Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biology - Year 12 > Module 8: Non-Infectious Disease and Disorder > Flashcards

Module 8: Non-Infectious Disease and Disorder Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Why is homeostasis important?

A

To maintain proper functioning of enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What systems are involved in homeostasis?

A

The hormonal system and nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the two main components of the negative feedback loop?

A

Detecting change or the stimulus
Counteracting the change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What systems coordinate the negative feedback loop?

A

Nervous system or the endocrine system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the hypothalmus?

A

A part in the brain which is an important control centre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the effectors when there is an increased body temp?

A

Blood vessels, sweat glands, cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the responses to increased body temp?

A

Blood vessels dilate
Sweat glands secret sweat evaporation leads to heat loss
Metabolic rate of cells decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are effectors when there is a decreased body temp?

A

Blood vessels
Muscles
Cells
Hair erector cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the responses to decreased body temp?

A

Blood vessels constrict
Muscles cause shivering
Metabolic rate of cells increase
Erect hair traps air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are receptors responsible for?

A

Detecting stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do thermoreceptors detect?

A

Change of heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What do chemoreceptors detect?

A

Concentration of certain chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do osmoreceptors detect?

A

Osmotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the two parts of the nervous system?

A

The central nervous system
The peripheral nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the CNS composed of?

A

Brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the PNS composed of?

A

All other nerves in body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How are messages transmitted by the nervous system?

A

In the form of electrochemical impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the cell body of a neuron?

A

Contains the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are dendrites in neurons?

A

Fine branches which conduct nerve pulses towards cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are axons in neurons?

A

Long extension which conduct messages away from cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are sensory neurons?

A

Neurons which carry messages from sensory cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are motor neurons?

A

Neurons which transfer messages to muscles or glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are interneurons?

A

The link between sensory and motor neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the synapse?

A

A small gap between neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are nerves?

A

A bundle of neurons gathered together by fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How are messages transmitted in nerves?

A

Electrochemical impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is action potential?

A

Change in electrical potential during electrochemical impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What happens during action potential?

A

There is a change in concentration of ions on either side of the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When is a neuron at rest?

A

When no message is being transmitted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the resting membrane potential?

A

-70mV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the ion arrangement around neurons when at rest?

A

Lots of Na+ ions outside and little K+ ions inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the membrane called at rest?

A

Polarised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What happens when stimulus is detected?

A

Sodium channels open and Na+ move in to neuron reducing overall negative charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the threshold value?

A

-55mV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What happens if threshold value is met?

A

Na+ ions will continue to move in regardless of stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What happens when Na+ moves into the neuron?

A

Causes inside to be more positive known as depolarisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What happens during depolarisation?

A

Potassium channels also open allowing K+ ions to move out known as repolarisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How long are potassium channels open for?

A

Slightly longer than sodium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does action potential trigger?

A

The release of neurontransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are neurontransmitters and what do they do?

A

They are chemicals that move across the synapse initiating an action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What type of matter is the brain and spinal cord made up of?

A

White and grey matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does grey matter mainly consist of?

A

Neuron cell bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does white matter mainly consist of?

A

Nerve fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Where is grey matter in the brain?

A

On the outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where is grey matter in the spinal cord?

A

In the centre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the brain?

A

Main control centre of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does the spinal cord do?

A

Provides link between the peripheral nervous system and brain and coordinates reflex actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does the endocrine system use?

A

Hormones which are secreted by endocrine glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How are hormones transported in the body?

A

Via the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What do hormones do?

A

They influence activity of particular enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the pancrease made up of?

A

Structures called pancreatic islets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What do the pancreatic islets do?

A

Produce hormones insulin and glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What type of cells are in pancreatic islet cells?

A

Alpha and beta cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What do beta cells do?

A

Detect high levels of glucose and produce insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does insulin do?

A

Allows glucose to be removed from the blood by forming glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What do alpha cells do?

A

Detect low levels of glucose and produce glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does glucagon do?

A

Stimulates the production of glucose by breaking down glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are endotherms?

A

Organisms which can maintain their body temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What behavioural adaptions do endotherms have to maintain body temp?

A

They alter or move the position of their body to increase or decrease temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are some examples of behavioural adaptions of endotherms to maintain body temp?

A

Penguins huddle together when cold or go in water when hot
Nocturnal activity prevents exposure to heat of the day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What structural adaptions do endotherms have to maintain body temp?

A

Insulation like hair, feather, fur and fat prevent heat loss
Surface area such as small or big ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What physiological adaptions do endotherms have to maintain body temp?

A

Metabolic activity can be altered
Shivering
Hibernation
Sweating or panting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is transpiration?

A

Evaporation of water from the stomata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are xerophytes?

A

Plants that live in arid conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are 8 adaptations of xerophytes?

A

Shiny wax and thick leathery cuticles
White hair on leaves
Orientation of leaves
Reduced surface area
No leaves
Regulating open and close of stomata
Fleshy stems and leaves
Woody fruits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are non-infectious diseases?

A

Disease which is not caused by pathogens and are not contagious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How much do non-infectious diseases account for deaths in aus?

A

Account for the four leading causes of death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are genetic diseases caused by?

A

Mutations of the genes or chromosomes or abnormal cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What causes single gene abnormalities?

A

When a person inherits mutated genes from parents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What diseases does single gene abnormalities cause?

A

Cystic fibrosis, albinism and sickle cell anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What causes cystic fibrosis?

A

Mutation of the CFTR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How does the mutation of CFTR cause cystic fibrosis?

A

The faulty gene changes the protein which regulates NaCl movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What does cystic fibrosis cause and affect?

A

Causes abnormally thick mucus which affects the respiratory, digestive and reproductive system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the two types of chromosomal abnormalities?

A

Incorrect number of chromosomes and a change to the chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What causes an incorrect number of chromosomes?

A

Non-disjunction
Trisomy
Monosmy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is non-disjunction?

A

Incorrect seperation of chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is trisomy?

A

One extra chromosome with a normal pair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is monosmy?

A

When one member of chromosome pair is gone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What happens to babies with monosmy or trisomy?

A

They will have a syndrome which is a group of symptoms which relate to a disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is deletion of a chromosome?

A

When a chromosome breaks and some of it is deleted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is translocation?

A

When a section of a chromosome moves to join another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is down syndrome?

A

The most common trisomy syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What causes down syndrome?

A

An extra chromosome 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are the characteristic facial features of down syndrome?

A

Small flat skull, almond shaped eyes and small ears that fold over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the impacts of down sydrome?

A

Intellectual disability and heart defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are lifestyle diseases?

A

Those that directly arise from the way people live their life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the four most common lifestyle diseases?

A

Cardiovascular disease
Diabetes
Cancers
Chronic lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the risk factors of lifestyle diseases?

A

Tobacco use, unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, harmful use of alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What physical factors can cause disease?

A

Exposure to UV and radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the risk of exposure to some chemicals?

A

Exposure to some chemicals increase the chance of developing a disease

91
Q

What can exposure to asbestos lead to?

A

Lung cancer

92
Q

What are the causes of nutritional diseases?

A

Diets lacking the proper balance

93
Q

What are the two types of malnutrition?

A

Undernutrition and overnutrition

94
Q

What does lack of protein cause?

A

Kwashiorkor disease

95
Q

What are the symptoms of kwashiorkor disease?

A

Swollen belly and failure to grow

96
Q

What does lack of vitamin A cause?

A

Blindness in children

97
Q

What does lack of vitamin D cause?

A

Rickets in children

98
Q

What are the symptoms of rickets?

A

Defective calcification of bones
Bowed legs

99
Q

What does lack of vitamin C cause?

A

Scurvy

100
Q

What are the symptoms of scurvy?

A

Poor wound healing
Bones that do not grow
Spontaneous haemorrhaging

101
Q

What does lack of iron cause?

A

Anaemia

102
Q

What are the symptoms of anaemia?

A

Pale skin
Weakness
Unusual tiredness

103
Q

What is anorexia nervosa?

A

It is the intense fear of gaining weight

104
Q

What are the symptoms of anorexia nervosa?

A

Excessive weight loss
Tiredness
Aneamia

105
Q

What is bulmia nervosa?

A

It is similar to anorexia but it entails binge eating and then purging via vomiting

106
Q

What is the most common type of overnutrition?

A

Obesity

107
Q

What are the symptoms of obesity?

A

Weight gain
Increased blood pressure
Type two diabetes
Arthritis

108
Q

When does cancer occur?

A

When abnormal cells divide in an uncontrollable way

109
Q

What control cell devision?

A

DNA repair genes, proto-oncogenes, tumor suppressor genes

110
Q

What are DNA repair genes responsible for?

A

Stopping the cell cycle and repairing damaged regions of DNA

111
Q

What are proto-oncogenes responsible for?

A

Stimulating cell growth and mitosis

112
Q

What does mutation of proto-oncogenes cause?

A

Lead to oncogenes that cause uncontrolled cell production and prevent cell death

113
Q

What are tumor suppressor genes responsible for?

A

Slowing down or stopping cell growth and mitosis and inducing cell death

114
Q

What is a benign tumor?

A

Not a cancer and cells remain within a boundary

115
Q

What is a malignant tumor?

A

Contain abnormal cancerous cells which are not confined by a boundary and redirect the nutrients to themselves

116
Q

What is metastasis?

A

The spread of a tumor in the body

117
Q

What is a sarcoma?

A

Cancer in muscle, bone or blood vessels

118
Q

What is a carcinoma?

A

Cancer in skin or tissue that lines organs

119
Q

What is lymphoma?

A

Caner in the lymphatic system

120
Q

What is leukaemia?

A

Cancer in bone marrow and other blood forming tissue

121
Q

What are central nervous system cancers?

A

Cancers wich begin in the brain or spinal cord

122
Q

What are 7 causes of cancer?

A

Smoking
Excessive alcohol consumption
Lack of physical activity
Exposure to radiation
Exposure to chemicals
Contracting some viruses like HPV
Inheriting mutated genes

123
Q

What is melenoma?

A

The uncontrolled division of melanocytes

124
Q

What are the risk factors of melenoma?

A

Exposure to UV
Fair complexion
Severe sunburn
Male gender

125
Q

What is mortality rates?

A

The number of deaths due to the disease in a time period

126
Q

How do you calculate mortality rates?

A

Number of deaths / population

127
Q

What is epidemiology?

A

The study of patterns of disease in population

128
Q

What is epidemiology used for?

A

To determine the potential cause of disease and find out which population are affected

129
Q

What is the treatment for melanoma when detected early?

A

Surgery

130
Q

What is the treatment for more advanced cases of melanoma?

A

Radiation
Chemotherapy
Targeted therapies
Immunotherapy

131
Q

What are descriptive studies?

A

The first type of study conducted when investigating disease

132
Q

What do descriptive studies provide?

A

Information about patterns of the disease

133
Q

What are analytical studies?

A

Collection of data which is statistically analysed to test hypothesis

134
Q

What type of data is collected in analytical studies?

A

Morbidity, mortality, incidence and prevalence

135
Q

What are the two types of analytical studies?

A

Case control and cohort studies

136
Q

What are case control studies?

A

Compare people with disease (case) to people without (control)

137
Q

What are cohort studies?

A

Studying two or more similar groups without disease, one group exposed to possible cause other is not

138
Q

What are intervention studies?

A

Used to test effectiveness of a treatment or health campaign

139
Q

What is an experimental study?

A

When one group receives the trial drug and the other receives a placebo

140
Q

What is a quasi - experimental study?

A

When a random trial is impossible so researchers choose the subjects

141
Q

What are the three criteria any intervention study should meet?

A

Conducted over a long period of time
Study of a large sample size (thousand)
Represent the wider population

142
Q

What are random errors?

A

Unpredictable and inconsistent effect on measurement

143
Q

What can be done to reduce random erros?

A

The study of large sample sizes

144
Q

What is systemic error?

A

Bias which causes consistent deviation in measurment

145
Q

What are public health campaigns used for?

A

To provide information to educate the population about risk factors to minimise exposure to them

146
Q

What is an example of a public health campaign?

A

‘Slip, Slop, Slap, Seek, Slide’

147
Q

What are legislations?

A

Laws which minimise risk factors

148
Q

What is PGT?

A

Pre-implantation genetic testing

149
Q

What is the process of PGT?

A

Cycle of IVF
Eggs directly fertilised with injection of sperm
Embryos grown for three days
One cell removed and tested
Embryos free of gene retained rest destroyed or kept for research
Day 5 embryos implanted
Pregnancy develops normally

150
Q

What is golden rice?

A

Rice which has genetically been engineered to produce beta-carotene

151
Q

What does the body use beta-carotene for?

A

To produce vitamin A

152
Q

What is the pinna?

A

Fleshy part of the outer ear, directs sound to auditory canal

153
Q

What is the auditory canal?

A

Tube from outer to middle ear

154
Q

What is the tympanic membrane?

A

Taught membrane, transmits vibrations to middle ear

155
Q

What is the ear ossicle?

A

Three small bones, magnify vibrations and transfers to oval window

156
Q

What is the oval window?

A

Membrane separating middle ear from fluid filled inner ear

157
Q

What is the round window?

A

Membrane at the base of the cochlea, vibrates in conjunction with oval

158
Q

What is the cochlea?

A

Snail shaped, holds fluid which helps convert vibrations into nervous signals

159
Q

What is the organ of corti?

A

Receptor cells in the cochlea converting vibrations into electrical impulses

160
Q

What is the auditory nerve?

A

The nerve which carries electrical impulses to the brain

161
Q

Where are high pitches detected in the cochlea?

A

At the base

162
Q

Where are low pitches detected in the cochlea?

A

At the apex

163
Q

When does conductive hearing loss occur?

A

When there is a problem with mechanical conduction, inner and middle ear

164
Q

What are some causes of conductive hearing loss?

A

Perforated eardrum, infection and damage to ossicles

165
Q

What is usually affected with conductive hearing loss?

A

The loudness of sound

166
Q

When does sensorineural hearing loss occur?

A

When there is damage to the inner ear

167
Q

What are some causes of sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Excessive noise exposure, heredity, infection, tumors and ageing

168
Q

What is impacted with sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Prevents kinetic energy being transformed into electrical impulses

169
Q

How does a hearing aid work?

A

Magnify sound vibrations

170
Q

What can hearing aids assist with?

A

Conductive and sensorineural hearing loss

171
Q

Where is a hearing aid worn?

A

Behind or inside the ear or in frames of glasses

172
Q

How does a bone conduction implant work?

A

Microphone detects sound which is transformed into vibration directed through bone to the cochlea

173
Q

What can bone conduction implants assist with?

A

Conductive hearing loss

174
Q

Where is a bone conduction implant worn?

A

On the side of the head behind the ear

175
Q

How does a cochlear implant work?

A

An external speech processor and transmitter coil is attached to an electrode array implanted in the cochlea

176
Q

What can cochlear implants assist with?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

177
Q

Where is a cochlear implant worn?

A

On the side of the head behind the ear

178
Q

What is the conjunctiva?

A

Clear mucos membrane that provides protection and lubrication

179
Q

What is the cornea?

A

Clear layers with nerve endings covering the iris and pupil

180
Q

What is the sclera?

A

Tough protective coating surrounding the eye

181
Q

What is the choroid?

A

Vascular tissue that reduces scattering or reflection of light

182
Q

What is the retina?

A

Light sensitive tissue that captures incoming photons and transmits them

183
Q

What is the iris?

A

Pigmented circular structure that controls the size of the pupil

184
Q

What is the lens?

A

Crystalline biconvex structure that changes shape to refract light

185
Q

What is the aqueous humor?

A

Clear gel between the lens and cornea that provides nutrients and support

186
Q

What is the virtueous humor?

A

Clear gel between the retina and lens that provides nutrients and support

187
Q

What is the ciliary body?

A

Muscle that produces fluid in eyes called aqueous humor

188
Q

What is the suspensory ligament?

A

Ring like fibrous membrane that control size of lens

189
Q

What is the optic nerve?

A

Neurons that carries messages from receptors to brain

190
Q

What is the fovea?

A

Area in back of eye with high concentration of cones responsible for high acuity vision

191
Q

What is accommodation?

A

The way the lens curves to focus objects

192
Q

How does the curvature of the lens impact refractive power in eyes?

A

The greater the curvature the greater the refractive lens

193
Q

What type of curvature is required for focus on close objects?

A

Increased curvature

194
Q

What type of curvature is required for focus on far objects?

A

Lengthening of lens

195
Q

Where are rods and cones located in the eyes?

A

Retina

196
Q

What do rods and cones do?

A

Convert light energy into electrochemical impulses

197
Q

About how many rod cells are there in th eye?

A

125 million

198
Q

About how many cone cells are there in the eye?

A

6-7 million

199
Q

What do rods do?

A

Cannot detect colour and have very high light sensitivity

200
Q

What are in cones?

A

Three types of iodopsins

201
Q

What are iodopsins?

A

Sensors in cones which can detect red, green and blue wave lengths

202
Q

What causes myopia?

A

Eyeball too elongated and refractive power of cornea may be too strong

203
Q

What is hyperopia?

A

Long sightedness

204
Q

What causes hyperopia?

A

Eyeball is too rounded and the lens is too flat and the refractive power of the cornea is too weak

205
Q

What are cataracts?

A

Clouding of the lens

206
Q

What are the impacts of cataracts?

A

Reduces transmission of light and blurred vision both near and far

207
Q

What is macular degeneration?

A

Degeneration of cells beneath the retina

208
Q

What are the impacts of macular degeneration?

A

Central vision is affected but peripheral vision is unaffected

209
Q

What type of lenses corrects myopia?

A

Concave lenses

210
Q

What type of lenses corrects hyperopia?

A

Convex lenses

211
Q

What is cataract surgery?

A

A surgery that corrects cataracts by replacing the cloudy lens with an artificial lens

212
Q

How does cataract surgery work?

A

The cloudy lens is broken down and suctioned out

213
Q

What is LASIK surgery?

A

A surgery which can improve myopia and hyperopia

214
Q

What occurs during kidney damage?

A

Nephrons are damaged meaning that filtration, reabsorption and secretion can not occur

215
Q

What are some causes that lead to kidney damage?

A

Diabetes, high blood pressure, kidney infections and cancer

216
Q

How does haemodialysis work?

A

Blood is removed from body and blood is pushed through a filter

217
Q

How does peritoneal dialysis work?

A

Dialysate put in abdomen of patient and the peritoneum filters out the waste

218
Q

How is waste removed from blood during dialysis?

A

It moves from blood into dialysate by diffusion

219
Q

What are three ways in which educational programs can be effective in reducing non-infectious diseases?

A
  • Promoting healthy behaviour
  • Increased awareness of risks of environment exposure
  • Increased participation in screening
220
Q

What is the ciliary muscle?

A

Muscle which contract or relax to modify the shape of the lens

221
Q

What is the positive feedback concept?

A

Positive feedback strengthens the original stimuli

222
Q

Which factors affect homeostasis?

A

Internal environment

223
Q

Where is carbon dioxide carried in the blood?

A

70% forms HCO3 - and travels in the plasma
23% combines with haemoglobin
7% directly dissolves in plasma

224
Q

What is the process that occurs in glomerulus?

A

Filtration

Biology - Year 12 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions