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PTA 101 > Module A > Flashcards

Module A Flashcards

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1
Q

… analyze multiple studies already performed in a subject area, classifying them in terms of quality and outcomes.

A

Systematic reviews

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2
Q

… compare the same variable studied in multiple articles in an attempt to quantify the results.

A

Meta-analyses

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3
Q

A study in which subjects are randomly assigned either to an experimental group that receives a given intervention or to a control group that receives no intervention. Outcomes of the experimental group are then compared with those of the control group.

A

Randomized controlled trials

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4
Q

Subjects all responded negatively before a given intervention is provided, but only some do so after receiving it, OR some subjects responded negatively before a given intervention is provided, but now none do after receiving it.

A

“All or none” studies

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5
Q

One or more groups of similar subjects are followed over a period of time to see whether differences develop based on exposure to another variable.

A

Cohort studies

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6
Q

Subjects for a study are selected based on having a particular condition; they are then retroactively studied to determine whether there were other common factors that predisposed them to that condition.

A

Case control studies

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7
Q

Comparing a few individuals with similar individual presentations or outcomes.

A

Case series studies

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8
Q

One patient’s history, condition, and outcomes are analyzed

A

Individual case studies

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9
Q

Using an intervention because of past success using it or because of someone else’s recommendation.

A

Expert opinion/experience

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10
Q

What is the difference between reliability and validity in research?

A 
Reliability = how consistent something is
Validity = how accurate something is
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11
Q

The probability that true score for a variable lies between a certain range of scores. Generally expected to be at 95% or more.

A

Confidence interval

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12
Q

The likelihood that the results of the study could have occurred by chance (not because of a real difference in interventions).

A

Probability

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13
Q

The amount by which scores vary from the mean.

A

Standard deviation

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14
Q

The consistency of scores taken by one clinician taken at different times.

A

Intra-rater reliability

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15
Q

The consistency of scores taken by one clinician taken at different times.

A

Intra-rater reliability

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16
Q

A test’s ability to identify people who have a certain condition.

A

Sensitivity

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17
Q

A test’s ability to identify people who do not have a certain condition

A

Specificity

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18
Q

Evidence-based practice includes…

A
  • Research evidence
  • Clinical judgment
  • Patient Values
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19
Q

Which type of evidence is the strongest?

A

Systematic Review

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20
Q

Where would be the best source to go to find a consolidation of practice recommendations for a condition, based on current evidence and research available?

A

Clinical Practice Guideline

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21
Q

What year did the first colleges admit PTA students?

A

1967

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22
Q

Describe 2 major events that influenced the development of the profession of physical therapy?

A

The polio epidemic and WWI

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23
Q

Who was the first president of the American Physical Therapy Association?

A

Mary McMillan

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24
Q

Applies standards that assure continuous improvement with entry-level preparation of physical therapists and physical therapist assistants.

A

Commission on Accreditation in Physical Therapy Education (CAPTE)

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25
Q

A body that represents PTA interests, needs and issues in APTA Governance

A

PTA Caucus

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26
Q

Highest policy making body of the APTA

A

House of Delegates

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27
Q

National conference for students in physical therapy.

A

National Student Conclave

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28
Q

Encourages and facilitates APTA member participation in the political process

A

Physical Therapy Political Action Committee (PT-PAC)

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29
Q

What is Vision 2020

A

A goal written in the year 2000 by APTA for the progression of physical therapy by the year 2020

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30
Q

What are the 6 elements of Vision 2020

A
  • Autonomous Physical Therapist Practice
  • Direct Access
  • Doctor of Physical Therapy and Lifelong education
  • Evidence-based Practice
  • Practitioner of Choice
  • Professionalism
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31
Q

Summarize the APTA Vision Statement for Physical Therapy

A

Improving society’s quality of life by increasing and perfecting movement

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32
Q

Ability of the public to directly access physical therapist’s services

A

Direct Access

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33
Q

A document posted by the APTA describes the critical elements that comprise professionalism

A

Core Values

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34
Q

Further the profession’s role in the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of movement dysfunctions and the enhancement of the physical health and functional abilities of the public.

A

APTA Mission

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35
Q

Regulates the practice of physical therapy in the state of Maryland

A

Maryland State Board of Physical Therapy (MSBPT)

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36
Q

The governing body for certification and recertification of clinical specialists

A

American Board of Physical Therapy Specialties (ABPTS)

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37
Q

Develops and administers the National Physical Therapy Examination

A

Federal of State Boards of Physical Therapy (FSBPT)

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38
Q

Principal membership organization that stands for and promotes the profession of physical therapy

A

American Physical Therapy Association (APTA)

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39
Q

List all forms of nonverbal communication

A
  • Facial expressions and body language
  • Eye contact
  • Personal space and touch
  • Physical appearance of the provider
  • Attitude and focus
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40
Q

What are the 3 methods of active listening

A
  • Restatement
  • Reflection
  • Clarification
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41
Q

Re-write the following statement using “people first” language: He is a quadriplegic.

A

The man has quadriplegia

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42
Q

Re-write the following statement using “people first” language: It is a fund-raiser for the mentally retarded.

A

It is a fundraiser for people with mental disabilities

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43
Q

Re-write the following statement using “people first” language: The blind man came in last

A

The man with visual impairments came in last

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44
Q

Re-write the following statement using “people first language: The developmentally disabled children

A

The children who have developmental disabilities

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45
Q

Re-write the following statement using “people first” language: Congenitally-dislocated hips (speaking of babies)

A

Babies with congenitally-dislocated hips

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46
Q

Re-write the following statement using “people first” language: Confined to a wheelchair

A

The person uses a wheelchair

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47
Q

Re-write the following statement using “people first” language: Stricken with Lou Gehrig’s disease

A

The person has Lou Gehrig’s disease

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48
Q

Re-write the following statement using “people first language: Cystic fibrosis kids

A

Kids with cystic fibrosis

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49
Q

What is the definition of a nosocomial infection?

A

An infection that originates in the hospital

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50
Q

Microorganisms move from place to place by various means in a cyclical manner. What are the 6 elements in the cycle of infection?

A
  • Reservoir
  • Exit
  • Transmission
  • Entry
  • Susception
  • Infection
51
Q

What is the best measure for preventing the spread of infection?

A

Hand washing

52
Q

What is the meaning of Standard Precautions

A

A system of infection control that is taken with all patients regardless of their diagnosis or infection status

53
Q

According to Pierson and Fairchild, what is the recommended length of time for hand washing?

A

40-60 seconds

54
Q

When do you don (put on) protective garments when working with a patient in a hospital with transmission precautions?

A

Before entering their room

55
Q

When do you doff (take off) your protective garments after working with a patient in the hospital with transmission precautions?

A

Before leaving their room

56
Q

What color are the receptacles that are used to dispose infectious waste in a health care setting?

A

Red

57
Q

According to Standard Precautions for contact transmission, what protocol is used for items that are removed from the patient’s room?

A

Patient care items should remain in the room. If any item has to be removed, it must be disinfected and or placed in a bag labeled “biohazard”.

58
Q

What is the term to describe practices that render and keep objects and areas free of all microorganisms, preventing the spread of infection to a patient?

A

Surgical asepsis

59
Q

What is the proper clothing application sequence for aseptic application?

A
  • Gown
  • Mask
  • Glasses/goggles
  • Cap
  • Gloves
60
Q

When is protective eyewear most important

A

During times when blood splashes or sprays of other bodily fluids is likely

61
Q

What are the most common modes of transmission of pathogenic microorganisms?

A
  • Contact
  • Droplet
  • Airborne
62
Q

In applying an alcohol-based hand rub, what is the appropriate step to take after rubbing the product briskly over all surfaces of the hands?

A

Continuing to rub until the hands are dry

63
Q

What is the absence of disease-producing microorganisms?

A

Asepsis

64
Q

Which areas of the side-lying patient are at greatest risk for pressure sores?

A
  • Lateral ears
  • Lateral ribs
  • Greater trochanters
  • Humeral epicondyles
65
Q

Which area of pillow placement is most likely to contribute to a contracture of the hamstring muscles in prone positioning?

A

Anterior to the ankles

66
Q

Which areas of a prone patient are at greatest risk for pressure sores?

A
  • Acromion processes
  • Forehead
  • Crests of the tibias
  • Dorsum of the feet
67
Q

In general, how frequently should a dependent patient’s position be changed?

A

At least every 2 hours

68
Q

Which areas are especially prone to pressure sores in a patient who is wheelchair dependant?

A
  • Ischial tuberosities

- Olecranon Processes

69
Q

What is the possible effect of the placement of a small bolster behind the knees of a supine patient?

A

Iliopsoas and hamstring contracture

70
Q

Which areas of a supine patient are at greatest risk for pressure sores?

A
  • Occipital tuberosity
  • Spines of the scapula
  • Sacrum
  • Heels
71
Q

A muscle contraction that develops tension but does not perform any mechanical work; no appreciable joint motion occurs, and the overall length of the muscle remains constant.

A

Isometric Contraction

72
Q

A muscle contraction whereby tension is developed and movement of a joint or body part occurs; and eccentric or concentric contraction can occur, and the muscle may lengthen or shorten

A

Isotonic Contraction

73
Q

An overall shortening of a muscle as it develops tension and contracts.

A

Concentric Contraction

74
Q

An overall lengthening of a muscle as it develops tension and contracts to control motion performed by an outside force

A

Eccentric Contraction

75
Q

Exercise performed by a person with manual or mechanical assistance

A

Active assistive exercise

76
Q

Exercise performed by a person without any manual or mechanical assistance

A

Active exercise

77
Q

The movement of a joint or body segment by a force external to the body within an unrestricted and normal ROM without active, voluntary muscle contraction by the patient

A

Passive Range of Motion

78
Q

Trunk rotation occurs in which of the following planes of motion?

A

Transverse plane

79
Q

Shoulder flexion occurs in which plane of motion?

A

Sagittal plane

80
Q

Hip abduction occurs in which plane of motion?

A

Frontal plane

81
Q

What position could you put a patient in in order for them to flex the shoulder with gravity eliminated?

A

Side-lying

82
Q

Which position could you put the patient in to extend the hip against gravity

A

Prone

83
Q

What position is gravity-eliminated for shoulder abduction.

A

Supine

84
Q

What position could you put the patient in to perform right hip adduction with gravity eliminated?

A

Supine

85
Q

Which type of muscle contraction describes a controlled and consistent speed of contraction?

A

Isokinetic

86
Q

Which cardinal plane divides the body into right and left components?

A

Sagittal

87
Q

Which type of contraction involves no voluntary contraction of muscle and, therefore, will not help prevent muscle atrophy?

A

Passive Range of Motion

88
Q

Arthr/o is an example of a:

A

combining form

89
Q

In the word therm/o/meter, -meter is a/an:

A

suffix

90
Q

Oste/o/chondr/itis is an example of a :

A

compound word

91
Q

A combining form is a word root plus:

A

A vowel

92
Q

What combining form means joint?

A

Arthr/o

93
Q

An element located at the beginning of a medical word is a:

A

Prefix

94
Q

True or False: All medical words have a prefix.

A

False

95
Q

True or False: A word root plus o creates a combining form.

A

True

96
Q

True or False: the word “Systole” in pronounced as a separate syllable.

A

True

97
Q

Pertaining to the tail or the hind part

A

Caudad

98
Q

Pertaining to the front of the body

A

Ventral/Anterior

99
Q

Pertaining to the back of the body

A

Posterior

100
Q

Near the point of attachment to the trunk or a structure

A

Proximal

101
Q

Pertaining to the side; toward the side

A

Lateral

102
Q

Pertaining to the middle; toward the midline

A

Medial

103
Q

Below or lower; toward the tail

A

Inferior

104
Q

Relating to the spine

A

Spinal

105
Q

Physician who studies tissue

A

Histologist

106
Q

Middle region located in the area of the umbilicus, or navel

A

Umbilical

107
Q

Term for when the body is erect, and the eyes are looking forward

A

Anatomical Position

108
Q

The combining form thorac/o means

A

Pertaining to the chest

109
Q

The body cavity that contains the lungs is the

A

Thoracic

110
Q

The combining form cyt/o means;

A

cell

111
Q

Leuk/o is the combining form for:

A

White

112
Q

The combining form for yellow is:

A

Jaund/o

113
Q

The frontal (or coronal) plane divides the body into:

A

2 dorsal cavities and 2 ventral cavities

114
Q

The prefix ad- means

A

Toward

115
Q

The combining form for farthest is:

A

dist/o

116
Q

What age range is the “Trust vs Mistrust” stage of life

A

0-12 mnths

117
Q

What age range is the “Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt” stage of life

A

2-4

118
Q

What age range is the “Initiative vs Guilt” stage of life

A

4-5

119
Q

What age range is the “Industry vs Inferiority” stage of life

A

6-11

120
Q

What age range is the “Identity vs Identity Diffusion” stage of life

A

12-18

121
Q

When is the “Intamacy vs Isolation” stage of life

A

The first phase of adulthood

122
Q

When is the “Generativity vs Stagnation” stage of life

A

The second phase of adulthood

123
Q

When is the “Integrity vs Despair” stage of life

A

The last phase of life

PTA 101 (3 decks)

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