis

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19
Q

An increase in one of the forward convexities of the normal vertebral columns; usually cervical or lumbar

A

Lordosis

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20
Q

Increased intrathoracic pressure caused by forcible exhalation against a closed glottis

A

Valsalva Phenomenon or maneuver

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21
Q

Imaginary vertical line that passes through the center of gravity of an object.

A

Vertical Gravity Line

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22
Q

The patient requires verbal or tactile cues, directions, or instructions from another person positioned close to,, but not touching, the patient to perform the activity safely and in an acceptable time frame; the assistant may provide protection in case the patient’s safety is threatened

A

Standyby Assistance

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23
Q

The caregiver is positioned close to the patient with his or her ands on the patient or a gait belt; it is very likely the patient will require protection during the performance of the activity

A

Contact Guarding

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24
Q

The patient performs 25%-49% of the activity; assistance is required to complete the activity

A

Maximal Assistance

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25
The patient can perform a transfer without any type of verbal or manual assistance
Independent
26
The patient may require verbal cues or uses assistive equipment or adaptive equipment (bed rail, grab bars, transfer board, furniture)
Modified Independent
27
The patient requires assistance from another person to perform the activity safely in an acceptable time frame; physical assistance, verbal or tactile cues, directions, or instructions may be used
Assisted
28
The patient performs > or = 75% of the activity; assistance required to complete the activity
Minimal Assistance
29
The patient performs 50%-74% of the activity; assistance is required to complete the activity
Moderate Assistance
30
The patient requires total physical assistance from one or more persons to accomplish the activity safely; special equipment or devices may be used
Dependent
31
What type of footwear should be used when one is performing a standing transfer?
Non-skid shoes or socks
32
What should a caregiver grasp to guard a patient during transfers?
A safety belt or sling
33
During an upward movement transfer of a supine patient, how should the patient's lower extremities be positioned?
With hips and knees flexed and feet flat on the bed
34
Which transfer is sometimes referred to as the "quad pivot"?
One-person Dependent
35
How should the wheelchair be positioned to perform a standing dependent pivot transfer to the bed?
Midway between the head or foot of the bed, at an angle of 45-60 degrees to the bed
36
Where should a caregiver NOT allow a patient to place his or her upper extremities during a standing, dependent pivot transfer?
Around the caregiver's neck
37
If a patient is transferring to the right from a wheelchair to bed, where should the buttocks be positioned before the transfer?
Toward the front of the wheelchair seat, in front of the drive wheel
38
To perform an assisting sitting transfer with a transfer board, where should the board be positioned?
Beneath the thigh and in front of the drive wheel
39
Where should the caregiver position a patient's upper extremities when a mechanical lift is used?
Folded over the abdomen
40
(T or F) A physical therapist assistant may modify specific interventions within the Plan of Care established by the physical therapist in response to change in the patient/clients's status
True
41
(T or F) A physical therapist assistant shall not exploit any aspect of the physical therapist assitant patient/client relationship unless it can be proven that both parties will benefit from such an activity
False
42
(T or F) A physical therapist assistant shall provide interventions only under the supervision and direction of a physical therapist unless the physical therapist is not immediately available
False
43
(T or F) The physical therapist assistant complies with legal requirements of the APTA regardless of the jurisdiction regulating the work of the assistant
False
44
(T or F) A phyisical therapist assistant shall respect the rights and dignity of all indidviduals and shall provide compassionate care
True
45
(T or F) A physical therapist assistant shall make judgements that are commensurate with their educational and legal qualifications as a physical therapist assistant
True
46
Do no harm
Nonmaleficence
47
Doing what is best for others
Benificence
48
Treating all people equally or fairly
Justice
49
Being truthful
Veracity
50
Keeping commitments to others
Fidelity
51
Responsibility to others
Duty
52
(T or F) If state laws regarding disclosure of protected health information are more restrictive than HIPAA laws, the state laws should be followed instead of HIPAA
True
53
Respecting the differences between people
Cultural Competence
54
The process by which a fully informed patient can participate in choices about his or her health care
Informed Consent
55
A system of principles governing medical conduct
Medical Ethics
56
Patient has the right to have control over his or her own life, including the right to accept or refuse treatment
Patient Autonomy
57
The establishment of social rules for conduct
Medical Law
58
Health care provider must maintain patient privacy
Confidentiality
59
(T or F) Medical law and medical ethics are not interrelated, and have nothing in common
False
60
A PTA received a request from the office of one of his patient's attorney to send copies of the patient's file. Before sending the copies to the attorney, the PTA needs:
Patient's written authorization for release of copies
61
A PTA student in clinical rotation talking loudly about a patient while having lunch in the hospital cafeteria means:
- Disclosure of PHI - Breaking the Privacy Rule - Not applying reasonable safeguards - Divulging confidential information
62
(T or F) The Privacy Rule defers to the State or other applicable law regarding a parent's access to health information about a minor
True
63
(T or F) The patient has the right to examine his/her chart and records - even letters to a collection agency for co-payments
True
64
(T or F) HIPAA's enforcement of transactions and code sets is primarily complaint driven
True
65
True or False: Restricting the patient’s freedom to choose a health care provider means disregarding the patient’s autonomy and his/her rights.
True
66
True or False: A PTA who represents himself/herself as a PT may loose his/her license.
True
67
True or False: Awareness and acceptance of a patient's racial characteristics, religious affiliations, and socioeconomic status are all part of cultural diversity.
True
68
True or False: When treating a patient, the PTA does not need to care about that patient's physical size, age, gender, or occupation.
False
69
True or False: PTA's ethics statements are significant professional and moral guides, enforceable by law.
False
70
Information the patient, family member, or caregiver gives pertaining to the patient's condition
Subjective Data
71
information from observable patient performance of a functional task
Objective Data
72
How can a PTA demonstrate the clinical decision making process in his/her documentation?
By collecting pertinent subjective and objective patient data in visits following the initial examination, before and after providing interventions
73
Services given when a patient's medical condition, comorbidities, or complicating factors are such that the service should be provided or supervised by a therapist for safety and effectiveness
Skilled Care
74
Services which can be provided by a nonlicensed individual, such as a family member or caregiver who has had some training from a skilled professional, or by the patient through independent home exercises
Maintenance Therapy
75
What type of information can a PTA document?
- Date - Cancellations an no-shows - Modalities and/or procedures, including parameters involved and areas of body treated - Objective status - Response to treatment - Continuation of plan as establishe by the PT - Change of plan as authorized by the PT - Signature, title, and license number
76
The identification of the nature of an illness or other problem by examination of the symptoms
Diagnosis
77
Physiological functions of the body/anatomical bodily structures
Body structure/function
78
Difficulties that might be encountered by an individual who is attempting to complete a task or carry out an activity
Activity Limitations
79
Problems an individual might face while involved in life situations
Participation Restrictions
80
A structured document oriented around the patient's problems. The first page of the record consists of a patient problem list. This serves as the table of contents for the remainder of the medical record
A Problem-oriented Medical Record
81
A note evolved from the POMR that contains a subjective, objective, assessment, and plan section
SOAP note
82
A document format which emphasizes the patient's function. It clearly describes the relationship between the patient's impairments and the ability to perform functional tasks, and it improves readability for non-health care providers reviewing documentation
The Functional Outcomes Reporting document
83
Any information that would have an impact on the medical decisions you make for your patient
Relevant Information
84
- Information that demonstrates the patient's readiness to participate with PT - PT interventions provided - Information that demonstrates the patient's response to the PT intervention provided
Categories of information that belong in the "O" section of a SOAP note
85
What section of a SOAP note does "treatment progression" fall under?
Plan
86
What section of a SOAP note does "communication with other health care professionals" fall under?
Objective
87
What section of a SOAP note does "Equipment needs" fall under?
Plan
88
Portion of Medicare that covers inpatient hospital stays
Medicare A
89
Portion of Medicare that covers outpatient services
Medicare B
90
Different payment systems are in place for different practice settings
Prospective Payment System (PPS)
91
Classification system used to group patients according to diagnosis
Diagnosis Related Group (DRG)
92
Codes assigned to health care procedures
Current Procedural Terminology (CPT)
93
A hierarchy for grouping patients according to the amount of resources they will need during their stay at a skilled nursing facility
Resource Utilization Group (RUG)
94
Individual that is the point of access into the health care system
Primary Care Provider (PCP)
95
Tool to collect data about a patient's functional status
Outcomes and Assessment Information Set (OASIS)
96
A tool used in skilled nursing facilities by multiple providers to assess the patient's abilities
Minimum Data Set (MDS)