Module A Flashcards

1
Q

… analyze multiple studies already performed in a subject area, classifying them in terms of quality and outcomes.

A

Systematic reviews

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2
Q

… compare the same variable studied in multiple articles in an attempt to quantify the results.

A

Meta-analyses

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3
Q

A study in which subjects are randomly assigned either to an experimental group that receives a given intervention or to a control group that receives no intervention. Outcomes of the experimental group are then compared with those of the control group.

A

Randomized controlled trials

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4
Q

Subjects all responded negatively before a given intervention is provided, but only some do so after receiving it, OR some subjects responded negatively before a given intervention is provided, but now none do after receiving it.

A

“All or none” studies

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5
Q

One or more groups of similar subjects are followed over a period of time to see whether differences develop based on exposure to another variable.

A

Cohort studies

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6
Q

Subjects for a study are selected based on having a particular condition; they are then retroactively studied to determine whether there were other common factors that predisposed them to that condition.

A

Case control studies

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7
Q

Comparing a few individuals with similar individual presentations or outcomes.

A

Case series studies

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8
Q

One patient’s history, condition, and outcomes are analyzed

A

Individual case studies

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9
Q

Using an intervention because of past success using it or because of someone else’s recommendation.

A

Expert opinion/experience

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10
Q

What is the difference between reliability and validity in research?

A
Reliability = how consistent something is
Validity = how accurate something is
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11
Q

The probability that true score for a variable lies between a certain range of scores. Generally expected to be at 95% or more.

A

Confidence interval

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12
Q

The likelihood that the results of the study could have occurred by chance (not because of a real difference in interventions).

A

Probability

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13
Q

The amount by which scores vary from the mean.

A

Standard deviation

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14
Q

The consistency of scores taken by one clinician taken at different times.

A

Intra-rater reliability

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15
Q

The consistency of scores taken by one clinician taken at different times.

A

Intra-rater reliability

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16
Q

A test’s ability to identify people who have a certain condition.

A

Sensitivity

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17
Q

A test’s ability to identify people who do not have a certain condition

A

Specificity

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18
Q

Evidence-based practice includes…

A
  • Research evidence
  • Clinical judgment
  • Patient Values
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19
Q

Which type of evidence is the strongest?

A

Systematic Review

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20
Q

Where would be the best source to go to find a consolidation of practice recommendations for a condition, based on current evidence and research available?

A

Clinical Practice Guideline

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21
Q

What year did the first colleges admit PTA students?

A

1967

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22
Q

Describe 2 major events that influenced the development of the profession of physical therapy?

A

The polio epidemic and WWI

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23
Q

Who was the first president of the American Physical Therapy Association?

A

Mary McMillan

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24
Q

Applies standards that assure continuous improvement with entry-level preparation of physical therapists and physical therapist assistants.

A

Commission on Accreditation in Physical Therapy Education (CAPTE)

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25
A body that represents PTA interests, needs and issues in APTA Governance
PTA Caucus
26
Highest policy making body of the APTA
House of Delegates
27
National conference for students in physical therapy.
National Student Conclave
28
Encourages and facilitates APTA member participation in the political process
Physical Therapy Political Action Committee (PT-PAC)
29
What is Vision 2020
A goal written in the year 2000 by APTA for the progression of physical therapy by the year 2020
30
What are the 6 elements of Vision 2020
- Autonomous Physical Therapist Practice - Direct Access - Doctor of Physical Therapy and Lifelong education - Evidence-based Practice - Practitioner of Choice - Professionalism
31
Summarize the APTA Vision Statement for Physical Therapy
Improving society's quality of life by increasing and perfecting movement
32
Ability of the public to directly access physical therapist's services
Direct Access
33
A document posted by the APTA describes the critical elements that comprise professionalism
Core Values
34
Further the profession's role in the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of movement dysfunctions and the enhancement of the physical health and functional abilities of the public.
APTA Mission
35
Regulates the practice of physical therapy in the state of Maryland
Maryland State Board of Physical Therapy (MSBPT)
36
The governing body for certification and recertification of clinical specialists
American Board of Physical Therapy Specialties (ABPTS)
37
Develops and administers the National Physical Therapy Examination
Federal of State Boards of Physical Therapy (FSBPT)
38
Principal membership organization that stands for and promotes the profession of physical therapy
American Physical Therapy Association (APTA)
39
List all forms of nonverbal communication
- Facial expressions and body language - Eye contact - Personal space and touch - Physical appearance of the provider - Attitude and focus
40
What are the 3 methods of active listening
- Restatement - Reflection - Clarification
41
Re-write the following statement using "people first" language: He is a quadriplegic.
The man has quadriplegia
42
Re-write the following statement using "people first" language: It is a fund-raiser for the mentally retarded.
It is a fundraiser for people with mental disabilities
43
Re-write the following statement using "people first" language: The blind man came in last
The man with visual impairments came in last
44
Re-write the following statement using "people first language: The developmentally disabled children
The children who have developmental disabilities
45
Re-write the following statement using "people first" language: Congenitally-dislocated hips (speaking of babies)
Babies with congenitally-dislocated hips
46
Re-write the following statement using "people first" language: Confined to a wheelchair
The person uses a wheelchair
47
Re-write the following statement using "people first" language: Stricken with Lou Gehrig's disease
The person has Lou Gehrig's disease
48
Re-write the following statement using "people first language: Cystic fibrosis kids
Kids with cystic fibrosis
49
What is the definition of a nosocomial infection?
An infection that originates in the hospital
50
Microorganisms move from place to place by various means in a cyclical manner. What are the 6 elements in the cycle of infection?
- Reservoir - Exit - Transmission - Entry - Susception - Infection
51
What is the best measure for preventing the spread of infection?
Hand washing
52
What is the meaning of Standard Precautions
A system of infection control that is taken with all patients regardless of their diagnosis or infection status
53
According to Pierson and Fairchild, what is the recommended length of time for hand washing?
40-60 seconds
54
When do you don (put on) protective garments when working with a patient in a hospital with transmission precautions?
Before entering their room
55
When do you doff (take off) your protective garments after working with a patient in the hospital with transmission precautions?
Before leaving their room
56
What color are the receptacles that are used to dispose infectious waste in a health care setting?
Red
57
According to Standard Precautions for contact transmission, what protocol is used for items that are removed from the patient's room?
Patient care items should remain in the room. If any item has to be removed, it must be disinfected and or placed in a bag labeled "biohazard".
58
What is the term to describe practices that render and keep objects and areas free of all microorganisms, preventing the spread of infection to a patient?
Surgical asepsis
59
What is the proper clothing application sequence for aseptic application?
- Gown - Mask - Glasses/goggles - Cap - Gloves
60
When is protective eyewear most important
During times when blood splashes or sprays of other bodily fluids is likely
61
What are the most common modes of transmission of pathogenic microorganisms?
- Contact - Droplet - Airborne
62
In applying an alcohol-based hand rub, what is the appropriate step to take after rubbing the product briskly over all surfaces of the hands?
Continuing to rub until the hands are dry
63
What is the absence of disease-producing microorganisms?
Asepsis
64
Which areas of the side-lying patient are at greatest risk for pressure sores?
- Lateral ears - Lateral ribs - Greater trochanters - Humeral epicondyles
65
Which area of pillow placement is most likely to contribute to a contracture of the hamstring muscles in prone positioning?
Anterior to the ankles
66
Which areas of a prone patient are at greatest risk for pressure sores?
- Acromion processes - Forehead - Crests of the tibias - Dorsum of the feet
67
In general, how frequently should a dependent patient's position be changed?
At least every 2 hours
68
Which areas are especially prone to pressure sores in a patient who is wheelchair dependant?
- Ischial tuberosities | - Olecranon Processes
69
What is the possible effect of the placement of a small bolster behind the knees of a supine patient?
Iliopsoas and hamstring contracture
70
Which areas of a supine patient are at greatest risk for pressure sores?
- Occipital tuberosity - Spines of the scapula - Sacrum - Heels
71
A muscle contraction that develops tension but does not perform any mechanical work; no appreciable joint motion occurs, and the overall length of the muscle remains constant.
Isometric Contraction
72
A muscle contraction whereby tension is developed and movement of a joint or body part occurs; and eccentric or concentric contraction can occur, and the muscle may lengthen or shorten
Isotonic Contraction
73
An overall shortening of a muscle as it develops tension and contracts.
Concentric Contraction
74
An overall lengthening of a muscle as it develops tension and contracts to control motion performed by an outside force
Eccentric Contraction
75
Exercise performed by a person with manual or mechanical assistance
Active assistive exercise
76
Exercise performed by a person without any manual or mechanical assistance
Active exercise
77
The movement of a joint or body segment by a force external to the body within an unrestricted and normal ROM without active, voluntary muscle contraction by the patient
Passive Range of Motion
78
Trunk rotation occurs in which of the following planes of motion?
Transverse plane
79
Shoulder flexion occurs in which plane of motion?
Sagittal plane
80
Hip abduction occurs in which plane of motion?
Frontal plane
81
What position could you put a patient in in order for them to flex the shoulder with gravity eliminated?
Side-lying
82
Which position could you put the patient in to extend the hip against gravity
Prone
83
What position is gravity-eliminated for shoulder abduction.
Supine
84
What position could you put the patient in to perform right hip adduction with gravity eliminated?
Supine
85
Which type of muscle contraction describes a controlled and consistent speed of contraction?
Isokinetic
86
Which cardinal plane divides the body into right and left components?
Sagittal
87
Which type of contraction involves no voluntary contraction of muscle and, therefore, will not help prevent muscle atrophy?
Passive Range of Motion
88
Arthr/o is an example of a:
combining form
89
In the word therm/o/meter, -meter is a/an:
suffix
90
Oste/o/chondr/itis is an example of a :
compound word
91
A combining form is a word root plus:
A vowel
92
What combining form means joint?
Arthr/o
93
An element located at the beginning of a medical word is a:
Prefix
94
True or False: All medical words have a prefix.
False
95
True or False: A word root plus o creates a combining form.
True
96
True or False: the word "Systole" in pronounced as a separate syllable.
True
97
Pertaining to the tail or the hind part
Caudad
98
Pertaining to the front of the body
Ventral/Anterior
99
Pertaining to the back of the body
Posterior
100
Near the point of attachment to the trunk or a structure
Proximal
101
Pertaining to the side; toward the side
Lateral
102
Pertaining to the middle; toward the midline
Medial
103
Below or lower; toward the tail
Inferior
104
Relating to the spine
Spinal
105
Physician who studies tissue
Histologist
106
Middle region located in the area of the umbilicus, or navel
Umbilical
107
Term for when the body is erect, and the eyes are looking forward
Anatomical Position
108
The combining form thorac/o means
Pertaining to the chest
109
The body cavity that contains the lungs is the
Thoracic
110
The combining form cyt/o means;
cell
111
Leuk/o is the combining form for:
White
112
The combining form for yellow is:
Jaund/o
113
The frontal (or coronal) plane divides the body into:
2 dorsal cavities and 2 ventral cavities
114
The prefix ad- means
Toward
115
The combining form for farthest is:
dist/o
116
What age range is the "Trust vs Mistrust" stage of life
0-12 mnths
117
What age range is the "Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt" stage of life
2-4
118
What age range is the "Initiative vs Guilt" stage of life
4-5
119
What age range is the "Industry vs Inferiority" stage of life
6-11
120
What age range is the "Identity vs Identity Diffusion" stage of life
12-18
121
When is the "Intamacy vs Isolation" stage of life
The first phase of adulthood
122
When is the "Generativity vs Stagnation" stage of life
The second phase of adulthood
123
When is the "Integrity vs Despair" stage of life
The last phase of life