Module B Flashcards

1
Q

What factors cause body temperature to increase

A
  • Late in the day
  • Younger age
  • Hot environment
  • Infection
  • Increased Physical Activity
  • Increased stress
  • Rectal site for measurement
  • During ovulation or pregnancy
  • Measurement taken orally after consuming something hot
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2
Q

What factors cause body temperature to decrease?

A
  • Early morning
  • Younger age
  • Cold environment
  • Decrease in physical activity
  • Decreased Stress
  • Measurement taken in the axilla
  • Measurement taken after consuming something cold
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3
Q

What factors cause blood pressure to be higher

A
  • Older age
  • Increased physical activity
  • Increased stress
  • Certain medications
  • Smaller veins
  • Lower arm position
  • Muscle contraction
  • Increased blood volume
  • Increased cardiac output
  • Measurement taken in the left upper extremity
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4
Q

What factors cause blood pressure to be lower?

A
  • Younger age
  • Decreased physical activity
  • Decreased stress
  • Certain medications
  • Larger veins
  • Higher arm position
  • Decreased blood volume
  • Dehydration
  • Decreased cardiac output
  • Measurement taken at right upper extremity
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5
Q

What factors cause a pulse rate to be higher?

A
  • Younger age
  • Females
  • Hotter environment
  • Infection
  • Increased physical activity
  • Increased stress
  • Certain medications
  • Hypotension
  • Less athletic
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6
Q

What factors cause a pulse rate to be lower?

A
  • Older age
  • Males
  • Colder temperature
  • Decreased physical activity
  • Decreased stress
  • Certain medications
  • Hypertension
  • More athletic
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7
Q

What factors cause respiration rate to be higher?

A
  • Very young or very old
  • Increased physical activity
  • Increased stress
  • High altitude
  • Disease
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8
Q

What is the normal resting heart rate for newborns (0-3 months)?

A

100-150 bpm

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9
Q

What is the normal resting heart rate for children (1-10 years)?

A

70-130 bpm

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10
Q

What is the normal resting heart rate for adults (10+ years)?

A

60-100 bpm

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11
Q

What is normal blood pressure for infants (birth-3 months)?

A

85-90 systolic, 35-65 diastolic

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12
Q

What is normal blood pressure for children (1-4 years)?

A

100-108 systolic, 60 diastolic

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13
Q

What is normal blood pressure for adults?

A

<120 systolic, <80 diastolic

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14
Q

How do you get the smallest margin for error when measuring heart rate?

A

By measuring for the maximum amount of seconds

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15
Q

How should the arm be positioned when blood pressure is measured at the brachial artery?

A

At the level of the heart

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16
Q

Indicates a rapid heart rate over 100 bpm

A

Tachycardia

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17
Q

Indicates a slow heart rate below 60 bpm

A

Bradycardia

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18
Q

Indicates even heart beats with a good force to each beat

A

Strong and regular

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19
Q

Indicates even heart beats with a poor force to each beat

A

Weak and regular

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20
Q

Indicates strong heart beats with an irregular rhythm

A

Irregular

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21
Q

Indicates a weak force to each beat and irregular beats

A

Thready

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22
Q

The period when the greatest amount of pressure is exerted on the walls of the arteries during one’s heartbeat

A

Systole

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23
Q

Is it normal or abnormal for diastolic pressure to increase more than 10-15 mm Hg during exercise?

A

Abnormal

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24
Q

Abnormally high blood pressure

A

Hypertension

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25
Q

Abnormally low blood pressure

A

Hypotension

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26
Q

A condition in which breathing is easier when the person is seated or standing

A

Orthopnea

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27
Q

Labored or difficult breathing

A

Dyspnea

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28
Q

Variation from the normal heart rhythm

A

Arrhythmia

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29
Q

A temporary suspension of consciousness caused by cerebral anemia; fainting.

A

Syncope

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30
Q

What is the most generally accepted average value for normal body temperature?

A

98.6 degrees F

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31
Q

At what point is a person considered to be pyrexic?

A

When their temperature is >100 degrees F

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32
Q

At what point is a person considered to be hyperpyrexic?

A

When their temperature is >106 degrees F

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33
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for infants at rest?

A

30-50 breaths per minute

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34
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for adults at rest?

A

12-18 breaths per minute

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35
Q

The best method of controlling bleeding and the one you should try first is:

A

Direct Pressure

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36
Q

In which position should a person in shock be placed?

A

Supine with the head slightly lower than the lower extremities

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37
Q

Is hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia considered a rapid life-threatening emergency?

A

Hyperglycemia

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38
Q
  • Gradual onset
  • Flushed, dry skin
  • Drowsy, fatigued confused
  • Breath has a fruity smell
  • Deep, labored, or short breath
  • Vomiting
  • Dry mouth
  • Increased thirst
  • Large amounts of glucose in urine
  • Blurred vision
A

Hyperglycemia

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39
Q

What are some causes of hyperglycemia?

A
  • Not taking or not taking enough insulin
  • Too much food or improper food (sugar)
  • Not enough physical activity
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40
Q

What should you have a hypoglycemic patient do if they are conscious?

A

Ingest some form of sugar

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41
Q

Should you attempt to put something between the teeth of a seizure patient?

A

No

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42
Q

Should you attempt to restrain a seizure victim to prevent injury?

A

No

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43
Q

How should a seizing individual’s head be positioned after convulsions subside?

A

To one side

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44
Q

What condition occurs most frequently when a person attempts to stand rapidly from a stooped , kneeling, recumbent or sitting position?

A

Orthostatic Hypotension

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45
Q
  • Profuse sweating
  • Nausea
  • Headache
  • Shallow, rapid breathing
  • Weak, rapid pulse
  • Pale
  • Exhaustion, collapsing
  • Maybe unconsciousness
  • Cramping in legs and trunk
A

Heat Exhaustion

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46
Q

What is the initial treatment for heat exhaustion?

A
  • Place the person in a shady area or room that is ventilated
  • Loosen or remove outer clothing
  • Monitor vital signs and contact emergency services
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47
Q

What are considered severe reactions to an allergy?

A

Abdominal pain and difficulty swallowing

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48
Q

You should elevate the bleeding part above the level of the heart unless you suspect:

A

Fracture, dislocation, impaled object, or spinal injury

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49
Q

If a dressing soaks through with blood, you should:

A

Leave it in place and put another one over it

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50
Q

The best position for a victim with a nosebleed is:

A

Sitting, leaning forward

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51
Q

When bleeding is uncontrolled, the body can’t compensate quickly enough and what may occur?

A

Shock

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52
Q

What color is blood from an artery?

A

Bright red

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53
Q

What color is blood from a vein?

A

Dark red

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54
Q

Blood loss from a/an ____ is most difficult to control.

A

Artery

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55
Q

When the patient is bleeding, direct pressure is applied to the _____.

A

Wound

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56
Q

In addition to direct pressure for a bleeding patient, _____ the limb and apply cold packs.

A

Elevate

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57
Q

The preferred position for a person in shock is supine with the feet _____.

A

Above heart level

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58
Q

A condition in which fatty substances and other debris are deposited on the arterial walls is:

A

Atherosclerosis

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59
Q

The most common sign of angina pectoris is:

A

Chest pain

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60
Q

What is the FIRST thing you should do for a responsive victim who exhibits signs and symptoms of a cardiac emergency?

A

Activate EMS

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61
Q
  • Dyspnea (shortness of breath)
  • Profuse perspiration
  • Light-headedness
  • Palpitations
  • Nausea and/or vomiting
  • Pale, cool, moist skin
A

Angina

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62
Q

Angina pectoris usually appears suddenly and is associated with:

A

Physical Exertion

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63
Q

If an adult has had a heart attack and his/her pulse is absent, you should:

A

Start CPR

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64
Q

Brief attacks similar to strokes that occur when arterial blockage is partial or brief.

A

Transient ischemic attack

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65
Q

You should position the conscious victim of a stroke:

A

On his back with head and shoulders slightly raised

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66
Q
  • Altered level of consciousness
  • Motor function problems
  • Sensory function problems
  • Altered communication abilities
  • Headache that is sudden, severe, or accompanied by a stiff neck
  • Flushed or pale face
  • Respiratory distress
  • Constricted pupils, or pupils unequal in size or reaction
  • Loss of bowel or bladder control
  • Nausea and/or vomiting
A

Stroke

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67
Q

A condition in which plasma seeps out of the capillaries into the lungs as a result of pressure from a failing heart.

A

Pulmonary edema

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68
Q

Angina pectoris occurs when the heart’s demand for _____ exceeds its supply.

A

Oxygen

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69
Q

The major symptom of myocardial infarction is _____.

A

Chest pain

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70
Q

The most common cause of congestive heart failure is

A

Heart attack

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71
Q

As congestive heart failure progresses, fluid builds up behind the failing left side of the heart and into the lungs, resulting in

A

Pulmonary edema

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72
Q

Stroke occurs when _____ to the brain is impaired.

A

Blood circulation

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73
Q

Most strokes are caused by

A

Thrombus

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74
Q

What first aid procedure would you apply for a victim with dyspnea after checking for aspiration and clearing the airway?

A

Assist with ventilation if needed

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75
Q

The number-one goal of first aid care for victims with COPD is to:

A

Enhance oxygenation

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76
Q

The 3 goals of first aid care for asthma are improve oxygenation, relieve bronchospasm, and improve _____.

A

Ventilation

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77
Q

“Over breathing” is associated with what condition?

A

Hyperventilation

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78
Q

Is having the victim of hyperventilation breathe into a paper bag proper first aid care?

A

No

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79
Q

Which position makes it easier for a person in respiratory distress to breathe?

A

Sitting/Semi-sitting

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80
Q

Shortness of breath or difficulty in breathing

A

Dyspnea

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81
Q

Victims of emphysema are sometimes called

A

Pink Puffers

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82
Q

Victims of chronic bronchitis are sometimes called

A

Blue Bloaters

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83
Q

True or False: In a typical asthma attack the victim’s cough is productive with producing mucus

A

False

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84
Q

Insulin is a hormone needed to facilitate the movement of _____ out of the bloodstream and into the cell.

A

Glucose (sugar)

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85
Q

Insulin-dependent diabetes (IDDM), in which the victim has little or no ability to produce insulin.

A

Type I Diabetes

86
Q

Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM), previously called “adult-onset diabetes,” in which the victim produces insulin but either not enough insulin or the cells do not respond to it. Generally controlled by diet, exercise, and/or oral medication.

A

Type II Diabetes

87
Q

While out golfing, your partner becomes dizzy and light-headed. He says he is a diabetic and hasn’t eaten yet today. What should you do?

A

Give him sugar

88
Q

Is Hyperglycemia or Hypoglycemia rapid and lifethreatening?

A

Hyperglycemia

89
Q

You would suspect _____ in a diabetic who skipped lunch for an exercise session, but took prescribed insulin anyway.

A

Hypoglycemia

90
Q

Hyperglycemia causes _____ breath odor

A

Fruity

91
Q

Which one of the following is the best position for a victim of a seizure?

A

On the left side with face pointed downward

92
Q

Do not allow a person who has fainted to:

A

Sit up immediately

93
Q

A loss of consciousness that results when the brain is temporarily deprived of adequate oxygen is:

A

Syncope

94
Q

You can help prevent someoned from fainting by placing the head _____.

A

Between the knees

95
Q

The preferred position for a person who has fainted is _____.

A

Supine with feet elevated

96
Q

Signs and symptoms include:

  • Dry skin, no diaphoresis
  • Nausea
  • Headache
  • Labored breathing
  • Strong, rapid pulse
  • Flushed, or gray color
  • Very elevated temp
  • Exhaustion, collapse, convulsions
  • Unconscious
  • Pupils contract then dilate
A

Heat Stroke

97
Q

Chest pain caused when the heart’s need for oxygen is not met

A

Angina Pectoris

98
Q

A disease condition in which the arteries lose their elasticity

A

Arteriosclerosis

99
Q

A condition in which fatty substances and other debris are deposited on the arterial walls

A

Artherosclerosis

100
Q

Heart attack, caused when the blood supply to the heart is restricted or cut off

A

Myocardial Infarction

101
Q

Results when the left ventricle can no longer pump blood effectively to the body

A

Congestive Heart Failure

102
Q

A condition in which plasma seeps out of the capillaries into the lungs as a result of pressure from a failing heart

A

Pulmonary Edema

103
Q

Brief attacks similar to strokes that occur when arterial blockage is partial or brief

A

Transient Ischemic Attack

104
Q

Any disease process that impairs circulation to the brain

A

Stroke

105
Q

A restriction of blood flow to an area

A

Ischemia

106
Q

Shortness of breath or difficulty in breathing

A

Dyspnea

107
Q

A range of diseases including emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and asthma

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

108
Q

A respiratory disease characterized by overinflated alveoli

A

Emphysema

109
Q

Consisting of a prolonged and life-threatening asthma attack

A

Status Asthmaticus

110
Q

Overbreathing

A

Hyperventilation

111
Q

Dizziness

A

Vertigo

112
Q

Fainting

A

Syncope

113
Q

An involuntary, sudden change in sensation, behavior, muscle activity, or level of consciousness that results from irritation or overactivity of brain cells

A

Seizure

114
Q

What are the 5 stages of loss?

A
  • Denial
  • Anger
  • Bargaining
  • Depression
  • Acceptance
115
Q

Py/o

A

Pus

116
Q

Pleur/o

A

Pleura

117
Q

orth/o

A

Straight

118
Q

cyan/o

A

Blue

119
Q

Pector/o

A

Chest

120
Q

Phren/o

A

Diaphragm

121
Q

Pneum/o

A

Air, lung

122
Q

Scler/a

A

Hardening

123
Q

Ather/o

A

Fatty plaque

124
Q

Phleb/o

A

Vein

125
Q

Cardi/o

A

Heart

126
Q

Angi/o

A

Vessel (usually blood or lymph

127
Q

Thromb/o

A

Blood clot

128
Q

The thickening and hardening of the walls of the arteries.

A

Arteriosclerosis

129
Q

Inflammation of a vein.

A

Phlebitis

130
Q

Slow heart rate

A

Bradycardia

131
Q

Record of electrical activity of the heart

A

Electrocardiogram

132
Q

Condition of a blood clot

A

Thrombosis

133
Q

Surgical procedure to open blocked coronary arteries caused by coronary artery disease.

A

Angioplasty

134
Q

Instrument for recording the electrical activity of the heart.

A

Electrocardiograph

135
Q

Between ventricles

A

Interventricular

136
Q

Rapid heart rate

A

Tachycardia

137
Q

Oxygen deficiency in surrounding tissues is called:

A

Ischemia

138
Q

The blockage of a vessel is called a/an:

A

Occlusion

139
Q

Sten/o

A

Narrowing/stricture

140
Q

Vascul/o

A

Vessel

141
Q

Peri-

A

Around

142
Q

-sphyxia

A

pulse

143
Q

Decrease in bone density with an increase in porosity, causing bones to become brittle and increasing the risk of fractures

A

Osteoporosis

144
Q

Progressive, degenerative joint disease characterized by bone spurs (osteophytes) and destruction of articular cartilage

A

Osteoarthritis

145
Q

Grating sound made by movement of bone ends rubbing together, indicating a fracture or joint destruction

A

Crepitation

146
Q

Infection that encompasses all bone (osseous) components, including the bone marrow

A

Osteomyelitis

147
Q

Abnormal stiffening and immobility of a joint due to fusion of the bones

A

Ankylosis

148
Q

Disease of cartilage

A

Chondropathy

149
Q

Inflammation of the spine

A

Spondylitis

150
Q

softening of the bones, typically through a deficiency of vitamin D or calcium

A

Osteomalacia

151
Q

Surgical binding or fixing of the joint

A

Arthrodesis

152
Q

Surgical repair of tendon

A

Tendoplasty

153
Q

Visual examination of a joint

A

Arthroscopy

154
Q

A partial or incomplete dislocation is a/an:

A

Subluxation

155
Q

The abnormal condition of a swayback posture is:

A

Lordosis

156
Q

Brachi/o

A

Arm

157
Q

The combining form for bones of fingers and toes is:

A

Phalang/o

158
Q

The combining form for heal bone is:

A

Calcane/o

159
Q

The combining form for thigh bone is:

A

Femor/o

160
Q

The lateral curvature of the spine is called:

A

Scoliosis

161
Q

The surgical repair of a joint is a/an:

A

Arthroplasty

162
Q

Tumor comprised of neurological tissue

A

Glioma

163
Q

Pain of the spinal cord

A

Myelalgia

164
Q

Excssive accumulaion of fluid on the brain

A

Hydrocephalus

165
Q

Without nourishment/degeneration of cells

A

Atrophy

166
Q

Inflammation of the brain

A

Encephalitis

167
Q

Herniation of the menings

A

Meningocele

168
Q

Paralysis of four limbs

A

Quadraplegia

169
Q

Inflammation of nerves

A

Neuritis

170
Q

Absence or without speech

A

Aphasia

171
Q

Paralysis on one side of the body

A

Hemiplegia

172
Q

Disease of the spinal cord

A

Myelopathy

173
Q

Another term for stroke is:

A

Cerebralvascular Accident (CVA)

174
Q

A medical word for loss of muscle function is:

A

Paralysis

175
Q

The suffix -lepsy means:

A

Seizure

176
Q

Of abrupt onset, in reference to a disease. Often also connotes an illness that is of short duration, rapidly progressive, and in need of urgent care.

A

Acute

177
Q

A disease lasting a long time/3 months or more

A

Chronic

178
Q

A _____ tumor is one that does not invade surrounding tissue or spread to other parts of the body.

A

Benign

179
Q

Tending to produce deterioration or death; In regard to a tumor, having properties that can invade and destroy nearby tissue and that may spread to other parts of the body

A

Malignant

180
Q

The study of causes, as in the causes of a disease

A

Etiology

181
Q

A worsening; in medicine, this may refer to an increase in the severity of a disease or it’s signs and symptoms

A

Exacerbation

182
Q

Disappearance of the signs and symptoms of cancer or other disease

A

Remission

183
Q

Of unknown cause; any disease that is of uncertain or unknown origin

A

Idiopathic

184
Q

Affecting the entire body

A

Systemic

185
Q

A vague feeling of discomfort, one that cannot be pinned down but is often sensed as ‘‘just not right’’

A

Malaise

186
Q

Illness, disease

A

Morbidity

187
Q

The forecast of the probable outcome or course of a disease; the patient’s chance of recovery

A

Prognosis

188
Q

Increasing in scope or severity, advancing, or going forward

A

Progressive

189
Q

Appearing or occuring again

A

Recurrent

190
Q

A combination of symptoms and signs that together represent a disease process

A

Syndrome

191
Q

In the state of Maryland, can a PTA provide supervision to a PT student

A

No

192
Q

T or F: A PT Aide may assist a PTA without direct supervision of the PT if the safety and welfare of the patient is at risk

A

True

193
Q

T or F: A PTA may modify the PT Plan of Care if the patient requests a change of treatment.

A

False

194
Q

T or F: A PTA may decide to discontinue a treatment procedure that appears to be harmful to the patient

A

True

195
Q

T or F: A PTA may initiate treatment with a patient before the Plan of Care has been established if the patient is in pain

A

False

196
Q

T or F: Only the PT can write the discharge summary

A

True

197
Q

What is the level of supervision required in the state of Maryland for a licensed PTA?

A

Direction

198
Q

What is the level of supervision required in the state of Maryland for a PTA student?

A

Direct Supervision

199
Q

What is the level of supervision required in the state of Maryland for a PT Aide?

A

Direct Supervision

200
Q

Who is responsible for integrating the 6 elements of patient/client management

A

The Physical Therapist

201
Q

a physical therapist is physically present and immediately available in the same area of the facility

A

Direct Supervision

202
Q

a person working under the direction of a physical therapist and performing those procedures that are assigned by a physical therapist within the scope of limited physical therapy

A

Physical Therapist Assistant

203
Q

the physical therapist maintains continuing written and verbal contact with the physical therapist assistant

A

Direction

204
Q

means of gathering data about the patient

A

Tests and Measures

205
Q

Purposeful interaction of the PT or PTA with the patient

A

Intervention

206
Q

The systematic gathering of data, past and present, related to why the patient is seeking services

A

Evaluation

207
Q

Determination of the predicted optimal level of improvement in function

A

Prognosis

208
Q

Labels usued to describe multiple dimensions of the patient

A

Diagnosis

209
Q

A limited examination of the cardiovascular/pulmonary

A

Systems review

210
Q

Clinical judgements based on data gathered from an examination

A

Evaluation

211
Q

Diagnosis determined by the physical therapist

A

Physical therapy diagnosis

212
Q

Diagnosis determined by a physician

A

Medical Diagnosis