Module B Flashcards
1
Q
What factors cause body temperature to increase
A
- Late in the day
- Younger age
- Hot environment
- Infection
- Increased Physical Activity
- Increased stress
- Rectal site for measurement
- During ovulation or pregnancy
- Measurement taken orally after consuming something hot
2
Q
What factors cause body temperature to decrease?
A
- Early morning
- Younger age
- Cold environment
- Decrease in physical activity
- Decreased Stress
- Measurement taken in the axilla
- Measurement taken after consuming something cold
3
Q
What factors cause blood pressure to be higher
A
- Older age
- Increased physical activity
- Increased stress
- Certain medications
- Smaller veins
- Lower arm position
- Muscle contraction
- Increased blood volume
- Increased cardiac output
- Measurement taken in the left upper extremity
4
Q
What factors cause blood pressure to be lower?
A
- Younger age
- Decreased physical activity
- Decreased stress
- Certain medications
- Larger veins
- Higher arm position
- Decreased blood volume
- Dehydration
- Decreased cardiac output
- Measurement taken at right upper extremity
5
Q
What factors cause a pulse rate to be higher?
A
- Younger age
- Females
- Hotter environment
- Infection
- Increased physical activity
- Increased stress
- Certain medications
- Hypotension
- Less athletic
6
Q
What factors cause a pulse rate to be lower?
A
- Older age
- Males
- Colder temperature
- Decreased physical activity
- Decreased stress
- Certain medications
- Hypertension
- More athletic
7
Q
What factors cause respiration rate to be higher?
A
- Very young or very old
- Increased physical activity
- Increased stress
- High altitude
- Disease
8
Q
What is the normal resting heart rate for newborns (0-3 months)?
A
100-150 bpm
9
Q
What is the normal resting heart rate for children (1-10 years)?
A
70-130 bpm
10
Q
What is the normal resting heart rate for adults (10+ years)?
A
60-100 bpm
11
Q
What is normal blood pressure for infants (birth-3 months)?
A
85-90 systolic, 35-65 diastolic
12
Q
What is normal blood pressure for children (1-4 years)?
A
100-108 systolic, 60 diastolic
13
Q
What is normal blood pressure for adults?
A
<120 systolic, <80 diastolic
14
Q
How do you get the smallest margin for error when measuring heart rate?
A
By measuring for the maximum amount of seconds
15
Q
How should the arm be positioned when blood pressure is measured at the brachial artery?
A
At the level of the heart
16
Q
Indicates a rapid heart rate over 100 bpm
A
Tachycardia
17
Q
Indicates a slow heart rate below 60 bpm
A
Bradycardia
18
Q
Indicates even heart beats with a good force to each beat
A
Strong and regular
19
Q
Indicates even heart beats with a poor force to each beat
A
Weak and regular
20
Q
Indicates strong heart beats with an irregular rhythm
A
Irregular
21
Q
Indicates a weak force to each beat and irregular beats
A
Thready
22
Q
The period when the greatest amount of pressure is exerted on the walls of the arteries during one’s heartbeat
A
Systole
23
Q
Is it normal or abnormal for diastolic pressure to increase more than 10-15 mm Hg during exercise?
A
Abnormal
24
Q
Abnormally high blood pressure
A
Hypertension
25
Abnormally low blood pressure
Hypotension
26
A condition in which breathing is easier when the person is seated or standing
Orthopnea
27
Labored or difficult breathing
Dyspnea
28
Variation from the normal heart rhythm
Arrhythmia
29
A temporary suspension of consciousness caused by cerebral anemia; fainting.
Syncope
30
What is the most generally accepted average value for normal body temperature?
98.6 degrees F
31
At what point is a person considered to be pyrexic?
When their temperature is >100 degrees F
32
At what point is a person considered to be hyperpyrexic?
When their temperature is >106 degrees F
33
What is the normal respiratory rate for infants at rest?
30-50 breaths per minute
34
What is the normal respiratory rate for adults at rest?
12-18 breaths per minute
35
The best method of controlling bleeding and the one you should try first is:
Direct Pressure
36
In which position should a person in shock be placed?
Supine with the head slightly lower than the lower extremities
37
Is hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia considered a rapid life-threatening emergency?
Hyperglycemia
38
- Gradual onset
- Flushed, dry skin
- Drowsy, fatigued confused
- Breath has a fruity smell
- Deep, labored, or short breath
- Vomiting
- Dry mouth
- Increased thirst
- Large amounts of glucose in urine
- Blurred vision
Hyperglycemia
39
What are some causes of hyperglycemia?
- Not taking or not taking enough insulin
- Too much food or improper food (sugar)
- Not enough physical activity
40
What should you have a hypoglycemic patient do if they are conscious?
Ingest some form of sugar
41
Should you attempt to put something between the teeth of a seizure patient?
No
42
Should you attempt to restrain a seizure victim to prevent injury?
No
43
How should a seizing individual's head be positioned after convulsions subside?
To one side
44
What condition occurs most frequently when a person attempts to stand rapidly from a stooped , kneeling, recumbent or sitting position?
Orthostatic Hypotension
45
- Profuse sweating
- Nausea
- Headache
- Shallow, rapid breathing
- Weak, rapid pulse
- Pale
- Exhaustion, collapsing
- Maybe unconsciousness
- Cramping in legs and trunk
Heat Exhaustion
46
What is the initial treatment for heat exhaustion?
- Place the person in a shady area or room that is ventilated
- Loosen or remove outer clothing
- Monitor vital signs and contact emergency services
47
What are considered severe reactions to an allergy?
Abdominal pain and difficulty swallowing
48
You should elevate the bleeding part above the level of the heart unless you suspect:
Fracture, dislocation, impaled object, or spinal injury
49
If a dressing soaks through with blood, you should:
Leave it in place and put another one over it
50
The best position for a victim with a nosebleed is:
Sitting, leaning forward
51
When bleeding is uncontrolled, the body can't compensate quickly enough and what may occur?
Shock
52
What color is blood from an artery?
Bright red
53
What color is blood from a vein?
Dark red
54
Blood loss from a/an ____ is most difficult to control.
Artery
55
When the patient is bleeding, direct pressure is applied to the _____.
Wound
56
In addition to direct pressure for a bleeding patient, _____ the limb and apply cold packs.
Elevate
57
The preferred position for a person in shock is supine with the feet _____.
Above heart level
58
A condition in which fatty substances and other debris are deposited on the arterial walls is:
Atherosclerosis
59
The most common sign of angina pectoris is:
Chest pain
60
What is the FIRST thing you should do for a responsive victim who exhibits signs and symptoms of a cardiac emergency?
Activate EMS
61
- Dyspnea (shortness of breath)
- Profuse perspiration
- Light-headedness
- Palpitations
- Nausea and/or vomiting
- Pale, cool, moist skin
Angina
62
Angina pectoris usually appears suddenly and is associated with:
Physical Exertion
63
If an adult has had a heart attack and his/her pulse is absent, you should:
Start CPR
64
Brief attacks similar to strokes that occur when arterial blockage is partial or brief.
Transient ischemic attack
65
You should position the conscious victim of a stroke:
On his back with head and shoulders slightly raised
66
- Altered level of consciousness
- Motor function problems
- Sensory function problems
- Altered communication abilities
- Headache that is sudden, severe, or accompanied by a stiff neck
- Flushed or pale face
- Respiratory distress
- Constricted pupils, or pupils unequal in size or reaction
- Loss of bowel or bladder control
- Nausea and/or vomiting
Stroke
67
A condition in which plasma seeps out of the capillaries into the lungs as a result of pressure from a failing heart.
Pulmonary edema
68
Angina pectoris occurs when the heart's demand for _____ exceeds its supply.
Oxygen
69
The major symptom of myocardial infarction is _____.
Chest pain
70
The most common cause of congestive heart failure is
Heart attack
71
As congestive heart failure progresses, fluid builds up behind the failing left side of the heart and into the lungs, resulting in
Pulmonary edema
72
Stroke occurs when _____ to the brain is impaired.
Blood circulation
73
Most strokes are caused by
Thrombus
74
What first aid procedure would you apply for a victim with dyspnea after checking for aspiration and clearing the airway?
Assist with ventilation if needed
75
The number-one goal of first aid care for victims with COPD is to:
Enhance oxygenation
76
The 3 goals of first aid care for asthma are improve oxygenation, relieve bronchospasm, and improve _____.
Ventilation
77
"Over breathing" is associated with what condition?
Hyperventilation
78
Is having the victim of hyperventilation breathe into a paper bag proper first aid care?
No
79
Which position makes it easier for a person in respiratory distress to breathe?
Sitting/Semi-sitting
80
Shortness of breath or difficulty in breathing
Dyspnea
81
Victims of emphysema are sometimes called
Pink Puffers
82
Victims of chronic bronchitis are sometimes called
Blue Bloaters
83
True or False: In a typical asthma attack the victim's cough is productive with producing mucus
False
84
Insulin is a hormone needed to facilitate the movement of _____ out of the bloodstream and into the cell.
Glucose (sugar)
85
Insulin-dependent diabetes (IDDM), in which the victim has little or no ability to produce insulin.
Type I Diabetes
86
Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM), previously called “adult-onset diabetes,” in which the victim produces insulin but either not enough insulin or the cells do not respond to it. Generally controlled by diet, exercise, and/or oral medication.
Type II Diabetes
87
While out golfing, your partner becomes dizzy and light-headed. He says he is a diabetic and hasn’t eaten yet today. What should you do?
Give him sugar
88
Is Hyperglycemia or Hypoglycemia rapid and lifethreatening?
Hyperglycemia
89
You would suspect _____ in a diabetic who skipped lunch for an exercise session, but took prescribed insulin anyway.
Hypoglycemia
90
Hyperglycemia causes _____ breath odor
Fruity
91
Which one of the following is the best position for a victim of a seizure?
On the left side with face pointed downward
92
Do not allow a person who has fainted to:
Sit up immediately
93
A loss of consciousness that results when the brain is temporarily deprived of adequate oxygen is:
Syncope
94
You can help prevent someoned from fainting by placing the head _____.
Between the knees
95
The preferred position for a person who has fainted is _____.
Supine with feet elevated
96
Signs and symptoms include:
- Dry skin, no diaphoresis
- Nausea
- Headache
- Labored breathing
- Strong, rapid pulse
- Flushed, or gray color
- Very elevated temp
- Exhaustion, collapse, convulsions
- Unconscious
- Pupils contract then dilate
Heat Stroke
97
Chest pain caused when the heart’s need for oxygen is not met
Angina Pectoris
98
A disease condition in which the arteries lose their elasticity
Arteriosclerosis
99
A condition in which fatty substances and other debris are deposited on the arterial walls
Artherosclerosis
100
Heart attack, caused when the blood supply to the heart is restricted or cut off
Myocardial Infarction
101
Results when the left ventricle can no longer pump blood effectively to the body
Congestive Heart Failure
102
A condition in which plasma seeps out of the capillaries into the lungs as a result of pressure from a failing heart
Pulmonary Edema
103
Brief attacks similar to strokes that occur when arterial blockage is partial or brief
Transient Ischemic Attack
104
Any disease process that impairs circulation to the brain
Stroke
105
A restriction of blood flow to an area
Ischemia
106
Shortness of breath or difficulty in breathing
Dyspnea
107
A range of diseases including emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and asthma
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
108
A respiratory disease characterized by overinflated alveoli
Emphysema
109
Consisting of a prolonged and life-threatening asthma attack
Status Asthmaticus
110
Overbreathing
Hyperventilation
111
Dizziness
Vertigo
112
Fainting
Syncope
113
An involuntary, sudden change in sensation, behavior, muscle activity, or level of consciousness that results from irritation or overactivity of brain cells
Seizure
114
What are the 5 stages of loss?
- Denial
- Anger
- Bargaining
- Depression
- Acceptance
115
Py/o
Pus
116
Pleur/o
Pleura
117
orth/o
Straight
118
cyan/o
Blue
119
Pector/o
Chest
120
Phren/o
Diaphragm
121
Pneum/o
Air, lung
122
Scler/a
Hardening
123
Ather/o
Fatty plaque
124
Phleb/o
Vein
125
Cardi/o
Heart
126
Angi/o
Vessel (usually blood or lymph
127
Thromb/o
Blood clot
128
The thickening and hardening of the walls of the arteries.
Arteriosclerosis
129
Inflammation of a vein.
Phlebitis
130
Slow heart rate
Bradycardia
131
Record of electrical activity of the heart
Electrocardiogram
132
Condition of a blood clot
Thrombosis
133
Surgical procedure to open blocked coronary arteries caused by coronary artery disease.
Angioplasty
134
Instrument for recording the electrical activity of the heart.
Electrocardiograph
135
Between ventricles
Interventricular
136
Rapid heart rate
Tachycardia
137
Oxygen deficiency in surrounding tissues is called:
Ischemia
138
The blockage of a vessel is called a/an:
Occlusion
139
Sten/o
Narrowing/stricture
140
Vascul/o
Vessel
141
Peri-
Around
142
-sphyxia
pulse
143
Decrease in bone density with an increase in porosity, causing bones to become brittle and increasing the risk of fractures
Osteoporosis
144
Progressive, degenerative joint disease characterized by bone spurs (osteophytes) and destruction of articular cartilage
Osteoarthritis
145
Grating sound made by movement of bone ends rubbing together, indicating a fracture or joint destruction
Crepitation
146
Infection that encompasses all bone (osseous) components, including the bone marrow
Osteomyelitis
147
Abnormal stiffening and immobility of a joint due to fusion of the bones
Ankylosis
148
Disease of cartilage
Chondropathy
149
Inflammation of the spine
Spondylitis
150
softening of the bones, typically through a deficiency of vitamin D or calcium
Osteomalacia
151
Surgical binding or fixing of the joint
Arthrodesis
152
Surgical repair of tendon
Tendoplasty
153
Visual examination of a joint
Arthroscopy
154
A partial or incomplete dislocation is a/an:
Subluxation
155
The abnormal condition of a swayback posture is:
Lordosis
156
Brachi/o
Arm
157
The combining form for bones of fingers and toes is:
Phalang/o
158
The combining form for heal bone is:
Calcane/o
159
The combining form for thigh bone is:
Femor/o
160
The lateral curvature of the spine is called:
Scoliosis
161
The surgical repair of a joint is a/an:
Arthroplasty
162
Tumor comprised of neurological tissue
Glioma
163
Pain of the spinal cord
Myelalgia
164
Excssive accumulaion of fluid on the brain
Hydrocephalus
165
Without nourishment/degeneration of cells
Atrophy
166
Inflammation of the brain
Encephalitis
167
Herniation of the menings
Meningocele
168
Paralysis of four limbs
Quadraplegia
169
Inflammation of nerves
Neuritis
170
Absence or without speech
Aphasia
171
Paralysis on one side of the body
Hemiplegia
172
Disease of the spinal cord
Myelopathy
173
Another term for stroke is:
Cerebralvascular Accident (CVA)
174
A medical word for loss of muscle function is:
Paralysis
175
The suffix -lepsy means:
Seizure
176
Of abrupt onset, in reference to a disease. Often also connotes an illness that is of short duration, rapidly progressive, and in need of urgent care.
Acute
177
A disease lasting a long time/3 months or more
Chronic
178
A _____ tumor is one that does not invade surrounding tissue or spread to other parts of the body.
Benign
179
Tending to produce deterioration or death; In regard to a tumor, having properties that can invade and destroy nearby tissue and that may spread to other parts of the body
Malignant
180
The study of causes, as in the causes of a disease
Etiology
181
A worsening; in medicine, this may refer to an increase in the severity of a disease or it's signs and symptoms
Exacerbation
182
Disappearance of the signs and symptoms of cancer or other disease
Remission
183
Of unknown cause; any disease that is of uncertain or unknown origin
Idiopathic
184
Affecting the entire body
Systemic
185
A vague feeling of discomfort, one that cannot be pinned down but is often sensed as ''just not right''
Malaise
186
Illness, disease
Morbidity
187
The forecast of the probable outcome or course of a disease; the patient's chance of recovery
Prognosis
188
Increasing in scope or severity, advancing, or going forward
Progressive
189
Appearing or occuring again
Recurrent
190
A combination of symptoms and signs that together represent a disease process
Syndrome
191
In the state of Maryland, can a PTA provide supervision to a PT student
No
192
T or F: A PT Aide may assist a PTA without direct supervision of the PT if the safety and welfare of the patient is at risk
True
193
T or F: A PTA may modify the PT Plan of Care if the patient requests a change of treatment.
False
194
T or F: A PTA may decide to discontinue a treatment procedure that appears to be harmful to the patient
True
195
T or F: A PTA may initiate treatment with a patient before the Plan of Care has been established if the patient is in pain
False
196
T or F: Only the PT can write the discharge summary
True
197
What is the level of supervision required in the state of Maryland for a licensed PTA?
Direction
198
What is the level of supervision required in the state of Maryland for a PTA student?
Direct Supervision
199
What is the level of supervision required in the state of Maryland for a PT Aide?
Direct Supervision
200
Who is responsible for integrating the 6 elements of patient/client management
The Physical Therapist
201
a physical therapist is physically present and immediately available in the same area of the facility
Direct Supervision
202
a person working under the direction of a physical therapist and performing those procedures that are assigned by a physical therapist within the scope of limited physical therapy
Physical Therapist Assistant
203
the physical therapist maintains continuing written and verbal contact with the physical therapist assistant
Direction
204
means of gathering data about the patient
Tests and Measures
205
Purposeful interaction of the PT or PTA with the patient
Intervention
206
The systematic gathering of data, past and present, related to why the patient is seeking services
Evaluation
207
Determination of the predicted optimal level of improvement in function
Prognosis
208
Labels usued to describe multiple dimensions of the patient
Diagnosis
209
A limited examination of the cardiovascular/pulmonary
Systems review
210
Clinical judgements based on data gathered from an examination
Evaluation
211
Diagnosis determined by the physical therapist
Physical therapy diagnosis
212
Diagnosis determined by a physician
Medical Diagnosis
